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Nutrition
1. The client is interested in breastfeeding her infant but has to return to work once her
maternity leave is over. How long does the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP)
recommend exclusive breastfeeding for an infant?
A. The first 3 months of age
B. The first 6 months of age
C. The first 12 months of age
D. The first 4 months of age
Answer: B
Rationale:
Exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months of life is recommended by the AAP. This
means the infant receives only breast milk without any additional food or drink, except for
prescribed medications or vitamin supplements as needed.
2. Nausea and vomiting are common complaints during pregnancy. What nutritional action
can be used to lessen nausea and vomiting?
A. Limiting carbohydrate intake
B. Drinking liquids with meals
C. Limiting fat intake
D. Increasing fluid intake
Answer: D
Rationale:
Increasing fluid intake, especially water, between meals rather than with meals, can help
lessen nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. It's important to stay hydrated to help alleviate
these symptoms.
3. The client is a healthy 19-year-old college student who is interested in maintaining a
healthy weight by following a 2000-calorie diet. How many servings of vegetables should he
eat on a daily basis?
A. 2½ cups
B. 2 cups
C. 3 cups
D. 3½ cups

Answer: C
Rationale:
According to dietary guidelines, a healthy adult following a 2000-calorie diet should aim to
consume around 2.5 to 3 cups of vegetables per day as part of a balanced diet.
4. Nutrition therapy in the elderly has different goals than at other times across the lifespan.
What is a primary goal of diet intervention for the elderly?
A. Maintain quality of life
B. Treat chronic disease
C. Prolong life
D. Prevent the development of complications
Answer: A
Rationale:
While all options are important considerations, maintaining quality of life is often a primary
goal of diet intervention for the elderly. This includes ensuring adequate nutrition to support
overall health and wellbeing.
5. The client is a 65-year-old male. Approximately, how much longer can he expect to live?
A. 19.2 years
B. 15.8 years
C. 16.5 years
D. 17.3 years
Answer: C
Rationale:
Life expectancy varies based on numerous factors including health, lifestyle, and genetics.
On average, a 65-year-old male can expect to live around 16.5 more years, though individual
circumstances may vary.
6. The client is concerned that her milk may not be providing adequate nutrition for her
infant. The nurse recognizes that an inadequate maternal diet generally decreases what in the
breast milk of a lactating mother?
A. Fat
B. Protein
C. Vitamins

D. Calcium
Answer: A
Rationale:
An inadequate maternal diet can decrease the fat content of breast milk, potentially impacting
the overall nutritional quality provided to the infant.
7. The nurse is preparing the client to make the necessary dietary changes from what she has
been doing during her pregnancy to what she should do during lactation. What should
breastfeeding mothers be advised?
A. If she does not consume enough calcium, her milk will be calcium deficient.
B. The intake does not need to be restricted because the caffeine does not enter breast milk.
C. Thirst is not a reliable indicator of need.
D. Even if a mother has adequate fat stores, calorie intake should be increased.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Caffeine does enter breast milk, but in small amounts, and is usually not a concern unless
consumed in excessive amounts. Therefore, breastfeeding mothers do not need to restrict
caffeine intake as long as it's consumed in moderation.
8. Because functional foods appear to enhance health or prevent disease, which natural
functional food may help to support normal heart function?
A. Purple grape juice
B. Yogurt
C. Green tea
D. Garlic
Answer: D
Rationale:
Garlic is considered a natural functional food that may help support normal heart function
due to its potential cardiovascular benefits, such as lowering blood pressure and cholesterol
levels.
9. Acculturation changes the eating habits of most people from cultures other than American.
What statements are true regarding acculturation? Select all that apply.
A. American food undergoes change in response to the influx of groups from other cultures.

B. People with higher education tend to change their eating habits more quickly than people
with less education.
C. First-generation Americans tend to adhere more closely to traditional eating patterns than
subsequent generations.
D. Second-generation Americans may give up ethnic foods and the traditional ways of
preparing them.
E. Adults tend to change their eating habits quicker than children.
Answer: A, C, D
Rationale:
Acculturation often leads to changes in dietary habits, with first-generation immigrants
typically maintaining traditional eating patterns more closely compared to subsequent
generations who may adopt more of the local cuisine.
10. A group of nurses go out to eat lunch. Which of the following dinner choices is the
healthiest?
A. Lacto-vegetarian pizza
B. Breaded fish fillet, creamed corn, steamed spinach, and a small tossed salad with ranch
dressing
C. Baked chicken breast, salad with dressing on the side, steamed broccoli, and fresh fruit
cup
D. Angel hair pasta with Alfredo sauce, steamed broccoli, cauliflower, and carrots, dinner roll
with low-fat margarine
Answer: C
Rationale:
This option provides a balanced meal with lean protein from the baked chicken breast, fiberrich vegetables like broccoli, and a fresh fruit cup for added vitamins and minerals.
Additionally, having the dressing on the side allows for better portion control.
11. The client is learning to read the Nutrition Facts label when shopping for food.
Information that appears on the Nutrition Facts label is specific for what?
A. Size eaten
B. A1800-calorie diet
C. A 2500-calorie diet
D. Size listed

Answer: D
Rationale:
The information on the Nutrition Facts label is specific to the serving size listed on the
packaging, allowing consumers to understand the nutritional content based on the amount
typically consumed.
12. The nurse obtains a height and weight at each well-child visit to determine the risk for
obesity. All young clients who are not in a healthy weight range should be evaluated for
which of the following? Select all that apply.
A. Behavior risks
B. Child neglect
C. Medical risks
D. Family dynamics
Answer: A, C
Rationale:
Young clients who are not in a healthy weight range should be evaluated for behavior risks
that may contribute to weight issues, such as unhealthy eating habits, as well as medical risks
associated with obesity, such as diabetes or cardiovascular problems.
13. When safely introducing new foods into an infant’s diet, the parents should introduce one
food at a time in a simple form. What period of time should they wait between introducing
new foods so that allergic reactions can be easily identified?
A. 2 to 3 days
B. 5 to 7 days
C. 7 to 14 days
D. 3 weeks
Answer: A
Rationale:
Parents should wait 2 to 3 days between introducing new foods to their infant's diet to help
identify any potential allergic reactions. This spacing allows for easier identification of the
culprit food.

14. To prevent birth defects, it is very important to correctly assess the woman’s nutritional
status. Studies have shown a correlation with impaired cognitive development and a
deficiency of which nutrient?
A. Iron
B. Calcium
C. Iodine
D. Omega-3
Answer: C
Rationale:
Iodine deficiency during pregnancy has been linked to impaired cognitive development in
infants. Adequate iodine intake is crucial for the development of the fetal brain and nervous
system, making it an important nutrient to assess and address during pregnancy.
15. Most people eat less-than-healthful foods from time to time. What is one of the key
strategies to fitting less-than-healthful foods into a healthier lifestyle?
A. Eating them at certain times of the day
B. Eating them in large amounts
C. Eating them frequently
D. Eating them by conscious decision
Answer: D
Rationale:
Making a conscious decision to eat less-than-healthful foods allows individuals to enjoy these
foods occasionally while still maintaining an overall healthy lifestyle. Moderation and
mindfulness are key to fitting less-healthful foods into a balanced diet.
16. The nurse is discussing with a nutrition class the health risks to infants of women who
gain excessive weight during pregnancy. What risks should the nurse discuss with the class?
A. Small for gestational age
B. High Apgar score
C. Seizures
D. Hyperglycemia
Answer: A, C, D
Rationale:

Infants born to mothers who gain excessive weight during pregnancy may be at risk for being
small for gestational age, experiencing seizures due to maternal diabetes, or having
hyperglycemia themselves due to maternal insulin resistance.
17. What are the nutritional recommendations for calcium during a normal pregnancy?
A. 1400 mg/day
B. 1200 mg/day
C. 800 mg/day
D. 1000 mg/day
Answer: D
Rationale:
The recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for calcium during pregnancy is 1000 mg/day
for most pregnant women. Adequate calcium intake is important for the development of the
fetal skeleton and maintaining maternal bone health.
18. The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend a heart-healthy diet. What ages are
these recommendations for?
A. 1 year to adult
B. 5 years to adult
C. 10 years to adult
D. 2 years to adult
Answer: A
Rationale:
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are designed to provide dietary advice for individuals
aged 1 year and older, covering a broad range of ages from childhood through adulthood.
19. A liberal diet approach is a holistic approach toward meeting client’s nutritional needs.
This approach takes into consideration which of the following? Select all that apply.
A. Risk/benefit ratio
B. Overall prognosis
C. Individual personal goals
D. Family requests
E. Quantity of life
Answer: A, B, C, D

Rationale:
A liberal diet approach considers various factors such as the risk/benefit ratio of dietary
choices, the overall prognosis of the individual, their personal goals, and any requests or
preferences from their family.
20. The client is a 32-year-old female whose prepregnancy weight is considered “normal.”
She is carrying a single fetus. What is the recommended amount of total weight gain?
A. 20 to 25 pounds
B. 25 to 35 pounds
C. 15 to 20 pounds
D. 35 to 40 pounds
Answer: B
Rationale:
The recommended amount of total weight gain during pregnancy for a woman with a normal
prepregnancy weight carrying a single fetus is between 25 to 35 pounds. This weight gain
supports the health and development of both the mother and the growing baby. Sure, here are
the questions with all the options included:
21. The nurse is discussing organic labeling with the nutrition class when one of the
participants asked about the criterion for labeling organic foods. What would be the best
response?
A. It’s based on what natural pesticides are used in the growing of the foods.
B. It’s based on whether it meets criterion that defines the four official organic categories.
C. It’s based on the number of natural fertilizers used to produce the food.
D. It’s based on whether the farm that produces the food has been certified organic.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Organic labeling is based on meeting specific criteria that define the four official organic
categories, which include aspects like the use of organic seeds, soil fertility, pest and weed
control, and the use of organic management practices.
22. To be awarded the USDA organic seal, a food must adhere to strict national standards.
What criterion must organic labeling meet?
A. Criterion that define the two official organic categories

B. Criterion that define the one official organic category
C. Criterion that define the four official organic categories
D. Criterion that define the three official organic categories
Answer: C
Rationale:
To be awarded the USDA organic seal, a food must adhere to strict national standards, which
include meeting criteria that define the four official organic categories: crops, livestock,
processed products, and wild crops.
23. Most children do not follow the “ideal” of eating breakfast, dinner, and a snack at home
along with a healthy brown-bag lunch at school. How do many children eat today? Select all
that apply.
A. Obtain a significant portion of their calories from sweetened beverages
B. Skip breakfast
C. Eat less protein than meets their needs
D. Get one third of their calories from snacks
E. Eat at least two heart-healthy meals per day
Answer: A, B, D
Rationale:
Many children today obtain a significant portion of their calories from sweetened beverages,
skip breakfast, and get one third of their calories from snacks, which may contribute to
nutritional imbalances and health issues.
24. The nurse is doing nutritional screening on older adults at a health fair. What would be an
important question to ask while screening an older person for nutritional risk?
A. About the use of three or more prescribed or over-the-counter daily medications
B. If they are living in a household with more than one older adult member
C. If the person is over 62 years old
D. If they had an unintentional weight loss of 3% or more in 60 days
Answer: D
Rationale:
Unintentional weight loss of 3% or more in 60 days is an important indicator of nutritional
risk in older adults, as it may indicate underlying health issues or inadequate nutrient intake.

25. The nurse is discussing anorexia with the nutrition class. What is the best strategy for
combating anorexia?
A. Withhold beverages for 30 minutes before and after meals.
B. Serve food attractively and season according to individual taste.
C. Control pain, nausea, or depression with medications.
D. Offer liquid supplements between meals.
Answer: B
Rationale:
Serving food attractively and seasoning according to individual taste can help combat
anorexia by making meals more appealing and enjoyable, potentially stimulating
26. Refeeding syndrome is a potentially fatal complication of overfeeding. Why is refeeding
syndrome so dangerous?
A. There is an abrupt change from a catabolic state to an anabolic state.
B. It occurs as a result of a low-calorie diet.
C. It results in a decrease in insulin.
D. It improves the client’s chance of survival after multiple organ failures.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Refeeding syndrome is dangerous because it involves an abrupt shift from a catabolic to an
anabolic state when nutrition is reintroduced after a period of starvation or malnutrition,
which can lead to severe metabolic disturbances and potentially fatal complications.
27. Parenteral nutrition (PN) can be infused into either a central or peripheral vein. What type
of parenteral solution is infused into a central vein?
A. Hypotonic
B. Isotonic
C. Hypertonic
D. 40% isotonic, 50% hypotonic
Answer: C
Rationale:
Parenteral solutions infused into a central vein are typically hypertonic, providing higher
concentrations of nutrients and electrolytes to meet the body's needs and prevent fluid
overload.

28. The nurse is helping the client prepare for discharge after a severe case of food poisoning.
The client has been tolerating his feedings and the physician would like for him to advance to
a soft diet for the next week until his next office visit. Which of the following would be a
possible reason for this?
A. Ensure adequate hydration
B. Minimize intestinal activity for healing purposes
C. To prevent rebound constipation
D. Slowly replace intestinal flora
Answer: B
Rationale:
Advancing to a soft diet after food poisoning may help minimize intestinal activity for
healing purposes, allowing the gastrointestinal tract to recover without undue stress or
irritation.
29. The nurse is assessing a client who presents with symptoms that are suspicious for type 2
diabetes. During the discussion of the past medical history, which past diagnosis should the
nurse recognize as a potential risk factor?
A. A great-grandparent with diabetes
B. Yo-yo dieting with weight fluctuations
C. Hypertension
D. Gestational diabetes 7 years ago
Answer: D
Rationale:
Gestational diabetes is a potential risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes later in life, as it
indicates a predisposition to insulin resistance and impaired glucose metabolism.
30. The nurse is caring for a client who has been on parenteral nutrition (PN) for 5 days. The
nurse is constantly monitoring the client’s status to ensure he is doing well. Which of the
following are possible side effects of PN that will require immediate attention? Select all that
apply.
A. Jaundice
B. Drop in blood glucose levels
C. Elevated temperature

D. Tightness of chest
E. Shortness of breath
Answer: A, B, C, E
Rationale:
Possible side effects of parenteral nutrition (PN) that require immediate attention include
jaundice (indicating liver dysfunction), drop in blood glucose levels (hypoglycemia), elevated
temperature (possible infection), and symptoms of respiratory distress like tightness of chest
and shortness of breath (indicating pulmonary complications). These symptoms could
indicate serious complications requiring prompt intervention to prevent further deterioration
of the client's condition.
31. Full liquid diets have been traditionally used between clear liquid diets and soft diets as
diet therapy is advanced after surgery. What does the scientific evidence show about this
practice?
A. There is a lot of scientific evidence to support it.
B. There is little scientific evidence to support it.
C. It is a necessary nutritional step in progressive refeeding of the client.
D. Skipping this step in refeeding puts the client at risk for nutritional complications.
Answer: B
Rationale:
While full liquid diets have been traditionally used in clinical practice, there is limited
scientific evidence supporting their necessity or effectiveness in the progression of diet
therapy after surgery. The use of full liquid diets may vary depending on individual patient
needs and clinical judgment.
32. The nurse is admitting to the unit a client who is a 42-year-old female with a diagnosis of
pancreatic cyst. Her orders include enteral nutrition. What kind of enteral formula would you
expect to be ordered by the physician?
A. Standard high protein
B. Hydrolyzed
C. Hydrolyzed high fiber
D. Standard
Answer: B
Rationale:

Enteral formulas for patients with pancreatic disorders often include hydrolyzed formulas,
which contain partially or fully hydrolyzed proteins to facilitate digestion and absorption in
individuals with compromised pancreatic function.
33. The nurse is counseling a group of clients who have recently been diagnosed with celiac
disease. One of the members in the group wants to know what is safe to use as a thickening
agent in cooking. Which of the following would be a safe substitute?
A. Farina
B. Arrowroot starch
C. Cracked germ
D. Durum flour
Answer: B
Rationale:
Arrowroot starch is a safe thickening agent for individuals with celiac disease as it is glutenfree. It can be used as a substitute for wheat flour in cooking and baking.
34. Ulcers in the stomach and duodenum are referred to as peptic ulcers. What is the leading
cause of peptic ulcers?
A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories
B. H. pylori infection
C. Alcohol
D. Spicy foods
Answer: B
Rationale:
The leading cause of peptic ulcers is infection with Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) bacteria.
Other factors such as the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and certain
lifestyle factors may contribute to the development of ulcers but are not the primary cause.
35. The nurse is admitting to the unit a client who is a 42-year-old female with dysphagia
following a head trauma. What fluid would be the best choice for this client if she were on
the nectarlike stage of the National Dysphagia Diet?
A. Iced coffee
B. Bottled water
C. Vegetable juices

D. Fruit juice
Answer: D
Rationale:
In the nectarlike stage of the National Dysphagia Diet, liquids are thicker than water but still
pourable. Fruit juice, which has a thicker consistency compared to water, would be a suitable
choice for this client.
36. Primary and secondary prevention of diabetes is consistent with the recommendations for
the primary and secondary prevention of coronary heart disease. Which of the following are
people with diabetes urged to limit their intake of?
A. Sucrose
B. Fiber
C. Nonnutritive sweeteners
D. Saturated fat
Answer: D
Rationale:
People with diabetes are urged to limit their intake of saturated fat to help manage blood lipid
levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease, which is a common complication of
diabetes.
37. Clients with bulimia nervosa are not as undernourished as clients who have anorexia
nervosa. They are, however, a challenge for nutrition therapy. What eating strategy may be
appropriate for clients with bulimia nervosa?
A. Use finger foods.
B. Record intake before eating.
C. Eat quickly.
D. Avoid “forbidden” or problem foods associated with bingeing.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Avoiding "forbidden" or problem foods associated with bingeing can help clients with
bulimia nervosa maintain control over their eating habits and reduce the likelihood of binge
episodes. Encouraging a balanced and regular meal pattern may also be beneficial.

38. The nurse is counseling a clinic client with dumping syndrome who asks if there is
anything he can do to help control the symptoms. What would be the best response?
A. Eat small, frequent meals.
B. Limit fat intake.
C. Choose high-fiber cereals.
D. Drink fluids with meals.
Answer: A
Rationale:
Eating small, frequent meals can help control symptoms of dumping syndrome by reducing
the volume of food entering the stomach at one time and slowing gastric emptying. This can
help alleviate symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
39. Body mass index (BMI) is a ratio of weight to height and is used for assessing the relative
health status of the person. What is a disadvantage of assessing weight with BMI?
A. Special equipment is needed.
B. Measuring BMI requires skill and time.
C. BMI can be elevated for reasons other than excess fat.
D. Measuring BMI is invasive to the client.
Answer: C
Rationale:
While BMI is a commonly used measure of body weight status, it does not directly measure
body fat percentage and can be elevated in individuals with higher muscle mass or bone
density, leading to potential misclassification of health status.
40. People who have lactose intolerance suffer from bloating, gas, and diarrhea. What type of
diarrhea is caused by lactose intolerance?
A. Secretory diarrhea
B. Watery
C. Osmotic diarrhea
D. No diarrhea
Answer: C
Rationale:

Lactose intolerance can cause osmotic diarrhea, which occurs when undigested lactose draws
water into the intestine, leading to loose stools and gastrointestinal symptoms such as
bloating and gas.
41. The client has come to the office with an exacerbation of his celiac disease. He says he
has been reading the labels and making sure he avoids wheat, barley, and rye. After reviewing
the labels with the client, the nurse recognizes which listed ingredient as a suspected culprit?
A. Sorghum
B. Carrageenan
C. Millet
D. Malt flavoring
Answer: D
Rationale:
Malt flavoring is derived from barley, which contains gluten. Individuals with celiac disease
need to avoid gluten-containing ingredients like barley to prevent symptoms and
complications.
42. The nurse has been discussing parenteral nutrition (PN) with a group of student nurses.
After the discussion, the nurse realizes more discussion is necessary when she hears one say
which of the following?
A. “A central line is the best method for delivery.”
B. “Parenteral nutrition should be discounted as soon as feasible.”
C. “Parenteral nutrition is an emergency procedure.”
D. “Parenteral nutrition formula is compounded by the pharmacy.”
Answer: C
Rationale:
Parenteral nutrition is not typically considered an emergency procedure but rather a
therapeutic intervention used when enteral nutrition is not feasible or sufficient. It requires
careful assessment, monitoring, and ongoing management, not typically associated with
emergency situations.
43. The nurse is helping a client plan menu choices. The client is currently recovering from
dehydration from severe diarrhea. The client laboratory results showed hyponatremia and

hypokalemia on admission. The client is now eating but refusing to eat bananas. The nurse
suggests which of the following as a possible alternative?
A. Pears
B. Blueberries
C. Cantaloupe
D. Strawberries
Answer: A
Rationale:
Pears are a good alternative to bananas for replenishing potassium levels due to their
potassium content. They are also gentle on the digestive system, which can be beneficial for
someone recovering from dehydration and diarrhea.
44. Potential complications of parenteral nutrition (PN) include which of the following?
Select all that apply.
A. Electrolyte disturbance
B. Rebound hypoglycemia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Infectious
E. Trace element toxicity
Answer: A, C, D, E
Rationale:
Complications of parenteral nutrition (PN) can include electrolyte disturbances,
hyperglycemia, infections related to catheter insertion, and toxicity related to trace elements
or micronutrients in the PN solution.
45. The nurse is admitting a new client to the unit who is complaining of diarrhea. The client
is dehydrated and will be receiving hydration. Which of the components of the blood will the
nurse expect to see below normal limits? Select all that apply.
A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Phosphorus
D. Sodium
Answer: A, C, D
Rationale:

Diarrhea can lead to electrolyte imbalances, resulting in decreased levels of potassium,
phosphorus, and sodium in the blood due to losses through feces.
46. The nurse is conducting discharge teaching with a client who is going home with an
ileostomy. What will the nurse teach the client to consume more of?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Fat
C. Salt
D. Fiber
Answer: A
Rationale:
Patients with an ileostomy may have reduced absorption of vitamin B12, which is absorbed
in the terminal ileum. Consuming more vitamin B12-rich foods or supplements can help
prevent deficiencies in these patients.
47. The clinic nurse is caring for a diabetic client who has frequent episodes of
hypoglycemia. What would be the best intervention for this client?
A. Counsel the client to limit total carbohydrate intake to less than 100 g/day.
B. Encourage the client to gain weight.
C. Counsel the client to encourage better compliance.
D. Encourage the client to eat three large meals per day.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Frequent episodes of hypoglycemia in a diabetic client may indicate issues with medication
adherence or insulin dosing. Counseling the client to improve compliance with their
prescribed treatment plan can help prevent hypoglycemic episodes.
48. A newly diagnosed diabetic tells the nurse she is using the Exchange Lists for Meal
Planning but is having difficulty remembering when a food or beverage is considered to be
free. What would be the best response?
A. A good guide is the “free food list.”
B. When the client has consumed the recommended number of daily servings from each
exchange list
C. When it is a nonfat product

D. When the portion size is less than 1 oz
Answer: A
Rationale:
The "free food list" provides guidance on foods and beverages that have minimal impact on
blood glucose levels and can be consumed in moderation without specific counting as part of
the diabetic meal plan.
49. The nurse is talking with the client who was admitted for surgery due to duodenal ulcer
disease. The client asks what can be done to reduce the risk of getting more ulcer.
What would be the best response?
A. Limit the intake of alcohol.
B. There is evidence that a diet high in soluble fiber may reduce the risk of duodenal ulcers.
C. Leave chocolate out of the diet.
D. There is evidence that a diet without caffeine may reduce the risk of duodenal ulcers.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Caffeine stimulates gastric acid secretion, which can contribute to the development of
duodenal ulcers. Therefore, avoiding caffeine-containing beverages like coffee, tea, and
certain sodas may help reduce the risk of duodenal ulcers.
50. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is a slowly progressive, degenerative, fatal
disease affecting the central nervous system of adult cattle. It can be transmitted to humans
when the infected flesh of cattle is ingested. What is BSE thought to be caused by?
Answer: Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is thought to be caused by prions,
infectious proteins that cause abnormal folding of other normal proteins in the brain.
51. The client is interested in breastfeeding her infant but has to return to work once her
maternity leave is over. How long does the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP)
recommend exclusive breastfeeding for an infant?
Answer: The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends exclusive breastfeeding
for an infant for the first six months of life, followed by continued breastfeeding alongside
the introduction of complementary foods for at least the first year of life.

52. Nausea and vomiting are common complaints during pregnancy. What nutritional action
can be used to lessen nausea and vomiting?
Answer: Consuming small, frequent meals that are low in fat and high in carbohydrates, such
as crackers, dry toast, or plain rice, can help lessen nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.
53. The client is a healthy 19-year-old college student who is interested in maintaining a
healthy weight by following a 2000-calorie diet. How many servings of vegetables should he
eat on a daily basis?
Answer: A healthy 19-year-old college student aiming for a 2000-calorie diet should aim to
eat around 2.5 to 3 cups of vegetables per day, as recommended by dietary guidelines.
54. Nutrition therapy in the elderly has different goals than at other times across the lifespan.
What is a primary goal of diet intervention for the elderly?
Answer: A primary goal of diet intervention for the elderly is to maintain or improve overall
health and quality of life, with particular emphasis on preventing malnutrition, preserving
muscle mass, and managing chronic conditions.
55. The client is a 65-year-old male. Approximately, how much longer can he expect to live?
Answer: On average, a 65-year-old male can expect to live around 17 to 20 more years,
based on current life expectancy data.
56. The client is concerned that her milk may not be providing adequate nutrition for her
infant. The nurse recognizes that an inadequate maternal diet generally decreases what in the
breast milk of a lactating mother?
Answer: An inadequate maternal diet generally decreases the levels of essential nutrients
such as vitamins, minerals, and fatty acids in the breast milk of a lactating mother.
57. The nurse is preparing the client to make the necessary dietary changes from what she has
been doing during her pregnancy to what she should do during lactation. What should
breastfeeding mothers be advised?
Answer: Breastfeeding mothers should be advised to continue consuming a balanced diet
rich in nutrients, stay hydrated, and consider increasing their calorie intake to support
lactation. They should also avoid excessive caffeine and alcohol intake and discuss any
concerns with their healthcare provider.

58. Because functional foods appear to enhance health or prevent disease, which natural
functional food may help to support normal heart function?
Answer: Omega-3 fatty acids found in fatty fish like salmon, mackerel, and sardines are
known to support normal heart function and are considered a natural functional food.
59. Acculturation changes the eating habits of most people from cultures other than
American. What statements are true regarding acculturation? Select all that apply.
Answer: Acculturation changes the eating habits of most people from cultures other than
American. True statements regarding acculturation include: Acculturation often leads to
adoption of the dietary patterns of the dominant culture. Acculturation can impact food
choices, leading to both positive and negative health outcomes. Acculturation may result in
the loss of traditional dietary practices and an increase in consumption of processed or fast
foods.
60. A. group of nurses go out to eat lunch. Which of the following dinner choices is the
healthiest?
Answer: A grilled chicken salad with vinaigrette dressing typically provides lean protein
from the chicken, plenty of vegetables, and a lighter dressing option compared to the other
choices. It is likely to be lower in saturated fat, sodium, and overall calories compared to the
other options, making it the healthiest choice.
61. The client is learning to read the Nutrition Facts label when shopping for food.
Information that appears on the Nutrition Facts label is specific for what?
Answer: Information that appears on the Nutrition Facts label is specific for one serving size
of the food or beverage.
62. The nurse obtains a height and weight at each well-child visit to determine the risk for
obesity. All young clients who are not in a healthy weight range should be evaluated for
which of the following? Select all that apply.
Answer: All young clients who are not in a healthy weight range should be evaluated for:
● Metabolic syndrome
● High blood pressure
● Dyslipidemia

● Prediabetes or type 2 diabetes
63. When safely introducing new foods into an infant’s diet, the parents should introduce one
food at a time in a simple form. What period of time should they wait between introducing
new foods so that allergic reactions can be easily identified?
Answer: Parents should wait around 3 to 5 days between introducing new foods into an
infant’s diet so that allergic reactions can be easily identified.
64. To prevent birth defects, it is very important to correctly assess the woman’s nutritional
status. Studies have shown a correlation with impaired cognitive development and a
deficiency of which nutrient?
Answer: Studies have shown a correlation with impaired cognitive development and a
deficiency of folate (or folic acid), a B vitamin important for neural tube development, which
can prevent birth defects.
65. Most people eat less-than-healthful foods from time to time. What is one of the key
strategies to fitting less-than-healthful foods into a healthier lifestyle?
Answer: One of the key strategies to fitting less-than-healthful foods into a healthier lifestyle
is to practice moderation and balance by controlling portion sizes and frequency of
consumption.
66. The nurse is discussing with a nutrition class the health risks to infants of women who
gain excessive weight during pregnancy. What risks should the nurse discuss with the class?
Answer: The nurse should discuss the following risks to infants of women who gain
excessive weight during pregnancy:
● Increased risk of gestational diabetes
● Higher likelihood of delivering a large baby (macrosomia)
● Increased risk of birth complications such as cesarean delivery and birth injuries
● Higher chance of childhood obesity and metabolic issues in the offspring
67. What are the nutritional recommendations for calcium during a normal pregnancy?
Answer: The nutritional recommendation for calcium during a normal pregnancy is 1000
milligrams per day for pregnant individuals aged 19 to 50 years.

68. The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend a heart-healthy diet. What ages are
these recommendations for?
Answer: The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommendations are for individuals aged 2
years and older.
69. A liberal diet approach is a holistic approach toward meeting client’s nutritional needs.
This approach takes into consideration which of the following? Select all that apply.
Answer: A liberal diet approach takes into consideration:
● Client preferences and cultural background
● Personalized dietary goals and restrictions
● Psychological factors influencing food choices and eating behaviors
70. The client is a 32-year-old female whose prepregnancy weight is considered “normal.”
She is carrying a single fetus. What is the recommended amount of total weight gain?
Answer: For a woman with a normal prepregnancy weight, it's generally recommended to
gain between 25 to 35 pounds during pregnancy to support the health and development of the
fetus. This range helps ensure adequate nutrition without excessive weight gain.
71. The nurse is discussing organic labeling with the nutrition class when one of the
participants asked about the criterion for labeling organic foods. What would be the best
response?
Answer: The best response would be to explain that organic foods are typically labeled based
on criteria such as the absence of synthetic pesticides, fertilizers, and genetically modified
organisms (GMOs), as well as adherence to specific farming practices outlined by certifying
organizations or government regulations.
72. To be awarded the USDA organic seal, a food must adhere to strict national standards.
What criterion must organic labeling meet?
Answer: Organic labeling must meet criteria such as the absence of synthetic pesticides,
fertilizers, and genetically modified organisms (GMOs), as well as adherence to specific
farming practices outlined by certifying organizations or government regulations in order to
be awarded the USDA organic seal.

73. Most children do not follow the “ideal” of eating breakfast, dinner, and a snack at home
along with a healthy brown-bag lunch at school. How do many children eat today? Select all
that apply.
Answer: Many children today eat irregularly, skip meals, consume fast food or convenience
foods, and snack on processed foods throughout the day.
74. The nurse is doing nutritional screening on older adults at a health fair. What would be an
important question to ask while screening an older person for nutritional risk?
Answer: An important question to ask while screening an older person for nutritional risk
would be about their appetite and eating habits, including any recent changes such as
decreased appetite, difficulty chewing or swallowing, or unintentional weight loss.

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