This Document Contains Chapters 13 to 16 Chapter 13 1. Neuropsychology is the study of: a. brain-behavior relationships. b. covert behavior. c. metabolic processes of the brain. d. overt behavior. Answer: a. brain-behavior relationships. 2. A general guideline for neuropsychological assessment is that: a. testing should focus on either the left or right hemisphere. b. testing should sample mostly anterior (as opposed to posterior) regions of cortical function. c. a majority of a patient’s relevant cognitive skills should be assessed. Answer: c. a majority of a patient’s relevant cognitive skills should be assessed. 3. The ______________ is the most commonly used fixed neuropsychological battery. a. Stanford Brain-Relationship Scale b. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery c. Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery d. Wechsler Assessment of Neuropsychological Status Answer: b. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery 4. The Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery lends itself to three levels of interpretation: a. nominal, ordinal, and interval. b. scale, item, and qualitative. c. age, grade, and ipsative. d. ordinal, interval, and ratio. Answer: b. scale, item, and qualitative. 5. The Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery can be administered from the age of: a. 8 years. b. 12 years. c. 16 years. d. 18 years. Answer: b. 12 years. 6. The Boston Process Approach uses: a. a flexible battery of developmental and psychological tests. b. a flexible battery of intelligence and personality tests. c. a fixed battery of developmental and psychological tests. d. a fixed battery of intelligence and personality tests. Answer: a. a flexible battery of developmental and psychological tests. 7. A test that has been devised specifically to supplement the Boston Process Approach is the: a. Boston Verbal Learning Assessment b. California Verbal Learning Test c. Wechsler Assessment of Neuropsychological Status d. Wechsler Nonverbal Assessment Answer: b. California Verbal Learning Test 8. One significant weakness of the Boston Process Approach is that: a. it is a flexible battery. b. it cannot be tailored to referral problem. c. there is not good normative or reference data. d. title research exists for the individual tests. Answer: c. there is not good normative or reference data. 9. Slick, et al (1996) properly concluded that whenever changes are made to standardized instruments, comprehensive norms: a. are not changed. b. are required under the new testing conditions. c. are not necessary since it adopts a criterion approach. d. are not used since it is a qualitative assessment. Answer: b. are required under the new testing conditions. 10. A major concern of the Boston Process Approach is that: a. because it is fixed and lengthy, it requires a great deal of training for the examiner. b. it is difficult to establish validity for the various versions of batteries used. c. the overall reliability of individual scores is low. d. tt can only be administered to a select few patients. Answer: b. it is difficult to establish validity for the various versions of batteries used. 11. Regarding Traumatic Brain Injury, ____________ is the most common of all patient complaints. a. ataxia b. memory impairment c. primary aphasia d. speech difficulties Answer: b. memory impairment 12. What is the most common cause of traumatic brain injury? a. assaults b. blast injuries c. falls d. motor vehicle accidents Answer: d. motor vehicle accidents 13. Koppitz (1977) devised the ___________________ as an early instrument for evaluating children’s memory. a. Bender-Gestalt Test b. Test of Memory and Learning c. Visual-Aural Digit Span Test d. Wide Range of Assessment of Memory and Learning Answer: c. Visual-Aural Digit Span Test 14. The Wide Range of Assessment of Memory and Learning was developed by She slow and Adams for assessing which age group? a. 5 – 17 years of age b. 18 – 75 years of age c. 18 years of age and older d. 21 years of age and older Answer: a. 5 – 17 years of age 15. The Wide Range of Assessment of Memory and Learning consists of nine subtests divided equally into three scales: a. abstract memory, visual memory, and learning. b. verbal memory, visual memory, and learning. c. short term memory, long term memory, and learning. d. nonverbal memory, verbal memory, learning. Answer: b. verbal memory, visual memory, and learning. 16. The ____________ is the most comprehensive memory battery available and provides subtests that are representative of most aspects of memory that need to be assessed. a. Test of Memory and Learning – 2 b. Visual-Aural Digit Span Test c. Wechsler Memory Scale d. Wide Range Assessment of Memory and Learning Answer: a. Test of Memory and Learning – 2 17. The TOMAL-2 is normed for use from _______ to _________. a. 5; 20 years of age b. 5; 49 years 11 months 30 days c. 5; 59 years 11 months 30 days d. 5; 60 years of age Answer: c. 5; 59 years 11 months 30 days 18. Subtests included in the TOMAL-2 sample sequential recall, which is strongly mediated by: a. the left hemisphere, especially the temporal region b. the right hemisphere, especially the temporal region c. the left hemisphere, specifically the parietal lobe d. the right hemisphere, specifically the parietal lobe Answer: a. the left hemisphere, especially the temporal region 19. The TOMAL-2 includes the ___________ subtest, which correlates well with school learning. a. Facial Memory b. Recalling Stories c. Sequential Recall d. Visual Selective Reminding Answer: b. Recalling Stories 20. Neuropsychologists have been asked to determine between _________ pathology (having a structural basis) and __________ pathology (having a psychological or other cause). a. functional, organic b. organic, functional c. negative; positive d. positive; negative Answer: b. organic, functional 21. The neuropsychological assessment process typically begins with a(n): a. personality assessment. b. intelligence assessment. c. referral question. d. treatment team meeting. Answer: c. referral question. 22. How does a neuropsychologist typically determine a baseline level of functioning for a newly brain injured patient? a. Personality assessment b. Clinical interview c. Review of historical records d. The referral question Answer: c. Review of historical records 23. A prominent cardiac surgeon was tested and found to be functioning in the average range on a verbal test. What could a neuropsychologist possibly deduce from this information? a. Nothing – not enough information was provided. b. The surgeon probably does not have any cognitive deficits. c. The surgeon is most likely displaying signs of cognitive loss. Answer: c. The surgeon is most likely displaying signs of cognitive loss. 24. An assembly line employee with a 10th grade education was tested and was found to be functioning in the average range on a verbal test. What could a neuropsychologist possibly deduce from this information? a. Nothing – not enough information was provided. b. The employee is very likely displaying signs of cognitive loss. c. The employee is most likely not displaying signs of cognitive loss. Answer: c. The employee is most likely not displaying signs of cognitive loss. 25. Demographic characteristics that typically have the most influence on neuropsychological tests include age, education, ethnicity, and: a. marital status. b. weight. c. gender. d. region. Answer: c. gender. 26. In the idiographic approach, the clinician uses _________________ as the comparison measure against which current scores are compared. a. previous scores b. national norms c. standardized demographic norms d. local norms Answer: a. previous scores 27. One psychometric method used to determine whether statistically significant change has occurred during a serial assessment is: a. subjective judgment. b. the Oblique Index of Change. c. the Reliable Change Index. d. standard difference-score. Answer: c. the Reliable Change Index. 28. One ability that is well preserved following brain damage is the capacity to: a. pronounce irregular words accurately. b. add two- and three-digit numbers. c. recall an increasingly complex list of words. d. perform well on digits backward. Answer: a. pronounce irregular words accurately. 29. One method used to estimate premorbid ability is: a. orthogonal rotations. b. the Barona Index. c. Coefficient Alpha. d. calculation of a factor matrix of new and old scores. Answer: b. the Barona Index. 30. According to recent research (Schmitt et al, 2010), __________________ may serve as a highly specific pathognomy sign of dementia. a. completion of Trails A b. completion of Trails B c. verbal IQ d. performance IQ Answer: b. completion of Trails B 31. On the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery, the hypothesized localization of the Finger Tapping and Grip Strength tests is the: a. frontal lobes. b. occipital lobes. c. parietal lobes. d. temporal lobes. Answer: a. frontal lobes. 32. On the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery, the Rhythm Test is used to assess which skill(s)? a. alertness. b. language. c. reasoning. d. visual-spatial reasoning. Answer: a. alertness. 33. The Auditory Perception Test on the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery is used to assess sensory-perceptual skills that are hypothesized to be located in the: a. frontal lobe. b. occipital lobe. c. parietal lobe. d. temporal lobe. Answer: d. temporal lobe. 34. A neuropsychological instrument used to assess executive functioning is the: a. Comprehensive Trail Making Test. b. Paced Auditory Serial Addition Test. c. Reynolds Intellectual Assessment Scales. d. Wechsler Test of Adult Reading. Answer: a. Comprehensive Trail Making Test. 35. A neuropsychological instrument used to assess attention is: a. the Boston Naming Test – 2. b. Conner’s Continuous Performance Test – III. c. the Stroop Test. d. the Tower of London. Answer: b. Conner’s Continuous Performance Test – III. 36. A prominent physiological change seen in alcoholic dementia (also called Korsakoff’s Syndrome) is: a. cortical atrophy in temporal and frontal lobes. b. Lewy body deposits. c. loss of dopaminergic cells in the substantia nigra. d. neurofibrillary plaques and tangles. Answer: a. cortical atrophy in temporal and frontal lobes. 37. Which of the following dementias produces significant motor disturbance? a. Alzheimer’s Disease b. Frontal lobe dementia c. Parkinson’s dementia d. Vascular dementia Answer: c. Parkinson’s dementia 38. A transient ischemic attack is defined as: a. a mild hemorrhagic stroke. b. a mild occlusive event. c. a severe completed occlusive event. d. a severe hemorrhagic stroke. Answer: b. a mild occlusive event. 39. _____________ is/are the most common cause of brain injury due to toxins. a. Alcohol b. Heavy metals c. Methamphetamine d. Pesticides Answer: a. Alcohol 40. When a patient deliberately exaggerates impairment or intentionally creates neurological symptoms, it is known as: a. conversion. b. factitious disorder. c. malingering. d. somatization. Answer: c. malingering. 41. An existing neuropsychological test that is quite resistant to brain damage and can serve as a measure of effort is: a. digit span backward. b. digit span forward. c. phonemic fluency. d. semantic fluency. Answer: a. digit span backward. Chapter 14 1. For the purpose of legal proceedings, who defines an expert? a. American Psychological Association b. American Board of Forensic Psychology c. Rules of evidence in federal and state courts d. The judge presiding over the legal proceeding Answer: c. Rules of evidence in federal and state courts 2. The burden of proving someone is an expert is placed on: a. the party who offers the testimony to the court. b. the party in opposition of the one who offers the testimony to the court. c. the judge. d. the state licensing board. Answer: a. the party who offers the testimony to the court. 3. Expert witnesses should: a. advocate for the subjective interpretation of data to assist the side that hired them. b. advocate for the objective interpretation of data to assist the court. c. only present the data that will benefit the side that hired them. d. limit their testimony to the presentations of their opinions and not reveal actual test data. Answer: b. advocate for the objective interpretation of data to assist the court. 4. What is one difference between a therapeutic assessment and a forensic assessment? a. Clinical assessments are more costly to the client than forensic assessments. b. Broad issues are primary in a therapeutic assessment, whereas narrowly defined areas are typically the focus in a forensic setting. c. Narrowly defined areas and events are primary in a therapeutic assessment, whereas broad issues are typically the focus in a forensic setting. d. Forensic assessments have less threat to validity than therapeutic assessments. Answer: b. Broad issues are primary in a therapeutic assessment, whereas narrowly defined areas are typically the focus in a forensic setting. 5. Of the following, which could not fall under the “not guilty by reason of insanity” defense? a. An individual diagnosed with schizophrenia commits a robbery during a psychotic episode b. An individual, while under acute methamphetamine intoxication, assaults a police officer c. An individual diagnosed with major depression attempts murder d. An individual diagnosed with dementia steals a car Answer: b. An individual, while under acute methamphetamine intoxication, assaults a police officer 6. The not guilty by reason of insanity (NGRI) defense is used in approximately what percentage of cases? a. 1% b. 10% c. 20% d. 40% Answer: a. 1% 7. After receiving a “not guilty by reason of insanity” verdict, the defendant is most often: a. committed to a minimum security prison where they receive psychological treatment. b. allowed to go free but with the stipulation that they will submit to psychological treatment. c. committed to a mental health facility for no more than 30 days. d. committed to a mental health facility indefinitely. Answer: d. committed to a mental health facility indefinitely. 8. Defendants are assumed competent to stand trial unless: a. they raise the issue with the court and prove otherwise. b. they raise the issue with the court and the prosecutor bears the burden of proof. c. the prosecutor raises the issue with the court and bears the burden of proof. d. the prosecutor raises the issue with the court and the defendant bears the burden of proof. Answer: a. they raise the issue with the court and prove otherwise. 9. What assessments are most likely to be used by a psychologist charged with determining a defendant’s competence to stand trial? a. Neuropsychological tests b. Projective personality tests c. Career assessment tests d. Performance assessments Answer: a. Neuropsychological tests 10. A juvenile court action is technically a: a. civil proceeding. b. casual proceeding, or informal means of resolving issues. c. criminal proceeding. d. administrative proceeding. Answer: a. civil proceeding. 11. In mitigation, the primary concern is determining whether or not: a. the person encountered difficult life circumstances that caused them harm, thus lessening their responsibility for the crime. b. circumstances exist in the individual’s life that lessen their moral culpability for the crime committed. c. the person is mentally ill and should not be held responsible for the crime. d. the person had adequate access to a competent legal defense. Answer: b. circumstances exist in the individual’s life that lessen their moral culpability for the crime committed. 12. What is one required finding in order to impose the death penalty? a. When the defendant’s life is considered in its totality, there are no circumstances that warrant mercy from the court. b. Execution will save the public money versus housing a convicted murderer for many years. c. A firearm was involved in the crime. d. When the defendant’s history is considered, the court finds that the defendant did not encounter severe abuse as a child. Answer: a. When the defendant’s life is considered in its totality, there are no circumstances that warrant mercy from the court. 13. Which landmark court decision outlawed the execution of persons with mental retardation? a. Atkins v. Virginia b. Daubert v. Dow c. Ferguson v. California d. Miranda v. Arizona e. Plessy v. Texas Answer: a. Atkins v. Virginia 14. A diagnosis of mental retardation requires that a person scores at least _____ standard deviation(s) below the mean on an intelligence test. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 Answer: b. 2 15. What is the most effective method to determine the degree and form of functional impairment in the event of central nervous system damage? a. CAT scan b. fMRI c. Neuroimaging studies d. Neuropsychological testing Answer: d. Neuropsychological testing 16. Regarding child custody evaluations, what is the most common of all ethical complaints filed against psychologists with their state licensing boards? a. Breach of confidentiality b. Errors or omissions from the informed consent process c. Misconduct or bias d. Practicing outside the scope of one’s competence Answer: c. Misconduct or bias 17. Testamentary capacity is: a. the ability to execute a will and bequeath one’s assets. b. the competence to give testimony in court. c. the ability to consent to a psychological evaluation. d. the competence to execute a power of attorney. Answer: a. the ability to execute a will and bequeath one’s assets. 18. What position has the National Academy of Neuropsychology taken in regards to third party observers during forensic examinations? a. The presence of TPOs is opposed . b. The presence of TPOs is acceptable in most situations. c. The presence of TPOs is acceptable in all situations. d. It depends on who requested the observer. Answer: a. The presence of TPOs is opposed . 19. A reasonable estimate for malingering in brain injury cases in personal injury litigation is: a. 10%-35% b. 25%-35% c. 25%-50% d. 50%-75% Answer: c. 25%-50% 20. The __________ must consider certain criteria before allowing an expert to render an opinion to the court. a. judge b. jury c. defense attorney d. prosecuting (or plaintiff’s) attorney Answer: a. judge 21. Which Supreme Court case most recently outlined the criteria of admissibility of scientific evidence? a. Atkins v. United States b. Atkins v. Virginia c. Daubert v. Merrill Dow d. Plessy v. Texas Answer: c. Daubert v. Merrill Dow 22. ________ focuses on the expert’s methods as opposed to the opinions they have derived. a. Acceptability b. Admissibility c. Credibility d. Reasonableness Answer: b. Admissibility 23. In clinical settings ___________ are primary, whereas forensic evaluations more commonly address ______________. a. broad issues; narrowly defined issues or events b. narrow issues; broad issues or events c. narrow issues; only legal issues d. subjective personality tests; objective personality tests Answer: a. broad issues; narrowly defined issues or events 24. In clinical settings, the treating clinician’s focus is on __________ however, the forensic examiner is concerned primarily with ___________. a. the client’s subjective view of the problem; accuracy b. accuracy; the client’s subjective view of the problem c. the client’s subjective view of the problem; autonomy of the client d. autonomy of the client; the client’s subjective view of the problem Answer: a. the client’s subjective view of the problem; accuracy 25. In what context is the threat of conscious and intentional distortion greatest? a. Clinical b. Counseling c. Forensic d. School Answer: c. Forensic 26. What is a factor considered by State and Federal Courts regarding the admissibility of expert testimony? a. Has the expert published a scientific article within the previous year? b. Has the hypothesis been subjected to peer review? c. Was the sensitivity error rate zero? d. Is the theory unanimously accepted in the appropriate scientific community? Answer: b. Has the hypothesis been subjected to peer review? 27. What has been found to be predictive of high error rates in clinical diagnoses? a. Lack of neuroimaging studies conducted b. A clinician with extremely high levels of confidence c. A clinician new to the field d. The administration of neuropsychological tests Answer: b. A clinician with extremely high levels of confidence 28. What is the estimated incidence of Antisocial Personality Disorder that occurs in a prison population? a. 15% b. 25% c. 60% d. 80% Answer: b. 25% 29. Studies on the Flynn Effect have observed an increase of _______ points per year in average IQs. a. 0.2 b. 0.3 c. 0.5 d. 0.8 Answer: b. 0.3 30. The ____________ contains a Relations with Parents scale that provides an objective evaluation of the child’s regards for the parents. a. BASC-2 SRP b. BASC-2 TRS c. BASC-2 PRS d. BASC-2 SOS Answer: a. BASC-2 SRP 31. Who is credited with discovering that the presence of an audience enhances your performance if you are very familiar with a task but decreases your performance if you have limited or no talent for the task? a. Norman Triplett b. Rensis Likert c. Robert Zajonc d. Wilhelm Wundt Answer: c. Robert Zajonc 32. Studies conducted at the University of Albany, State University of New York demonstrated that a third party observer ____________ impact(s) an examinee’s performance on neuropsychological testing. a. does not b. negatively c. positively Answer: b. negatively 33. An individual with a mild traumatic brain injury who had initial, temporary deficits now reports severe memory loss and an inability to return to work. This is technically referred to as: a. faking. b. malingering. c. perjury. d. feigning. Answer: b. malingering. Chapter 15 1. Which difference is reported to be the most controversial of all nominal group differences? a. Age b. Ethnicity c. Gender d. Socioeconomic Status Answer: b. Ethnicity 2. On what tests do men and boys tend to score higher than women and girls? a. Tests of spatial skills requiring imagery b. Tests that involve written language c. Tests of simple psychomotor speed d. Tests of simple written language Answer: a. Tests of spatial skills requiring imagery 3. What is the approximate score difference found between the mean performances of black and white students on aptitude tests with a mean of 100 and SD of 15? a. Approximately 5 points b. Approximately 10 points c. Approximately 15 points d. Approximately 20 points Answer: c. Approximately 15 points 4. What is one of the most carefully studied explanations for group differences in aptitude? a. Cultural test bias hypothesis b. Ethnic test bias hypothesis c. Gender inequality bias d. Group difference hypothesis Answer: a. Cultural test bias hypothesis 5. The cultural test bias hypothesis contends that any difference between nominally determined groups is due to: a. actual differences in the trait or skills being measured. b. characteristics of the test. c. cultural differences. d. the examiner’s influence on examinee. Answer: b. characteristics of the test. 6. As the reliability of a test score or evaluation procedure goes down, the probability of bias: a. decreases. b. increases. c. remains unchanged. d. depends on the construct being measured. Answer: b. increases. 7. As defined in the Standards (1999), bias is: a. systematic error in a test score. b. illegal discriminatory practices. c. prejudicial attitudes. d. the same as “fairness”. Answer: a. systematic error in a test score. 8. When demographic variables are taken into consideration, the difference between white groups and black groups on aptitude tests: a. essentially disappears. b. reduces to 0.5 – 0.7 standard deviation. c. reduces to 0.7 – 0.9 standard deviation. d. increases to 1 – 1.1 standard deviations. e. increases to 1.2 – 1.5 standard deviations. Answer: b. reduces to 0.5 – 0.7 standard deviation. 9. Native Americans tend to perform lower on tests of ____________ than whites. a. memory b. nonverbal intelligence c. spatial reasoning d. verbal intelligence Answer: d. verbal intelligence 10. According to the text, which group has been shown consistently to perform as well or better than white groups on aptitude tests? a. Asian Americans b. Hispanics c. Native Americans d. Spanish Americans Answer: a. Asian Americans 11. The overlap among the distributions of intelligence test scores for different ethnic groups is _____________ the size of the differences between the various groups. a. approximately equal to b. much greater than c. much less than Answer: b. much greater than 12. Which explanation for mean group differences is dominant among professionals who reject the cultural test bias? a. The differences primarily have a genetic basis. b. The differences have an environmental basis. c. The differences are due to the interactive effect of genes and environment. d. The differences are due to the artifacts of test bias. Answer: c. The differences are due to the interactive effect of genes and environment. 13. Brown, Reynolds, and Whitaker (1999) define _____________ as a moral, philosophical, or legal issue on which reasonable people can disagree. a. bias b. equality c. equitable d. fairness Answer: d. fairness 14. __________ is a property empirically estimated from test data whereas _________ is a principle established through debate and opinion. a. Bias; fairness b. Bias; prejudice c. Fairness; bias d. Equality; bias Answer: a. Bias; fairness 15. The hypothesis of _________ holds that a test measures constructs more accurately for the groups on which the tests are mainly based than for other groups. a. homogeneous reliability b. homogeneous validity c. differential reliability d. differential validity Answer: d. differential validity 16. One of the most frequently stated problems raised by Black and other minority psychologists regarding the use of psychological and educational tests with minorities is: a. homogeneous reliability. b. homogeneous validity. c. inappropriate content. d. regression to the mean. Answer: c. inappropriate content. 17. ___________ refers to the degree of cultural specificity present in the test or individual items of the test. a. Cultural bias b. Cultural loading c. Cultural partiality d. Cultural preference Answer: b. Cultural loading 18. It is rare for biased items to account for more than _____ of the variance in performance. a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% e. 25% Answer: a. 5% 19. What is the most recommended method today for detecting biased item? a. Application of methods based on of Item Response Theory b. Careful review of the test by a panel comprised of minority examiners c. Examining evidence based on consequential validity d. Examining an item-by-item correlation matrix Answer: a. Application of methods based on of Item Response Theory 20. Which method to detect potentially biased items did Reynolds and Kamphaus (2003) apply in their development of the Reynolds Intellectual Assessment Scales? a. Cronbach’s beta b. mean regression analysis c. cluster analysis d. partial correlation method Answer: d. partial correlation method 21. What is one of the most popular methods of investigating bias in construct measurement? a. Factor manipulation analysis b. Evidence based on response processes c. Cluster analysis of ipsative scores d. Factor analysis Answer: d. Factor analysis 22. With regard to bias in prediction, the empirical evidence reflects __________ to support contentions of differential or single-group validity. a. no strong evidence b. strong evidence c. zero evidence Answer: a. no strong evidence 23. Research has shown that males typically perform better on _____________ skills a. nonverbal memory b. processing speed c. verbal d. visual-spatial Answer: d. visual-spatial 24. According to Halpern (1997), one ability on which women obtain higher average scores is: a. fluid reasoning. b. mental rotations. c. production and comprehension of prose. d. transformations of visual working memory. Answer: c. production and comprehension of prose. 25. Which court case resulted in the use of IQ tests with Black children being prohibited in California public schools? a. Diana v. State Board of Education b. Larry P. v. Riles c. Marshall v. Georgia d. PASE v. Hannon Answer: b. Larry P. v. Riles 26. If an intelligence test was normed only on Caucasian students, which criticism concerning bias would be appropriate? a. Inappropriate content b. Inappropriate standardization sample c. Examiner and language bias d. Inequitable social immersion Answer: b. Inappropriate standardization sample 27. What is one significant benefit of having minority judges review the items? a. They are particularly good at identifying biased items. b. Then can identify items that will likely be misunderstood. c. They can identify items that are offensive. d. They can identify examiner biases. Answer: c. They can identify items that are offensive. 28. What is the result if the same slope and intercept are found for different ethnic groups in a prediction bias study? a. Homogeneity of regression b. Parallel regression lines that produce constant bias in prediction c. Nonparallel regression lines d. Confluent regression lines Answer: a. Homogeneity of regression 29. What is the result if the same slope, but different intercepts are found for different ethnic groups in a prediction bias study? a. Homogeneity of regression b. Parallel regression lines that produce constant bias in prediction c. Nonparallel regression lines d. Confluent regression lines Answer: b. Parallel regression lines that produce constant bias in prediction 30. What is the implication if equal intercepts and differing slope are found for different ethnic groups in a prediction bias study? a. Homogeneity of regression b. Parallel regression lines that produce constant bias in prediction c. Nonparallel regression lines d. Confluent regression lines Answer: c. Nonparallel regression lines 31. Test applications that result in valid predictions for one group, but invalid predictions in another group are referred to as: a. having cultural validity. b. having differential predictive validity. c. measuring homogeneous constructs. d. homogeneity of regression. Answer: b. having differential predictive validity. 32. A new IQ test is being developed and the test creators need to give this IQ test to 1,000 individuals in order to get appropriate standardization norms. They decide to give the test to all of the students, primarily Caucasian adolescents between the ages of 11 and 14, in a middle school in North Dakota. This is an example of: a. regression to the mean. b. inappropriate standardization samples. c. inequitable social consequences. d. homogeneity of regression. Answer: b. inappropriate standardization samples. 33. _____________ is present when a test makes more valid predictions for one group than for another. a. Differential reliability b. Differential validity c. Heterogeneous reliability d. Heterogeneous validity Answer: b. Differential validity 34. _________ is concerned fundamentally with a mathematical model of the probability of a correct response as a function of ability. a. Chaos Theory b. Classical Test Theory c. Generalizability Theory d. Item Response Theory Answer: d. Item Response Theory 35. When using Item Response Theory to identify biased items, one typically compares the ________ of two different groups yielding an index of Differential Item Function. a. means b. standard deviations c. item characteristic curves d. factor structures Answer: c. item characteristic curves Chapter 16 1. According to the Standards, what is the goal of accommodations? a. To provide the most valid and accurate measurement of the construct b. To assure compliance with the American Disability Act c. To elevate the scores of examinee’s with a disability d. To ensure that examinee’s with disability have equal means scores as the general population Answer: a. To provide the most valid and accurate measurement of the construct 2. For some professionals, the term ______________ implies that the construct measured by the test is not altered, while the term _______________ implies a potential change in the construct being measured. a. accommodation; modification b. modification; accommodation c. alteration; modification d. modification; alteration Answer: a. accommodation; modification 3. Of the following, which would be an appropriate accommodation for a person who is legally blind, according to the Standards? a. Providing the examinee with a test designed to measure reading comprehension in Braille rather than print b. Providing the examinee with a magnifying glass for a test designed to measure visual acuity c. Providing the examinee with a reader for a test designed to measure reading comprehension d. Giving the person more time to complete the test Answer: a. Providing the examinee with a test designed to measure reading comprehension in Braille rather than print 4. What is the essential question when considering an assessment accommodation? a. Does the assessment require the use of some ability that is affected by the disability, but is irrelevant to the construct being measured? b. Does the assessment require the use of some ability that is affected by the disability and relevant to the construct being measured? c. Does the assessment detect the presence and severity of the disability? d. Does the assessment discriminate against individuals that have no disabilities? Answer: a. Does the assessment require the use of some ability that is affected by the disability, but is irrelevant to the construct being measured? 5. Which assessment accommodation would be most appropriate? a. The modification of a dexterity test for an examinee with impaired fine motor skills b. Giving extra time on a timed test for an examinee diagnosed with ADHD c. Giving a verbal test in sign language for an individual that is deaf d. Giving an examinee a calculator on a test of math calculation Answer: c. Giving a verbal test in sign language for an individual that is deaf 6. What is a common modification to the response format? a. Allowing an examinee to point to the correct response b. Giving an examinee 30% more time c. Using language-simplified questions d. Administering the test at a different time of day Answer: a. Allowing an examinee to point to the correct response 7. What is the most frequent accommodation provided? a. Modification of presentation format b. Modification of response format c. Modification of setting d. Modification of timing Answer: d. Modification of timing 8. Regarding modifications of timing, research suggests that ________ additional time is adequate for most examinees with disabilities. a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. Unlimited Answer: b. 50% 9. What is the most commonly requested modification on graduate school admission tests such as the GRE? a. Extra testing time b. Oral presentation of test material c. Shortened version of the test d. Visual magnification for the computer screen Answer: a. Extra testing time 10. What is an example of a modification of setting? a. Change the time of day the test is administered b. Earplugs/ earphones c. The use of a study carrel d. The use of a “reader” for an individual with impaired vision Answer: c. The use of a study carrel 11. What subtest of the WISC-IV would be appropriate to delete for a subject with visual impairment? a. Block design b. Digit span forward c. Information d. Similarities Answer: a. Block design 12. Of the categories of modifications, which do the chapter authors recommend using with considerable caution? a. Adaptive devices and support b. Modifications of timing c. Modifications of setting d. Using only a portion of test Answer: d. Using only a portion of test 13. According to the authors, what is the best approach to providing test modifications to individuals with disabilities? a. Only make modifications for individuals with severe disabilities b. Make the same modifications for all individuals with disabilities c. Make the same modifications for individuals with the same disability d. Tailor the modification to the specific needs of the individual Answer: d. Tailor the modification to the specific needs of the individual 14. In order to promote independent function, what would be the most appropriate modification to provide for an individual with visual impairment? a. A reader b. A scribe c. Large print text d. Oral examination Answer: c. Large print text 15. According to the Interpretive Manual for the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, 5th edition, what is an appropriate modification for the “Memory for Sentences” subtest? a. Allowing responses in writing b. Presenting the items in writing c. Repeating items d. Suggesting memory strategies Answer: a. Allowing responses in writing 16. What is one factor that needs to be considered when assessing individuals with diverse linguistic backgrounds? a. Acculturation b. Language dominance c. Language proficiency d. All of the above Answer: d. All of the above 17. Approximately how long does it take for one to develop cognitive/academic language skills? a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 5 years Answer: d. 5 years 18. What is the BEST option for assessing an individual with limited English proficiency? a. The use of a nonverbal test b. The use of a translator c. The use of a test with directions and materials in the examinee’s native language d. Having a bilingual examiner translate the test to the examinee’s native language Answer: c. The use of a test with directions and materials in the examinee’s native language 19. What is a suggestion provided by Salvia and Ysseldyke (2007) for assessing students with limited English proficiency? a. Always provide students with a translator. b. Give the student extra time to process their responses. c. Give assessments only in English to facilitate faster learning of the language. d. Provide the students opportunities to demonstrate achievement in ways that rely extensively on language. Answer: b. Give the student extra time to process their responses. 20. When reporting the results of modified assessments, the Standards suggest which of the following principles applies? a. Provide important information necessary to interpret scores accurately and withhold extraneous information. b. Flag all scores for examinees with disabilities. c. When evidence exists that scores are comparable with and without accommodations, a flag should be required. d. Simply flag those scores obtained with modifications but do not describe in detail the modifications in order to preserve examinee privacy Answer: a. Provide important information necessary to interpret scores accurately and withhold extraneous information. 21. Which modification would NOT be considered minor by the Educational Testing Service? a. Using only portion of the test b. Large-print test material c. Sign language interpreter d. Wheelchair access Answer: a. Using only portion of the test 22. What is a written document developed by a committee that specifies the examinee’s instructional arrangement, the special services they receive, and any assessment modifications they will receive? a. Disabled Individual Plan b. Education Assistance Plan c. Individual Education Program d. Special Education Document Answer: c. Individual Education Program 23. ______________________ prohibits discrimination against individuals with disabilities in any agency or school that receives federal funds. a. The Education Improvement Act of 1985 b. The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act c. The No Child Left Behind Act d. Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 Answer: d. Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 24. Which of the following is considered a modification of presentation format? a. Defining words b. Extended time c. Study carrel d. Tape recorder to record responses Answer: a. Defining words 25. Which of the following is considered a modification of response format? a. Highlight key words or phrases b. Increasing the spacing between items c. Providing additional examples d. Use of graph paper for math problems Answer: d. Use of graph paper for math problems 26. What accommodation is allowed by the Texas Student Assessment Program? a. Clarifying or rephrasing test questions b. Reading assistance on the language arts tests c. The use of colored transparencies d. Clarified or rephrased test questions Answer: c. The use of colored transparencies 27. Fuchs (2002) notes that one of the prominent strategies for examining the validity of assessment accommodations is to look for ______________ of the accommodation between examinees with and without disabilities. a. common effects b. differential effects c. oblique effects d. orthogonal effects Answer: b. differential effects 28. What system have Fuchs and colleagues developed and studied that may assist educators and researchers in deciding whether to use a particular accommodation? a. Differences of Test Accommodation System b. Common Effects of Test Accommodations c. Oblique Appraisal of Test Modifications d. Dynamic Assessment of Test Accommodations Answer: d. Dynamic Assessment of Test Accommodations 29. What is one guideline provided by Dr. Phillips regarding test accommodations? a. Accommodations must be the same for all students with disabilities. b. Any accommodation requested must be granted. c. 3-months is considered adequate notices in most assessment programs. d. Accommodations should be individualized. Answer: d. Accommodations should be individualized. 30. Which court case ruled that in order for a state to implement high-stakes testing, they must be able to show that students have had adequate opportunities to acquire the knowledge and skills assessed by the assessment? a. Brookhart v. Illinois Board of Education b. Davis v. Southeastern Community College c. Debra P. v. Turlington d. Northport v. Ambach Answer: c. Debra P. v. Turlington 31. Which accommodation is NOT allowed by the Texas Education Agency? a. Calculators during certain tests b. Reading aloud to the student the reading portion of the test c. Oral administration of the math test d. Signing the prompt on the writing test Answer: b. Reading aloud to the student the reading portion of the test 32. What would be considered an accommodation involving an adaptive device or support? a. Alternation of sitting and standing b. Avoidance of extraneous noise/distractions c. Changing the time of day the test is administered d. Securing paper to desk with tape Answer: d. Securing paper to desk with tape 33. The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act requires that public schools provide students with disabilities a(n): a. Cost Effective Public Education. b. Equal Opportunity Public Education. c. Free Appropriate Public Education. d. Limited Cost Public Education. Answer: c. Free Appropriate Public Education. 34. What would be considered a modification involving setting? a. Preferential seating b. Large print editions c. Provide additional examples d. Watches with reminder alarms Answer: a. Preferential seating 35. What is the main limitation of using an alternate assessment in providing an assessment accommodation? a. It is difficult to find satisfactory alternate assessments. b. Generalizing results is not possible with alternate assessments. c. Only students with severe disabilities can use alternate assessments. d. Results tend to be less psychometrically sound. Answer: a. It is difficult to find satisfactory alternate assessments. 36. What is a potential problem with flagging students who have received accommodations on their assessments? a. Their diagnosis may be changed. b. The test scores may be ignored. c. The students may be stigmatized. d. The test scores may be invalidated. Answer: c. The students may be stigmatized. 37. Courts have ruled that test administrators are not required to grant accommodations: a. On high-stakes assessments. b. To students with mild disabilities. c. That involve modifications of setting. d. That invalidate the interpretation of scores. Answer: d. That invalidate the interpretation of scores. 38. Courts have ruled that high-stakes assessments must measure knowledge and skills that students have had adequate opportunities to acquire. This is referred to as: a. Curricular validity. b. Face validity. c. Generalized instruction. d. Instructional integrity. Answer: a. Curricular validity. Test Bank for Mastering Modern Psychological Testing: Theory and Methods Cecil R. Reynolds, Ronald B. Livingston 9780205886081
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