Preview Extract
ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM REAL 2023 WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS MARKED
1. A nurse is instructing a client on the application of nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of
the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
a. I should apply a patch every 5 minutes if I develop chest pain
b. I will take the patch off right after my evening meal
c. I will leave the patch off at least 1 day each week
d. I should discard the used patch by flushing it down the toilet
Answer: c. I will leave the patch off at least 1 day each week
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy via continuous IV infusion to
treat a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an
adverse effect of the medication and report to the provider?
a. Vomiting
b. Blood in the urine
c. Positive Chvostek's sign
d. Ringing in the ears
Answer: b. Blood in the urine
3. A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has multiple sclerosis and a new prescription for
methylprednisolone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (SATA)
a. Blood glucose levels will be monitored during therapy.
b. Avoid contact with people who have known infections.
c. Take the medication 1 hr before breakfast.
d. Decrease dietary intake of foods containing potassium.
e. Grapefruit juice can increase the effects of this medication.
Answer: a. Blood glucose levels will be monitored during therapy.
b. Avoid contact with people who have known infections.
e. Grapefruit juice can increase the effects of this medication.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching about handling medication to a client who is to
continue taking oral transmucosal fentanyl raspberry flavored lozenges on a stick. Which of the
following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. Chew on the medication stick to release the medication.
b. Leave the medication stick in on location of the mouth until melted.
c. Allow the medication 1 hr for analgesia effects to begin.
d. Store unused medication sticks in a storage container.
Answer: d. Store unused medication sticks in a storage container.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is taking oral morphine and docusate
sodium. The nurse should instruct the client that takin the docusate sodium daily can minimize
which of the following adverse effects of morphine?
a. Constipation
b. Drowsiness
c. Facial flushing
d. Itching
Answer: a. Constipation
6. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving mannitol via IV continuous infusion. The
nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
a. Weight loss
b. Increase intraocular pressure
c. Auditory hallucinations
d. Bibasilar crackles
Answer: b. Increase intraocular pressure
7. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has gastric ulcer and a new prescription for
ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
a. "Take the medication on an empty stomach for full effectiveness."
b. "You may discontinue this medication when stomach discomfort subsides."
c. "Report yellowing of the skin."
d. "Store the medication in the refrigerator."
Answer: c. "Report yellowing of the skin."
8. A nurse is assessing a client after administering a second dose of cefazolin IV. The nurse notes
the client has anxiety, hypotension, and dyspnea. Which of the following medications should the
nurse administer first?
a. Diphenhydramine
b. ALbuterol inhaler
c. Epinephrine
d. Prednisone
Answer: c. Epinephrine
9. A nurse is preparing to administer ciprofloxacin 15 mg/kg PO every 12 hr to a child who
weighs 44 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose?
Answer: 300 mg
10. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client whose family reports the client has
taken large amounts of diazepam. Which of the following medications should the nurse
anticipate administering?
a. Ondansetron
b. Magnesium sulfate
c. Flumazenil
d. Protamine sulfate
Answer: c. Flumazenil
11. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV
infusion for DVT. The nurse should discontinue the medication infusion for which of the
following client findings?
a. Potassium 5.0
b. aPTT 2x the control
c. Hemoglobin 15
d. Platelets 96,000
Answer: d. Platelets 96,000
12. A nurse is preparing to administer PO sodium polystyrene sulfonate to a client who has
hyperkalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
a. Hold the client's other oral medications for 8 hr post administration
b. Inform the client that this medication can turn stool a light tan color
c. Keep the client's solution in the refrigerator for up to 72 hr.
d. Monitor the client for constipation
Answer: d. Monitor the client for constipation
13. A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who has hypocalcemia
and a new prescription for IV calcium gluconate. The nurse should identify that which of the
following medications can interact with calcium gluconate?
a. Felodipine
b. Guaifenesin
c. Digoxin
d. Regular insulin
Answer: c. Digoxin
14. A Nurse administers a dose of metformin to a client instead of the prescribed dose of
metoclopramide. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
a. Report the incident to the charge nurse
b. Notify the provider
c. Check the client's blood glucose
d. Fill out an incident report
Answer: c. Check the client's blood glucose
15. A nurse is teaching a client who is to start taking hydrocodone with acetaminophen tablets for
pain. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. The medication should be taken 1 hr prior to eating
b. It takes 48 hr for therapeutic effects to occur.
c. Tablets should not be crushed or chewed.
d. Decreased respirations might occur.
Answer: d. Decreased respirations might occur.
16. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has heroin toxicity. The client
is unresponsive with pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 6/min. Which of the following
medications should the nurse plan to administer?
a. Methadone
b. Naloxone
c. Diazepam
d. Bupropion
Answer: b. Naloxone
17. A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who wants to begin taking oral
contraceptives. The nurse should identify that which of the following client medications will
interfere with the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
a. Carbamazepine
b. Sumatriptan
c. Atenolol
d. Glipizide
Answer: a. Carbamazepine
18. A nurse is assessing a client's vital signs prior to the administration of PO digoxin. The
client's BP is 144/86 mm Hg, heart rate 55/min, and respiratory rate is 20/min. The nurse should
withhold the medication and contact the provider for which of the following findings?
a. Diastolic BP
b. Systolic BP
c. Heart Rate
d. Respiratory Rate
Answer: c. Heart Rate
19. A nurse at a clinic is providing follow-up care to a client who is taking fluoxetine for
depression. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the
medication?
a. Tingling toes
b. Sexual dysfunction
c. Absence of dreams
d. Pica
Answer: b. Sexual dysfunction
20. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin. The client asks if they can take aspirin while
taking the warfarin. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
a. "It is safe to take an enteric coated aspirin."
b. "Aspirin will increase the risk of bleeding."
c. "Acetaminophen may be substituted for aspirin."
d. "The INR lab work must be monitored more frequently if aspirin is taken."
Answer: b. "Aspirin will increase the risk of bleeding."
21. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following an outpatient endoscopy
procedure using midazolam. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an
indication that the client is ready for discharge?
a. The client's capnography has returned to baseline
b. The client can respond to their name when called.
c. The client is passing flatus.
d. The client is requesting oral intake
Answer: a. The client's capnography has returned to baseline
22. A nurse is caring for the parent of a newborn. The parent asks the nurse when their newborn
should receive the first diptheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine (DTaP). The nurse should
instruct the parent that their newborn should receive the immunization at which of the following
ages?
a. At birth
b. 2 months
c. 6 months
d. 15 months
Answer: b. 2 months
23. A nurse is caring for a client who received 0.9% sodium chloride 1 L over 4 hr instead of
over 8 hr as prescribed. Which of the following information should the nurse enter as a complete
documentation of the incident?
a. IV fluid infused over 4 hr instead of the prescribed 8 hr. Client tolerated fluids well, provider
notified
b. 0.9% sodium chloride 1 L IV infused over 4 hr. Vital signs stable, provider notified.
c. 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride completed at 09:00. Client denies shortness of breath.
d. IV fluid initiated at 05:00. Lungs clear to auscultation.
Answer: a. IV fluid infused over 4 hr instead of the prescribed 8 hr. Client tolerated fluids well,
provider notified
24. A nurse is assessing a client who is taking propylthiouracil for the treatment of Graves'
disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the
medication has been effective?
a. Decrease in WBC count
b. Decrease in amount of time sleeping.
c. Increase in appetite
d. Increase in ability to focus
Answer: d. Increase in ability to focus
25. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who tells the nurse, "I don't want to
take my fluid pill until I get home today." Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a. Document the refusal and inform he client’s provider
b. File an incident report with the risk manager
c. Contact the pharmacist to pick up the medication
d. Give the client the medication to take home and document it was administered
Answer: a. Document the refusal and inform he client’s provider
26. A nurse is administering donepezil to a client who has Alzheimer's disease. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
a. Dyspepsia
b. Diarrhea
c. Dizziness
d. Dyspnea
Answer: d. Dyspnea
27. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis and is taking neostigmine. Which of
the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse
effect?
a. Tachycardia
b. Oliguria
c. Xerostomia
d. Miosis
Answer: d. Miosis
28. A nurse is teaching a client about cyclobenzaprine. Which of the following client statements
should indicate to the nurse that the teaching is effective?
a. "I will have increased saliva production."
b. "I will continue taking the medication until the rash disappears."
c. "I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it."
d. "I will report any urinary incontinence."
Answer: c. "I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it."
29. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to begin taking oxybutynin for urinary
incontinence which of the following symptoms should the nurse tell the client to expect. (Select
all that apply)
a. Dry mouth
b. Tinnitus
c. Blurred vision
d. Bradycardia
e. Dry eyes
Answer: a. Dry mouth
c. Blurred vision
e. Dry eyes
30. A nurse is preparing to administer dextrose 5 in water 400ml iv to infuse over 1 hr. The drop
factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtts/ml. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to
deliver how many gtt/min?
Answer: 100
31. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is taking bupropion as an aid to quit smoking.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
a. Cough
b. Joint pain
c. Alopecia
d. Insomnia
Answer: d. Insomnia
32. A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is taking haloperidol. The nurse
should report which of the following findings to the provider as a manifestation of neuroleptic
malignant syndrome (NMS)?
a. Temp of 39.7 C (103.5 F)
b. Urinary retention
c. HR 56/min
d. Muscle flaccidity
Answer: a. Temp of 39.7 C (103.5 F)
33. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor. The client is receiving oxytocin by continuous
IV infusion with a maintenance IV solution. The external FHR monitor indicates late
decelerations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
a. Turn the client to a side-lying position.
b. Disconnect the client's oxytocin from the maintenance IV.
c. Apply oxygen to the client by face mask.
d. Increase the client's maintenance IV infusion rate.
Answer: a. Turn the client to a side-lying position.
34. A nurse is teaching a group of unit nurses about medication reconciliation. Which of the
following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. The client's provider is required to complete medication reconciliation.
b. Medication reconciliation at discharge is limited to the medication ordered at the time of
discharge.
c. A transition in care requires the nurse to conduct medication reconciliation.
d. Medical reconciliation is limited to the name of the medications that the client is currently
taking.
Answer: c. A transition in care requires the nurse to conduct medication reconciliation.
35. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has myasthenia gravis and is
in a cholinergic crisis. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
a. Potassium iodide
b. Glucagon
c. Atropine
d. Protamine
Answer: c. Atropine
36. A nurse on the acute care unit is caring for a client who is receiving gentamicin IV. The nurse
should report which of the following findings to the provider as an adverse effect of the
medication?
a. Constipation
b. Tinnitus
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Joint Pain
Answer: b. Tinnitus
37. A nurse is teaching a client who is to begin taking tamoxifen for the treatment of breast
cancer. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. Hot flashes
b. Urinary retention
c. Constipation
d. Bradycardia
Answer: a. Hot flashes
38. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. For which of the
following client outcomes should the nurse administer chlordiazepoxide?
a. Minimize diaphoresis
b. Maintain abstinence
c. Lessen craving
d. Prevent delirium tremens
Answer: d. Prevent delirium tremens
39. A nurse in an urgent care clinic is collecting data from a female client who has a urinary tract
infection. The nurse anticipates a prescription for ciprofloxacin. The nurse should identify that
which of the following client statements indicates a contraindication for administering this
medication?
a. "I have tendonitis, so I haven't been able to exercise."
b. "I take a stool softener for chronic constipation."
c. "I take medicine for my thyroid."
d. "I am allergic to sulfa."
Answer: a. "I have tendonitis, so I haven't been able to exercise."
40. A nurse is collecting a medication history from a client who has a new prescription for
lithium. The nurse should identify that the client should discontinue which of the following overthe- counter medications?
a. Aspirin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Rantitinde
d. Bisacodyl
Answer: b. Ibuprofen
41. A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled antibiotic at 0800 to a client and discovers the
antibiotic is not present in the client's medication drawer. The nurse should identify that
administration of the medication can occur at which of the following time periods without
requiring an incident report?
a. 1000
b. 0900
c. 0830
d. 1200
Answer: c. 0830
42. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has peptic ulcer disease and is to start a new
prescription for sucralfate. Which of the following actions of sucralfate should the nurse include
in the teaching?
a. Decreases stomach acid secretion
b. Neutralizes acids in the stomach
c. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
d. Treats ulcers by eradicating H. pylori
Answer: c. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
43. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of risedronate for the treatment of osteoporosis. The
nurse should identify which of the following statements as an indication that the client
understands the teaching?
a. I will drink a glass of milk when I take the risedronate
b. I will take the risedronate 15 minutes after my evening meal
c. I should take an antacid with the risedronate to avoid nausea
d. I should sit up for 30 min after taking the risedronate
Answer: d. I should sit up for 30 min after taking the risedronate
44. A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client who has a new prescription for simvastatin.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan (SATA)?
a. Report muscle pain to the provider
b. Avoid taking the medication with grapefruit juice
c. Take the medication in the morning
d. Expect a flushing of the skin as a reaction to the medication
e. Expect therapy with this medication to be lifelong
Answer: a. Report muscle pain to the provider
b. Avoid taking the medication with grapefruit juice
e. Expect therapy with this medication to be lifelong
45. A nurse is caring for a 20-year-old female client who has a prescription for isotretinoin for
severe nodulocystic acne vulgaris. Before the client can obtain a refill, the nurse should advice
the client that which of the following tests is required?
a. Serum calcium
b. Pregnancy test
c. 24 hr urine collection for protein
d. Aspartate aminotransferase level
Answer: b. Pregnancy test
46. A nurse is planning care for a client who is prescribed metoclopramide following bowel
surgery. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
a. Muscle weakness
b. Sedation
c. Tinnitus
d. Peripheral edema
Answer: b. Sedation
47. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a prescription for ergotamine sublingual to
treat migraine headaches. Which of the following information should the nurse include in her
instructions?
a. Take one tablet three times a day before meals.
b. Take one tablet at onset of migraine.
c. Take up to eight tablets as needed within a 24-hour period.
d. Take one tablet every 15 minutes until migraine subsides.
Answer: b. Take one tablet at onset of migraine.
48. A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following
actions should the nurse plan to take?
a. Administer the medication outside the 5-cm (2 in) radius of the umbilicus
b. Aspirate for blood return before injecting
c. Rub vigorously after the injection to promote absorption
d. Place a pressure dressing on the injection site to prevent bleeding
Answer: a. Administer the medication outside the 5-cm (2 in) radius of the umbilicus
49. A nurse is planning care for a client who has hypertension and is to start taking metoprolol.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
a. Weigh the client weekly
b. Determine apical pulse prior to administering
c. Administer the medication 30 min prior to breakfast.
d. Monitor the client for jaundice
Answer: b. Determine apical pulse prior to administering
50. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking acetazolamide for chronic open-angle glaucoma.
For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and
report?
a. Tingling of fingers
b. Constipation
c. Weight gain
d. Oliguria
Answer: a. Tingling of fingers
51. A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client who has gout. The nurse discovers
that an error was made during the previous shift and the client received atenolol instead of
allopurinol. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
a. Obtain the client’s BP
b. Contact the client’s provider
c. Inform the charge nurse
d. Complete an incident report
Answer: a. Obtain the client’s BP
52. A nurse is planning to teach about the use of a spacer to a child who has a new prescription
for a fluticasone inhaler to treat chronic asthma. The nurse should include that the spacer
decreases the risk for which of the following adverse effects of the medication?
a. Oral candidiasis
b. Headache
c. Joint pain
d. Adrenal suppression
Answer: a. Oral candidiasis
53. A nurse is reviewing the lab results of a client who is taking digoxin for heart failure. Which
of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Calcium level 9.2 mg/dL
b. Magnesium level 1.6 mEq/L
c. Digoxin level 1.1 ng/mL
d. Potassium level 2.8 mEq/L
Answer: d. Potassium level 2.8 mEq/L
54. A nurse receives a verbal order from the provider to administer morphine five milligrams
every 4 hours subcutaneously for severe pain as needed. The nurse should identify which of the
following entries as the correct format for the medication administration record (MAR)?
a. MSO4 5mg sub cut every 4hr PRN severe pain
b. Morphine 5 mg sub cut every 4 hr. PRN severe pain
c. MSO4 5mg SQ every 4 hr PRN severe pain
d. Morphine 5.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr PRN severe pain.
Answer: b. Morphine 5 mg sub cut every 4 hr. PRN severe pain
55. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has heart failure and a new
prescription for captopril. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of
the teaching?
a. I should take the medication with food.
b. I should take naproxen if I develop joint pain.
c. I should tell my provider if I develop a sore throat.
d. I should expect the medication to cause my urine to look orange.
Answer: c. I should tell my provider if I develop a sore throat.
56. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute acetaminophen toxicity. The nurse should
anticipate administering which of the following medications?
a. Vitamin K
b. Acetylcysteine
c. Benztropine
d. Physostigmine
Answer: b. Acetylcysteine
57. A nurse is assessing a client 1 hr after administering morphine for pain. The nurse should
identify which of the following findings as the best indication that the morphine has been
effective?
a. The client's vital signs are within normal limits.
b. The client has not requested additional medication.
c. The client is resting comfortably with eyes closed.
d. The client rates the pain at a 3 on a scale from 0 to 10.
Answer: d. The client rates the pain at a 3 on a scale from 0 to 10.
58. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to start treatment for asthma with
beclomethasone and albuterol inhalers. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
include in the teaching?
a. "Take beclomethasone to avoid an acute attack."
b. "Use beclomethasone 5 min before using albuterol."
c. "Limit your calcium and vitamin D intake when taking beclomethasone."
d. "Rinse your mouth after inhaling the beclomethasone."
Answer: d. "Rinse your mouth after inhaling the beclomethasone."
59. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following findings
should the nurse document to indicate the effectiveness of the therapy?
a. Increased neutrophil count
b. Increased RBC count
c. Decreased prothrombin time
d. Decreased triglycerides
Answer: a. Increased neutrophil count
60. A nurse is reviewing the ECG of a client who is receiving IV furosemide for heart failure.
The nurse should identify which of the following as an indication of hypokalemia?
a. Tall, tented T-waves
b. Presence of U-waves
c. Widened QRS complex
d. ST elevation
Answer: b. Presence of U-waves
