Preview Extract
ATI Pharmacology 2019 A
1) A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a pt who has gout. The nurse discovers that
an error was made during the previous shift and the pt received atenolol instead of allopurinol.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
a. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
b. Contact the client's provider.
c. Inform the charge nurse.
d. Complete an incident report.
Answer: a. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
Rationale:
a. When using the nursing process, the first action the nurse should take to prevent injury to the
client is to assess the client for adverse effects of atenolol, such as hypotension.
b. The nurse should contact the provider, who can provide direction to the nurse to prevent injury
to the client. However, there is another action the nurse should take first.
c. The nurse should alert the charge nurse about the medication error. However, there is another
action the nurse should take first.
d. The nurse should complete an incident report, which is used as part of a facility's quality
assurance program. However, there is another action the nurse should take first.
2) A nurse is teaching a pt about Cyclobenzaprine. Which of the following pt statements should
indicate to the nurse that the teaching is effective?
a. "I will have increased saliva production."
b. "I will continue taking the medication until the rash disappears."
c. "I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it."
d. "I will report any urinary incontinence."
Answer: c. "I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it."
Rationale:
c. The client should taper off cyclobenzaprine before discontinuing it to prevent abstinence
syndrome or rebound insomnia.
a. The client should use gum or sip on water to prevent dry mouth, which is an adverse effect of
cyclobenzaprine.
b. The client should take cyclobenzaprine for treatment of muscle spasms. This medication does
not affect skin rashes.
d. The client should report any urinary retention because of the anticholinergic effects caused
when taking cyclobenzaprine.
3) A nurse is assessing a pt 1 hour after administering Morphine for pain. The nurse should
identify which of the following findings as the best indication that the Morphine has been
effective?
a. The client's vital signs are within normal limits.
b. The client has not requested additional medication.
c. The client is resting comfortably with eyes closed.
d. The client rates pain as 3 on a scale from 0 to 10.
Answer: d. The client rates pain as 3 on a scale from 0 to 10.
Rationale:
d. The client's description of the pain is the most accurate assessment of pain.
a. Vital signs can be within normal limits for clients who have pain.
b. Clients often do not request medicine even when they are experiencing pain.
c. The client might rest with their eyes closed as a method to try to manage pain. However, this
does not indicate that the pain is controlled.
4) The nurse is assessing a pt after administering a second dose of Cefazolin IV. The nurse notes
the pt has anxiety, hypotension, and dyspnea. Which of the following medications should the
nurse administer first?
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Albuterol inhaler
c. Epinephrine
d. Prednisone
Answer: c. Epinephrine
Rationale:
c. According to evidence-based practice, the nurse should administer epinephrine first to induce
vasoconstriction and bronchodilation during anaphylaxis.
a. The nurse should administer diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, as a second-line medication
to decrease angioedema and urticaria following anaphylaxis. However, evidence-based practice
indicates that administering another medication is the priority.
b. The nurse should administer albuterol, a bronchodilator, for a client who has dyspnea from
bronchospasms during anaphylaxis. However, evidence based practice indicates that
administering another medication is the priority.
d. The nurse should plan to administer prednisone, a glucocorticoid, for the urticaria following
anaphylaxis and to prevent a delayed anaphylactic reaction from occurring. However, evidencebased practice indicates that administering another medication is the priority.
5) A nurse is providing teaching to a pt who is to begin taking Oxybutynin for urinary
incontinence. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?
(select all that apply)
a. Dry mouth
b. Dry eyes
c. Blurred vision
d. Bradycardia
e. Tinnitus
Answer: a. Dry mouth
b. Dry eyes
c. Blurred vision
Rationale:
a. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause dry mouth.
b. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause dry eyes and mydriasis, or pupil
dilation.
c. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause blurred vision due to an increase in
intraocular pressure.
d. Oxybutynin can cause several cardiovascular adverse effects such as a prolongation of the QT
interval, palpitations, hypertension, and tachycardia.
e. Oxybutynin can cause several sensory adverse effects including increased intraocular pressure.
The nurse should instruct the client to report eye pain, seeing colored halos around lights, and a
decreased ability to perceive light changes. However, tinnitus is not an adverse effect associated
with oxybutynin administration.
6) A nurse is preparing to administer PO Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate to a pt who has
hyperkalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
a. Hold the client's other oral medications for 8 hr post administration.
b. Inform the client that this medication can turn stool a light tan color.
c. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate will not alter the color of the client's stool.
d. Monitor the client for constipation.
Answer: d. Monitor the client for constipation.
Rationale:
d. The nurse should monitor the client for the adverse effect of constipation and report it to the
provider because this can lead to fecal impaction.
a. The nurse should hold the client's other oral medications for 6 hr before and after
administration of sodium polystyrene sulfonate.
b. Keep the client's solution in the refrigerator for up to 72 hr.
c. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate solution is stable for 24 hr when refrigerated.
7) A nurse is preparing to administer Heparin subcutaneously to a pt. Which of the following
actions should the nurse plan to take?
a. Administer the medication outside the 5-cm (2-in) radius of the umbilicus.
b. Aspirate for blood return before injecting.
c. Rub vigorously after the injection to promote absorption.
d. Place a pressure dressing on the injection site to prevent bleeding.
Answer: a. Administer the medication outside the 5-cm (2-in) radius of the umbilicus.
Rationale:
a. The nurse should administer the heparin by subcutaneous injection to the abdomen in an area
that is above the iliac crest and at least 5 cm (2 in) away from the umbilicus.
b. The nurse should not aspirate by pulling back on the plunger of the heparin syringe to check
for a blood return, because this will cause the injection site to bruise.
c. The nurse should apply firm pressure to the injection site for 1 to 2 min after the
administration of the heparin to prevent bruising.
d. The nurse does not need to apply a dressing over the injection site if pressure is held for at
least 1 min to prevent bleeding.
8) A nurse is teaching a pt who is to begin taking Tamoxifen for the treatment of breast cancer.
Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. Hot flashes
b. Urinary retention
c. Constipation
d. Bradycardia
Answer: a. Hot flashes
Rationale:
a. The estrogen receptor blocking action of tamoxifen commonly results in the adverse effect of
hot flashes.
b. Tamoxifen can cause genitourinary adverse effects such as vaginal discharge and uterine
cancer. However, urinary retention is not an expected adverse effect of tamoxifen.
c. Gastrointestinal adverse effects of tamoxifen include nausea and vomiting. However,
constipation is not an expected adverse effect of tamoxifen.
d. Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen medication that works by blocking estrogen receptors.
Cardiovascular adverse effects of the medication include chest pain, flushing, and the
development of thrombus. However, bradycardia is not an expected adverse effect of tamoxifen.
9) A nurse is reviewing the lab results of a pt who is taking Digoxin for heart failure. Which of
the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Calcium level 9.2 mg/dL
b. Magnesium level 1.6 mEq/L
c. Digoxin level 1.1 ng/mL
d. Potassium level 2.8 mEq/L
Answer: d. Potassium level 2.8 mEq/L
Rationale:
d. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is below the expected reference range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L. The
nurse should notify the provider if a client has hypokalemia prior to administration of digoxin
due to the increased risk of developing digoxin toxicity and cardiac dysrhythmias.
a. A calcium level of 9.2 mg/dL is within the expected reference range of 9.0 to 10.5 mg/dL. The
nurse should report a calcium level that is outside the expected reference range to the provider.
b. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the expected reference range of 1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L.
The nurse should report a magnesium level that is outside the expected reference range to the
provider.
c. A digoxin level of 1.1 ng/mL is within the expected reference range of 0.8 to 2 ng/mL. The
nurse should report a digoxin level that is outside the expected reference range to the provider for
a dosage adjustment.
10) A nurse is providing teaching to a pt who has peptic ulcer disease and is to start a new
prescription for Sucralfate. Which of the following actions of Sucralfate should the nurse include
in the teaching?
a. Decreases stomach acid secretion
b. Neutralizes acids in the stomach
c. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
d. Treats ulcers by eradicating H. pylori
Answer: c. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
Rationale:
c. Secretions by the parietal and chief cells, hydrochloric acid and pepsin, can further irritate the
ulcerated areas. Sucralfate, a mucosal protectant, forms a gel-like substance that coats the ulcer,
creating a barrier to hydrochloric acid and pepsin.
a. Peptic ulcer disease manifests as an erosion of the gastric or duodenal mucosa. The acid
production in the stomach causes further irritation and pain. H2 receptor antagonists, such as
famotidine, decrease stomach acid secretion.
b. Acid production in the stomach causes further irritation and pain to a client who has a peptic
ulcer. Antacids, such as aluminum hydroxide, neutralize acids in the stomach and prevent pepsin
formation, a digestive enzyme that can further damage the eroded epithelium.
d. A common cause of peptic ulcers is a bacterial infection with Helicobacter pylori. Treatment
of the ulcer includes a combination of antibiotics, such as metronidazole, tetracycline,
clarithromycin, or amoxicillin, to eradicate the H. pylori infection.
11) A nurse is assessing a pt who has Myasthenia gravis and is taking Neostigmine. Which of the
following findings should indicate to the nurse that the pt is experiencing an adverse effect?
a. Tachycardia
b. Oliguria
c. Xerostomia
d. Miosis
Answer: d. Miosis
Rationale:
d. Miosis, which is pupillary constriction, is a common adverse effect of neostigmine due to the
excessive muscarinic stimulation that causes difficulty with visual accommodation.
a. Neostigmine can cause bradycardia, rather than tachycardia, due to the excessive muscarinic
stimulation.
b. Neostigmine can cause urinary urgency, rather than decreased urinary output, due to the
excessive muscarinic stimulation.
c. Neostigmine can cause increased salivation, rather than dry mouth, due to the excessive
muscarinic stimulation.
12) A nurse is preparing to give Ciprofloxin 15mg/kg PO every 12hr to a child who weighs
44lbs. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to nearest whole #; do not
use trailing zero)
Answer: 300mg/dose
Rationale:
give 300 mg/dose every 12 hr.
13) A nurse on the acute care unit is caring for a pt who is receiving Gentamicin IV. The nurse
should report which of the following findings to the provider as an adverse effect of the
medication?
a. Constipation
b. Tinnitus
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Joint pain
Answer: b. Tinnitus
Rationale:
b. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, are ototoxic, which can manifest as tinnitus and
deafness. The nurse should monitor the client for high-pitched ringing in the ears and headaches
and should notify the provider if these occur.
a. Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside used to treat serious infections, can cause several
gastrointestinal adverse effects, such as inflammation of the liver and spleen. However, it does
not cause constipation.
c. Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside used to treat serious infections, can cause alternations in the
functions of the liver and spleen. However, pancreatic function, mainly insulin production, is not
affected by this medication.
d. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, can result in neuromuscular adverse effects such as
twitching or flaccid paralysis. However, joint pain is not an adverse effect of gentamicin.
14) A nurse is teaching a group of unit nurses about medication reconciliation. Which of the
following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. The client's provider is required to complete medication reconciliation.
b. Medication reconciliation at discharge is limited to the medication ordered at the time of
discharge.
c. A transition in care requires the nurse to conduct medication reconciliation.
d. Medical reconciliation is limited to the name of the medications that the client is currently
taking.
Answer: c. A transition in care requires the nurse to conduct medication reconciliation.
Rationale:
c. The nurse should conduct medication reconciliation anytime the client is undergoing a change
in care such as admission, transfer from one unit to another, or discharge. A complete listing of
all prescribed and over-the-counter medications should be reviewed.
a. The nurse or a member of the health care team, such as the pharmacist, is required to complete
medication reconciliation.
b. Medication reconciliation at discharge includes medications ordered at the time of discharge,
over-the-counter medications, vitamins, herbal supplements, nutritional supplements, and other
medications the client is taking.
d. The name of the current medication and new medication, over-the-counter medications,
vitamins, herbal supplements, and nutritional supplements are included at the medication
reconciliation. The indication, route, dosage size, and dosing interval are also required.
15) A nurse is caring for a pt who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. For which of the
following pt outcomes should the nurse administer Chlordiazepoxide?
a. Minimize diaphoresis
b. Maintain abstinence
c. Lessen craving
d. Prevent delirium tremens
Answer: d. Prevent delirium tremens
Rationale:
d. The client should take chlordiazepoxide to prevent delirium tremens during acute alcohol
withdrawal.
a. The client should take clonidine or a beta-adrenergic blocker, such as atenolol, to minimize
autonomic components, such as diaphoresis, during alcohol withdrawal.
b. The client should take acamprosate to help maintain abstinence from alcohol by decreasing
anxiety and other uncomfortable manifestations.
c. The client should take propranolol to decrease cravings during alcohol withdrawal.
16) A nurse is reviewing the lab results for a pt who is receiving Heparin via continuous infusion
for DVT. The nurse should discontinue the medinfusion for which of the following pt findings?
a. Potassium 5.0 mEq/ L
b. aPTT 2 times the control
c. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
d. Platelets 96,000/mm3
Answer: d. Platelets 96,000/mm3
Rationale:
d. A platelet count of 96,000/mm3 is below the expected range of 150,000 to 400,000/mm3. A
platelet count less than 100,000/mm3 while receiving heparin can indicate heparin-induced
thrombocytopenia, a potentially fatal condition that requires stopping the infusion.
a. Although heparin can cause an increase in potassium levels, the client's potassium level is
within the expected reference range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L.
b. This is a therapeutic aPTT level for a client receiving heparin and is not an indication to stop
the heparin infusion.
c. An Hgb of 15 g/dL is within the expected reference range of 14 to 18 g/dL for a male and 12 to
16 g/dL for a female and is not an indication to stop the heparin infusion.
17) A nurse administers a dose of Metformin to a pt instead of the prescribed dose of
Metoclopramide. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
a. Report the incident to the charge nurse.
b. Notify the provider.
c. Check the client's blood glucose.
d. Fill out an incident report.
Answer: c. Check the client's blood glucose.
Rationale:
c. The first action the nurse should take using the nursing process is to assess the client. The
client is at risk for hypoglycemia. The nurse should monitor the client's blood glucose and
provide the client with a snack to reduce the risk for hypoglycemia.
a. The nurse should report the incident to the charge nurse to protect the client from injury.
However, there is another action the nurse should take first.
b. The nurse should notify the provider to protect the client from injury. However, there is
another action the nurse should take first.
d. The nurse should fill out an incident report to document the incident. However, there is
another action the nurse should take first. The incident report alerts the risk manager to the
incident, who then determines the cause and a plan of action to reduce the risk of reocurrence.
18) A nurse in an ED/ER is caring for a pt who has Myasthenia gravis and is in a cholinergic
crisis. Which of the following meds should the nurse plan to administer?
a. Potassium iodide
b. Glucagon
c. Atropine
d. Protamine
Answer: c. Atropine
Rationale:
c. A cholinergic crisis is caused by an excess amount of cholinesterase inhibitor, such as
neostigmine. The nurse should plan to administer atropine, an anticholinergic agent, to reverse
cholinergic toxicity.
a. Potassium iodide is a thyroid hormone antagonist used in the treatment of radioactive iodine
exposure.
b. Glucagon is an antihypoglycemic medication used in the treatment of low blood glucose
levels.
d. Protamine is a heparin antagonist that is administered to reverse heparin toxicity evidenced by
an aPTT greater than 70 seconds.
19) A nurse is caring for a pt who is receiving Filgrastim. Which of the following findings should
the nurse document to indicate the effectiveness of the therapy?
a. Increased neutrophil count
b. Increased RBC count
c. Decreased prothrombin time
d. Decreased triglycerides
Answer: a. Increased neutrophil count
Rationale:
a. Filgrastim stimulates the bone marrow to produce neutrophils/ more WBCs. For clients
receiving chemotherapy, the risk of infection is minimized.
b. Filgrastim stimulates the bone marrow to produce neutrophils and has no effect on a client's
RBC count.
c. Prothrombin time measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Filgrastim therapy does not
cause a decrease in prothrombin time.
d. Triglycerides are a form of lipids found in the blood stream. Increased levels are associated
with an increased risk for heart disease. Decreased levels can occur in clients who have
malnutrition or malabsorption disorders. Filgrastim is used to treat chemotherapy-induced
neutropenia and has no effect on a client's triglyceride levels.
20) A nurse in an ED/ER is caring for a pt who has heroin toxicity. The pt is unresponsive with
pinpoint pupils and a resp rate of 6/min. Which of the following meds should the nurse plan to
administer?
a. Methadone
b. Naloxone
c. Diazepam
d. Bupropion
Answer: b. Naloxone
Rationale:
b. The nurse should administer Naloxone also known as Narcan, an opioid antagonist, to a client
who has heroin toxicity to reverse the respiratory depressive effects of the heroin. However, the
nurse should not administer naloxone too quickly because naloxone can cause hypertension,
tachycardia, nausea, vomiting, and might cause the client to enter a state of opioid withdrawal.
a. The nurse should administer methadone, an opioid agonist, to a client who has heroin toxicity
to decrease manifestations of opioid withdrawal and suppress the euphoria the client feels when
using heroin. However, the client should not receive methadone in an emergency.
c. The nurse should administer diazepam, a benzodiazepine, to a client who has alcohol toxicity
to decrease the manifestations of alcohol withdrawal and prevent withdrawal seizures.
d. The nurse should administer bupropion, an atypical antidepressant, to a client who is trying to
quit nicotine to decrease the manifestations of nicotine withdrawal and ease the client's cravings
for nicotine.
21) A nurse is providing teaching to a pt who has a prescription for Ergotamine sublingual to
treat migraine headaches. Which of the following info should the nurse include in the
instructions?
a. "Take one tablet three times a day before meals."
b. "Take one tablet at onset of migraine."
c. "Take up to eight tablets as needed within a 24-hour period."
d. "Take one tablet every 15 minutes until migraine subsides."
Answer: b. "Take one tablet at onset of migraine."
Rationale:
b. The client should take one tablet immediately after the onset of aura or headache.
a. Ergotamine, an alpha-adrenergic blocking medication, is not used prophylactically because
this can result in ergotamine dependence.
c. The client can take up to a maximum of three tablets in a 24-hr period. Excessive dosing can
lead to ergotism, which can cause peripheral gangrene due to vasoconstriction and ischemia.
d. The client can take one sublingual tablet every 30 min for a maximum of three tablets in a 24hr period to manage a migraine.
22) A nurse is teaching a pt about the use of Risedronate for the treatment of osteoporosis. The
nurse should identify which of the following statements as an indication that the pt understands
the teaching?
a. "I will drink a glass of milk when I take the risedronate."
b. "I will take the risedronate 15 minutes after my evening meal."
c. "I should take an antacid with the risedronate to avoid nausea."
d. "I should sit up for 30 minutes after taking the risedronate."
Answer: d. "I should sit up for 30 minutes after taking the risedronate."
Rationale:
d. Sitting upright for at least 30 min after taking risedronate will reduce the adverse
gastrointestinal effects of esophagitis and dyspepsia. Risedronate is contraindicated for a client
who cannot sit or stand upright for this length of time.
a. The nurse should reinforce that risedronate should be taken with a full glass of water, rather
than any other liquid.
b. Although the delayed release form of the medication can be taken after eating, the immediate
release form of the medication should be taken at least 30 min prior to consuming food or other
liquids. Both forms of medication should be taken in the morning.
c. The absorption of risedronate, a bisphosphonate, will be reduced if it is taken with antacids
containing calcium, aluminum, or magnesium. The nurse should instruct the client to take the
antacid 2 hr after taking risedronate.
23) A nurse is collecting a med history from a pt who has a new prescription for Lithium. The
nurse should identify that the pt should discontinue which of the following OTC medications?
a. Aspirin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Ranitidine
d. Bisacodyl
Answer: b. Ibuprofen
Rationale:
b. Most NSAIDs can significantly increase lithium levels. Therefore, the client should not take
ibuprofen and lithium concurrently.
a. Although most NSAIDs interact with lithium to increase lithium levels, aspirin does not
interact with lithium.
c. There are no known medication interactions between ranitidine and lithium.
d. There are no known medication interactions between bisacodyl and lithium.
24) A nurse is planning care for a pt who is prescribed Metoclopramide following bowel surgery.
For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
a. Muscle weakness
b. Sedation
c. Tinnitus
d. Peripheral edema
Answer: b. Sedation
Rationale:
b. Metoclopramide has multiple CNS adverse effects, including dizziness, fatigue, and sedation.
a. Metoclopramide is a central dopamine receptor antagonist that increases gastrointestinal
motility and prevents nausea. Tardive dyskinesia is an adverse effect of metoclopramide.
However, metoclopramide does not cause muscle weakness.
c. Metoclopramide does not cause ringing in the ears.
d. Metoclopramide does not cause peripheral edema.
25) A nurse is caring for a pt who is taking Acetazolamide for chronic open angle glaucoma. For
which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the pt to monitor and report?
a. Tingling of fingers
b. Constipation
c. Weight gain
d. Oliguria
Answer: a. Tingling of fingers
Rationale:
a. The nurse should instruct the client to report the adverse effect of paresthesia, a tingling
sensation in the extremities, when taking acetazolamide.
b. Diarrhea is an adverse effect of acetazolamide due to gastrointestinal disturbances.
c. Weight loss is an adverse effect of acetazolamide due to gastrointestinal disturbances causing
reduced appetite.
d. Polyuria, rather than oliguria, is an adverse effect of acetazolamide.
26) A nurse is planning care for a pt who has hypertension and is starting to take Metoprolol.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
a. Weigh the client weekly.
b. Determine apical pulse prior to administering.
c. Administer the medication 30 min prior to breakfast.
d. Monitor the client for jaundice.
Answer: b. Determine apical pulse prior to administering.
Rationale:
b. Life-threatening bradycardia is an adverse effect that might affect this client. Therefore, the
nurse should assess the client's apical pulse prior to administering the medication. If the client's
pulse rate is less than 60/min, the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
a. The nurse should weigh the client daily to monitor for the development of heart failure and
weight gain.
c. The nurse should administer metoprolol following meals or at bedtime if orthostatic
hypotension occurs.
d. The nurse should monitor the client for adverse effects such as hypotension. However,
jaundice is not associated with this medication.
27) A nurse in an ED/ER is caring for a pt whose family reports the pt has taken large amounts of
Diazepam. Which of the following meds should the nurse anticipate administering?
a. Ondansetron
b. Magnesium sulfate
c. Flumazenil
d. Protamine sulfate
Answer: c. Flumazenil
Rationale:
c. The nurse should anticipate administering flumazenil, an antidote used to reverse
benzodiazepines such as diazepam.
a. Ondansetron is an antiemetic that is used to treat nausea and vomiting.
b. Magnesium sulfate is an electrolyte replacement that is used to treat clients who are at risk for
seizure activity.
d. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin and is used to reverse an elevated aPTT caused by
taking heparin.
28) A nurse is administering Donepezil to a pt who has Alzheimer’s disease. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
a. Dyspepsia
b. Diarrhea
c. Dizziness
d. Dyspnea
Answer: d. Dyspnea
Rationale:
d. When using the airway, breathing, circulation approach to client care, the nurse should report
the adverse effect of dyspnea, caused by bronchoconstriction, to the provider first.
Bronchoconstriction, dyspepsia, diarrhea, and dizziness are caused by the increase in
acetylcholine levels, which is a primary effect of donepezil.
a. The nurse should report dyspepsia to the provider because dyspepsia can cause discomfort and
irritation to the esophageal tissues. However, the nurse should report another finding first.
b. The nurse should report diarrhea to the provider because diarrhea can result in electrolyte and
fluid imbalances. However, the nurse should report another finding first.
c. The nurse should report dizziness to the provider because dizziness can place the client at an
increased risk for falls. However, the nurse should report another finding first.
29) A nurse is caring for a pt who is in labor. The Pt is receiving Oxytocin by continuous IV
infusion with a maintenance IV solution. The external FHR monitor indicates late decelerations.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
a. Turn the client to a side-lying position.
b. Disconnect the client's oxytocin from the maintenance IV.
c. Apply oxygen to the client by face mask.
d. Increase the client's maintenance IV infusion rate.
Answer: a. Turn the client to a side-lying position.
Rationale:
a. The greatest risk to the fetus experiencing late decelerations is injury from uteroplacental
insufficiency. Therefore, the priority action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral
position.
b. The nurse should discontinue the oxytocin to reduce uterine contractions. However, another
action is the nurse's priority.
c. The nurse should apply oxygen by face mask to provide supplemental oxygen to the fetus.
However, another action is the nurse's priority.
d. The nurse should increase the client's maintenance IV infusion rate to maintain adequate blood
flow and promote placental perfusion. However, another action is the nurse's priority.
30) A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a pt who has a new prescription for Simvastatin.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan? (select all that
apply)
a. Report muscle pain to the provider
b. Avoid taking the medication with grapefruit juice
c. Expect therapy with this medication to be lifelong
d. Take the medication in the early morning is incorrect.
e. Expect a flushing of the skin as a reaction to the medication is incorrect.
Answer: a. Report muscle pain to the provider
b. Avoid taking the medication with grapefruit juice
c. Expect therapy with this medication to be lifelong
Rationale:
a. Myopathy is an adverse effect of simvastatin that can lead to rhabdomyolysis. The nurse
should instruct the client to report this to the provider.
b. When taken with grapefruit juice, simvastatin increases the risk of muscle injury from
elevations in creatine kinase.
c. If medication therapy is discontinued, cholesterol levels will return to their pretreatment range
within several weeks to months.
d. This medication is most effective when taken in the evening because cholesterol production
generally increases overnight.
e. The nurse should identify flushing of the skin as an adverse effect of the medication niacin,
which can be used to decrease the client's triglyceride levels.
31) A nurse is caring for a pt who is receiving Heparin therapy via continuous infusion to treat a
pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse
effect of the med and report to the provider?
a. Vomiting
b. Blood in the urine
c. Positive Chvostek's sign
d. Ringing in the ears
Answer: b. Blood in the urine
Rationale:
b. The nurse should report blood in the urine to the provider because this can be a manifestation
of heparin toxicity. Other manifestations can include bruising, hematomas, hypotension, and
tachycardia.
a. Vomiting is not an expected adverse effect of heparin therapy. The nurse should assess the
client for other causes for vomiting.
c. A Chvostek's sign is seen in clients who have hypocalcemia or hypomagnesemia.
d. Ringing in the ears is not an expected adverse effect of heparin therapy. Aminoglycosides,
such as vancomycin, are medications that cause ringing in the ears.
32) A nurse is assessing a pt who is taking a Propylthiouracil for the treatment of Grave’s
disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the
medication has been effective?
a. Decrease in WBC count
b. Decrease in amount of time sleeping
c. Increase in appetite
d. Increase in ability to focus
Answer: d. Increase in ability to focus
Rationale:
d. A client who has Graves' disease can experience psychological manifestations such as
difficulty focusing, restlessness, and manic-type behaviors. Propylthiouracil is a thyroid hormone
antagonist that decreases the circulating T4 hormone, reducing the manifestations of
hyperthyroidism. An increased ability to focus indicates that the medication has been effective.
a. Propylthiouracil is a thyroid hormone antagonist used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism, or
thyroid storms. A decreased WBC count is an adverse effect of propylthiouracil, which can cause
myelosuppression. Therefore, a decrease in WBC count indicates the medication has not been
effective.
b. Graves' disease, a form of hyperthyroidism, has neurologic manifestations, including
insomnia. Therefore, a decrease in the amount of time sleeping indicates the medication has not
been effective.
c. Graves’ disease can result in gastrointestinal manifestations such as increased appetite, weight
loss, and increased gastrointestinal motility. Therefore, an increase in appetite indicates the
medication has not been effective.
33) A nurse is assessing a pt who is postoperative following an outpatient endoscopy procedure
using Midazolam. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an indication
that the pt is ready for discharge?
a. The client's capnography has returned to baseline.
b. The client can respond to their name when called.
c. The client is passing flatus.
d. The client is requesting oral intake.
Answer: a. The client's capnography has returned to baseline.
Rationale:
a. The nurse should identify that the client is ready for discharge when the capnography level
indicates that gas exchange is adequate.
b. The client is considered ready for discharge when the state of arousal is at the pre procedure
level.
c. The nurse should monitor for the passing of flatus for a client who received general anesthesia.
d. A request for oral intake does not indicate the client is ready for discharge. The nurse should
assess for a return of the gag reflex for a client who is postoperative following an endoscopy.
34) A nurse is providing discharge teaching about handling medication to a pt who is to continue
taking oral transmucosal Fentanyl raspberry flavored lozenges on a stick. Which of the following
info should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. Chew on the medication stick to release the medication.
b. Leave the medication stick in one location of the mouth until melted.
c. Allow the medication 1 hr for analgesia effects to begin.
d. Store unused medication sticks in a storage container.
Answer: d. Store unused medication sticks in a storage container.
Rationale:
d. The nurse should instruct the client to store unused, used, or partially used medication sticks in
the safe storage container that comes in the kit when the medication is initially prescribed.
a. The nurse should instruct the client to place the fentanyl stick between their cheek and lower
gum and actively suck it for increased absorption of the medication.
b. The nurse should instruct the client to periodically move the medication stick to a different
location in the mouth for best absorption.
c. The nurse should instruct the client to expect the medication's analgesia effects to begin within
10 to 15 min.
35) A nurse is providing teaching to a pt who has multiple sclerosis and a new prescription for
Methylprednisolone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (select all
that apply)
a. Blood glucose levels will be monitored during therapy
b. Avoid contact with people who have known infections
c. Grapefruit juice can increase the effects of the medication
d. Take the medication 1 hr before breakfast
e. Decrease dietary intake of foods containing potassium
Answer: a. Blood glucose levels will be monitored during therapy
b. Avoid contact with people who have known infections
c. Grapefruit juice can increase the effects of the medication
Rationale:
a. The nurse should monitor the client for hyperglycemia while providing methylprednisolone to
the client. Glucocorticoids, such as methylprednisolone, increase serum glucose levels and can
require management with insulin or antihyperglycemics.
b. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid exposure to infectious agents, such as contact
with those who have active infections or illnesses. Glucocorticoids, such as methylprednisolone,
depress the immune system, placing the client at an increased risk for developing an infection.
c. The nurse should instruct the client that grapefruit and grapefruit juice can increase the level of
methylprednisolone in the body.
d. Take the medication 1 hr before breakfast is incorrect. The nurse should instruct the client to
take the medication with food or milk to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
e. Decrease dietary intake of foods containing potassium is incorrect. The nurse should instruct
the client to increase dietary intake of potassium-rich foods while taking this medication.
Glucocorticoids, such as methylprednisolone, deplete potassium in the body, which manifests as
hypokalemia.
36) A nurse is planning to teach about the use of a spacer to a child who has a new prescription
for a Fluticasone inhaler to treat chronic asthma. The nurse should include that the spacer
decreases the risk for which of the following adverse effects of the med?
a. Oral candidiasis
b. Headache
c. Joint pain
d. Adrenal suppression
Answer: a. Oral candidiasis
Rationale:
a. Dysphonia and oral candidiasis are adverse effects of inhaled corticosteroids. Using a spacer
and rinsing the mouth after inhalation will minimize the amount of medication remaining in the
oropharynx, preventing the development of these adverse effects.
b. Fluticasone can cause neurologic adverse effects such as dizziness, fatigue, nervousness, and
headaches. However, the use of a spacer will not decrease systemic adverse effects of
fluticasone, such as headaches.
c. Fluticasone can cause musculoskeletal adverse effects such as bone loss, muscle aches, and
joint pain. However, the use of a spacer will not decrease systemic adverse effects of fluticasone,
such as joint pain.
d. Fluticasone is a glucocorticoid medication that decreases bronchoconstriction. Inhaled
glucocorticoids can cause adrenal suppression, although this occurs more often with oral
glucocorticoids. The nurse should monitor the client for manifestations of adrenal suppression
such as weakness, fatigue, hypotension, and hypoglycemia. However, the use of a spacer will not
decrease systemic adverse effects of fluticasone, such as adrenal suppression.
37) A nurse is caring for a pt who has cancer and is taking oral Morphine and Docusate Sodium.
The nurse should instruct the pt that taking the Docusate Sodium daily can minimize which of
the following adverse effects of Morphine?
a. Constipation
b. Drowsiness
c. Facial flushing
d. Itching
Answer: a. Constipation
Rationale:
a. Constipation is a common adverse effect of morphine that can be minimized by taking
docusate sodium, a stool softener that promotes easier evacuation of stool by increasing water
and fat in the intestine.
b. Drowsiness is not an adverse effect of morphine that can be minimized by taking docusate
sodium.
c. Facial flushing is not an adverse effect of morphine that can be minimized by taking docusate
sodium.
d. Itching is not an adverse effect of morphine that can be minimized by taking docusate sodium.
38) A nurse is providing teaching to a pt who is taking Bupropion as an aid to quit smoking.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the med?
a. Cough
b. Joint pain
c. Alopecia
d. Insomnia
Answer: d. Insomnia
Rationale:
d. Bupropion, an atypical antidepressant, has stimulant properties, which can result in agitation,
tremors, mania, and insomnia.
a. Bupropion, an atypical antidepressant, does not cause coughing.
b. Bupropion can cause neurologic adverse effects such as bradykinesia. However, it does not
cause joint pain.
c. Bupropion can cause sensory adverse effects such as changes in vision and hearing. However,
it does not cause alopecia.
39) A nurse is teaching a pt about Warfarin. The pt asks if they can take Aspirin while taking
Warfarin. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
a. “It is safe to take an enteric-coated aspirin."
b. "Aspirin will increase the risk of bleeding."
c. "Acetaminophen may be substituted for aspirin."
d. "The INR lab work must be monitored more frequently if aspirin is taken."
Answer: b. "Aspirin will increase the risk of bleeding."
Rationale:
b. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and can potentiate the action of the anticoagulant
warfarin. Therefore, the client should avoid taking aspirin because it increases the risk for
bleeding.
a. Although it is common for clients to consider an occasional aspirin harmless, salicylates
inhibit platelet aggregation and increase the potential for hemorrhage. Therefore, the client
should avoid taking enteric-coated aspirin.
c. Acetaminophen, an analgesic, can potentiate the action of the anticoagulant warfarin when
administered in high doses and is not a safe substitute for aspirin.
d. The client should continue to follow the provider's prescription for monitoring the PT and INR
levels to adjust warfarin dosages. However, the nurse should discourage the client from using
aspirin products because these medications increase the antiplatelet action of the warfarin and
can result in bleeding.
40) A nurse is instructing a pt on the application of Nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of
the following statements by the pt indicates an understanding of the teaching?
a. "I should apply a patch every 5 minutes if I develop chest pain."
b. "I will take the patch off right after my evening meal.
c. "I will leave the patch off at least 1 day each week."
d. "I should discard the used patch by flushing it down the toilet."
Answer: b. "I will take the patch off right after my evening meal.
Rationale:
b. Clients should remove the patch each evening for a medication free time of 12 to 14 hr before
applying a new patch to avoid developing a tolerance to the medication's effects.
a. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are used to treat new onset of angina pain. A client who uses
sublingual tablets should place one tablet under their tongue at the onset of angina pain and
continue taking a tablet every 5 min for a total of three doses of nitroglycerin. The effects of a
nitroglycerin patch will take 30 to 60 min to occur and are not useful to prevent an ongoing
angina attack.
c. Nitroglycerin is an antianginal medication that results in dilation of the coronary vessels.
Clients should apply the patch daily to sustain prophylaxis.
d. Medication remains in the transdermal patch after removing it from the body and must be
discarded safely. The nurse should instruct the client to fold the patch ends together with the
medication on the inside and place the discarded patch in a closed container so that children and
pets cannot gain access to the medication.
41) A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled antibiotic at 0800 to a pt and discovers the
antibiotic is not present in the pt’s medication drawer. The nurse should identify that
administration of that med can occur at which of the following time periods without requiring an
incident report?
a. 1000
b. 0900
c. 0830
d. 1200
Answer: c. 0830
Rationale:
c. The nurse should identify that an antibiotic can be administered 30 min before or after the
scheduled time to maintain therapeutic blood levels without requiring an incident report.
a. The nurse should identify that administering an antibiotic 2 hr after the scheduled time is too
late and requires filing an incident report.
b. The nurse should identify that administering an antibiotic 1 hr after the scheduled time is too
late and requires filing an incident report.
d. The nurse should identify that administering an antibiotic 4 hr after the scheduled time is too
late and requires filing an incident report.
42) A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a pt who has heart failure and a new
prescription for Captopril. Which of the following pt statements indicates an understanding of
the teaching?
a. "I should take the medication with food."
b. "I should take naproxen if I develop joint pain."
c. "I should tell my provider if I develop a sore throat."
d. "I should expect the medication to cause my urine to look orange."
Answer: c. "I should tell my provider if I develop a sore throat."
Rationale:
c. The client should report a sore throat to the provider because this can indicate neutropenia, a
serious adverse effect of captopril. Neutropenia can be reversed if it is identified early and the
medication is promptly discontinued.
a. The client should take captopril on an empty stomach because food reduces absorption of the
medication. The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication 1 hr before or 2 hr after a
meal.
b. Naproxen and other NSAIDs can interact with captopril, which can decrease the effect of the
antihypertensive and increase the risk of kidney dysfunction.
d. Captopril affects the urinary system by causing dysuria, urinary frequency, and changes in the
normal amount of urine. However, captopril does not affect the color of the urine.
43) A nurse is preparing to administer meds to a pt who tells the nurse “ I don't want to take my
fluid pill until I get home today.” Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a. Document the refusal and inform the client's provider.
b. File an incident report with the risk manager.
c. Contact the pharmacist to pick up the medication.
d. Give the client the medication to take at home and document that it was administered.
Answer: a. Document the refusal and inform the client's provider.
Rationale:
a. The nurse has the responsibility to verify that the client understands the risks of refusing the
medication so that an informed decision can be made. The nurse should then document the
refusal in the client's medical record and notify the health care provider.
b. The nurse does not need to complete an incident report if a client refuses to take a medication.
An incident report is necessary for a medication error.
c. The nurse should follow facility protocols for discarding the medication. It is not the role of
the pharmacist to retrieve medications that a client refuses to take.
d. The nurse should not give the client a scheduled medication to take at home and then
document that it was administered, because this violates the ethical principle of accountability.
44) A nurse is reviewing the med administration record of a pt who has hypocalcemia and a new
prescription for IV Calcium Gluconate. The nurse should identify that which of the following
meds can interact with Calcium Gluconate?
a. Felodipine
b. Guaifenesin
c. Digoxin
d. Regular insulin
Answer: c. Digoxin
Rationale:
c. The nurse should identify that calcium gluconate can cause hypercalcemia, which increases the
risk of digoxin toxicity.
a. Calcium gluconate does not interact with felodipine.
b. Calcium gluconate does not interact with guaifenesin.
d. Calcium gluconate does not interact with insulin.
45) A nurse is assessing a pt who has schizophrenia and is taking Haloperidol. The nurse should
report which of the following findings to the provider as a manifestation of neuroleptic malignant
syndrome (NMS)?
a. Temperature of 39.7° C (103.5° F)
b. Urinary retention
c. Heart rate 56/min
d. Muscle flaccidity
Answer: a. Temperature of 39.7° C (103.5° F)
Rationale:
a. The nurse should report fever to the provider as an indication of NMS, an acute lifethreatening emergency. Other manifestations can include respiratory distress, diaphoresis, and
either hyper- or hypotension.
b. The nurse should report incontinence as a manifestation of NMS.
c. The nurse should report tachycardia as a manifestation of NMS.
d. The nurse should report severe muscle rigidity as a manifestation of NMS.
46) A nurse is providing teaching to a pt who is to start treatment for asthma with
Beclomethasone and Albuterol inhalers. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
include in the teaching?
a. "Take beclomethasone to avoid an acute attack."
b. "Use beclomethasone 5 minutes before using albuterol."
c. "Limit your calcium and vitamin D intake when taking beclomethasone."
d. "Rinse your mouth after inhaling the beclomethasone."
Answer: d. "Rinse your mouth after inhaling the beclomethasone."
Rationale:
d. The client should rinse their mouth after using beclomethasone, a glucocorticoid inhaler, to
prevent oropharyngeal candidiasis and hoarseness.
a. The client should take albuterol, a short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist, to avoid an acute
asthma attack.
b. The client should use the bronchodilator, albuterol, prior to taking beclomethasone, a
glucocorticoid inhaler, to enhance its absorption.
c. The client should increase the intake of calcium and vitamin D to minimize bone loss while
taking beclomethasone, a glucocorticoid inhaler.
47) A nurse is caring for the parent of a newborn. The parents asks the nurse when their newborn
should receive the first diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine (DTaP). The nurse should
instruct the parent that their newborn should receive the immunization at which of the following
ages?
a. At birth
b. 2 months
c. 6 months
d. 15 months
Answer: b. 2 months
Rationale:
b. The CDC recommends that newborns receive the first dose of the five-dose series of the DTaP
immunization at 2 months of age.
a. According to the current recommended immunization schedule, only the hepatitis B vaccine is
given at birth.
c. The CDC recommends that newborns receive the third dose of the five-dose series of the DTaP
immunization at 6 months of age.
d. The CDC recommends that newborns receive the fourth dose of the five-dose series of the
DTaP immunization between 15 to 18 months of age.
48) A nurse is caring for a pt who has acute acetaminophen toxicity. The nurse should anticipate
administering which of the following medications?
a. Vitamin K
b. Acetylcysteine
c. Benztropine
d. Physostigmine
Answer: b. Acetylcysteine
Rationale:
b. Acetylcysteine is a specific antidote for acetaminophen toxicity. It can prevent severe injury
when given orally or by IV infusion within 8 to 10 hr.
a. Vitamin K is used to treat increased warfarin serum levels, indicated by elevated levels of
PT/INR.
c. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat adverse effects of Parkinson's
disease by reducing rigidity and tremors.
d. Physostigmine is an effective antidote for antimuscarinic poisoning from medications such as
atropine, scopolamine, some antihistamines, phenothiazines, and tricyclic antidepressants. It has
no effect on acetaminophen toxicity.
49) A nurse is reviewing the ECG of a pt who is receiving IV Furosemide for heart failure. The
nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication of hypokalemia?
a. Tall, tented T-waves
b. Presence of U-waves
c. Widened QRS complex
d. ST elevation
Answer:
b. Presence of U-waves
Rationale:
b. The nurse should identify the presence of U-waves as a manifestation of hypokalemia, an
adverse effect of furosemide.
a. The nurse should identify tall, tented T-waves as a manifestation of hyperkalemia. Flattened or
inverted T-waves are a manifestation of hypokalemia.
c. The nurse should identify a widened QRS complex as a manifestation of hyperkalemia.
d. The nurse should identify ST elevation is an indication of ischemia. ST depression is a
manifestation of hypokalemia.
50) A nurse at an urgent care clinic is collecting a history from a female pt who has a UTI. The
nurse anticipates a prescription for Ciprofloxacin. The nurse should identify that which of the
following pt statements indicates a contraindication for administering this med?
a. "I have tendonitis, so I haven't been able to exercise."
b. "I take a stool softener for chronic constipation."
c. "I take medicine for my thyroid."
d. "I am allergic to sulfa."
Answer: a. "I have tendonitis, so I haven't been able to exercise."
Rationale:
a. The nurse should identify tendonitis as a contraindication for taking ciprofloxacin due to the
risk of tendon rupture.
b. Ciprofloxacin is not contraindicated for the client who takes a stool softener for chronic
constipation. Diarrhea is an adverse effect of the medication.
c. Ciprofloxacin does not affect thyroid function and is not contraindicated for the client who
takes thyroid medication.
d. Ciprofloxacin is a quinolone antibiotic. Therefore, the client who has a sulfa allergy can take
this medication.
51) A nurse is assessing a pt’s vital signs prior to the administration of PO Digoxin. The pt’s BP
is 144/86 and heart rate is 55/min and resp rate is 20/min. The nurse should withhold the med
and contact the provider for which of the following findings?
a. Diastolic BP
b. Systolic BP
c. Heart rate
d. Respiratory rate
Answer: c. Heart rate
Rationale:
c. Digoxin slows the conduction rate through the SA and AV nodes, thereby decreasing the heart
rate. The nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider for a heart rate of 55/min
because this is an early indication of digoxin toxicity.
a. Digoxin increases cardiac output and reduces the heart rate. A diastolic BP of 86 mm Hg is not
a cause for withholding the medication and contacting the provider.
b. Digoxin increases cardiac output and reduces the heart rate. A systolic BP of 140 mm Hg is
not a cause for withholding the medication and contacting the provider.
d. Digoxin increases cardiac output and reduces heart rate. A respiratory rate of 20/min is not a
cause for withholding the medication and contacting the provider.
52) A nurse is providing teaching to a pt who has gastric ulcer and a new prescription for
Ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
a. "Take the medication on an empty stomach for full effectiveness."
b. "You may discontinue this medication when stomach discomfort subsides."
c. "Report yellowing of the skin.
d. "Store the medication in the refrigerator."
Answer: c. "Report yellowing of the skin.
Rationale:
c. Ranitidine can be hepatotoxic and cause jaundice. The nurse should instruct the client to
monitor for and report yellowing of the skin or eyes to the provider.
a. The client can take ranitidine with or without food because food does not affect the
medication's effectiveness.
b. For clients who have a gastric ulcer, ranitidine is prescribed to inhibit gastric secretion and
must be taken for the full course of therapy to be effective.
d. The client should store ranitidine at room temperature.
53) A nurse is teaching a pt who is to start taking Hydrocodone with Acetaminophen tablets for
pain. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. The medication should be taken 1 hr prior to eating.
b. It takes 48 hr for therapeutic effects to occur.
c. Tablets should not be crushed or chewed.
d. Decreased respirations might occur.
Answer: d. Decreased respirations might occur.
Rationale:
d. The nurse should instruct the client that hydrocodone with acetaminophen might cause
respiratory depression, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The client should avoid
taking over-the-counter medications or newly prescribed medications without consulting their
provider to avoid increased respiratory depression.
a. The client should take hydrocodone and acetaminophen with food or milk to decrease gastric
irritation.
b. The nurse should instruct the client that they should experience the effects of hydrocodone
with acetaminophen within 20 min of administration and that pain relief should last for 4 to 6 hr.
c. The client should avoid crushing, chewing, or breaking the extended release or immediate
release hydrocodone tablets to prevent an immediate increase in CNS effects. Hydrocodone with
acetaminophen tablets can be crushed if needed.
54) A nurse is reviewing the med list of a pt who wants to begin taking oral contraceptives. The
nurse should identify that which of the following pt medications will interfere with the
effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
a. Carbamazepine
b. Sumatriptan
c. Atenolol
d. Glipizide
Answer: a. Carbamazepine
Rationale:
a. Carbamazepine causes an accelerated inactivation of oral contraceptives because of its action
on hepatic medication-metabolizing enzymes.
b. There is no medication interaction between oral contraceptives and sumatriptan, which is a
medication to treat migraines.
c. There is no medication interaction between oral contraceptives and atenolol, a beta blocker.
d. There is no medication interaction between oral contraceptives and glipizide, an antidiabetic
medication.
55) A nurse at a clinic is providing follow-up care to a pt who is taking Fluoxetine for
depression. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the
medication?
a. Tingling toes
b. Sexual dysfunction
c. Absence of dreams
d. Pica
Answer: b. Sexual dysfunction
Rationale:
b. Sexual dysfunction, including a decreased libido, impotence, and delayed orgasm, or
anorgasmia, is a common adverse effect of fluoxetine and occurs in about 70% of clients who
take this SSRI antidepressant.
a. Fluoxetine is an SSRI that can cause muscle twitching. However, distorted sensations in the
extremities are not adverse effects of fluoxetine.
c. Fluoxetine can cause CNS adverse effects including abnormal dreaming, sedation, delusions,
hallucinations, and psychosis. However, an absence of dreams is not associated with fluoxetine.
d. Fluoxetine can cause neurologic adverse effects such as agitation, euphoria, and sedation.
However, an eating disorder such as pica is not associated with fluoxetine.
56) A nurse is preparing to administer Dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 400mL IV to infuse over 1
hour. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV
infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round to nearest whole #, do not use trailing zeros)
Answer: 100 gtt/min
Rationale:
It makes sense to administer 100 gtt/min
57) A nurse is planning care for a pt who is receiving Mannitol via continuous IV infusion. The
nurse should monitor the pt for which of the following adverse effects.
a. Weight loss
b. Increased intraocular pressure
c. Auditory hallucinations
d. Bibasilar crackles
Answer: d. Bibasilar crackles
Rationale:
d. Mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, can precipitate heart failure and pulmonary edema. Therefore,
the nurse should recognize lung crackles as an indicator of a potential complication and stop the
infusion.
a. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to promote diuresis, decrease intracranial pressure, and
improve renal function. An expected therapeutic effect of mannitol is weight loss resulting from
diuresis.
b. An indication for the use of mannitol is increased intraocular pressure. Mannitol decreases the
intraocular pressure by creating an osmotic gradient between the intraocular fluid and the
plasma.
c. Mannitol has several neurologic adverse effects, including increased intracranial pressure,
seizures, confusion, and headaches. However, it does not cause auditory hallucinations.
58) A nurse is caring for a 20 year old female pt who has a prescription for Isotretinoin for severe
nodulocystic acne vulgaris. Before the pt can obtain a refill the nurse should should advise the pt
that which of the following tests is required?
a. Serum calcium
b. Pregnancy test
c. 24-hr urine collection for protein
d. Aspartate aminotransferase level
Answer: b. Pregnancy test
Rationale:
b. The nurse should instruct the client that isotretinoin has teratogenic effects; therefore,
pregnancy must be ruled out before the client can obtain a refill. The client must provide two
negative pregnancy tests for the initial prescription and one negative test before monthly refills.
a. The client does not need to have a laboratory test for serum calcium levels while taking
isotretinoin.
c. The client does not need to have a 24-hr urine test for protein levels when taking isotretinoin.
d. The client should have a laboratory test for aspartate aminotransferase levels prior to starting
isotretinoin, 1 month after starting the medication, and periodically thereafter. However, a
laboratory test for aspartate aminotransferase is not required to renew a prescription for
isotretinoin.
59) A nurse receives a verbal order from the provider to administer Morphine 5mg every 4 hours
subcutaneously for severe pain as needed. The nurse should identify which of the following
entries as the correct format for the MAR?
a. MSO4 5 mg sub cut every 4 hr PRN severe pain
b. Morphine 5 mg sub cut every 4 hr PRN severe pain
c. MSO4 5 mg SQ every 4 hr PRN severe pain
d. Morphine 5.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr PRN severe pain
Answer: b. Morphine 5 mg sub cut every 4 hr PRN severe pain
Rationale:
b. The nurse should identify this entry as the correct format for the MAR. The medication name
is spelled out and there are not any abbreviations from The Joint Commission's "Do Not Use" list
included in the transcription.
a. The use of the abbreviation MSO4 is prohibited by The Joint Commission. The medication
name of morphine must be spelled out to reduce the risk for error.
c. The use of the abbreviations MSO4 and SQ are prohibited by The Joint Commission. The
abbreviation SQ can be mistaken for SL and, therefore, this route should be written as sub cut,
subq, or subcutaneously.
d. The trailing zero on 5.0 can be mistaken for 50 if the decimal point is missed. Therefore, the
dosage should be written as 5 mg without a trailing zero.
60) A nurse is caring for a pt who received 0.9% Sodium Chloride 1L over 4 hours instead of
over 8 hours as prescribed. Which of the following information should the nurse enter as a
complete documentation of the incident?
a. IV fluid infused over 4 hr instead of the prescribed 8 hr. Client tolerated fluids well, provider
notified.
b. 0.9% sodium chloride 1 L IV infused over 4 hr. Vital signs stable, provider notified.
c. 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride completed at 0900. Client denies shortness of breath.
d. IV fluid initiated at 0500. Lungs clear to auscultation.
Answer: b. 0.9% sodium chloride 1 L IV infused over 4 hr. Vital signs stable, provider notified.
Rationale:
b. The nurse should document the type and amount of fluid, how long it took to infuse, provider
notification, and the client's physical status.
a. The nurse should only chart factual information in the client's medical record without
indicating the error that occurred.
c. This documentation is not complete because it does not include the amount of fluid that was
infused over the amount of time.
d. This documentation is not complete because it does not include the amount of fluid that was
infused over the amount of time.
