WALDEN UNIVERSITY|NURS 6552 WOMEN’S HEALTH FINAL
NURS 6552 WOMEN’S HEALTH FINAL EXAM
EXAM ELABORATIONS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. In a woman who is 20 weeks pregnant, the fundus is typically the same height as:
A. The symphysis pubis.
B. The umbilicus
C. The xiphoid process.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B. The umbilicus
2. The following are risk factors for breast cancer except:
A. Menarche after the age of 12
B. Nulliparity
C. Menopause at age 55 years or older
D. First full-term pregnancy after age 30.
Answer: B. Nulliparity
3. Your patient is pregnant and has three cats. You educate her that she should have someone
else clean the litter box as there is an infection that can spread through cat faces that can be
harmful to the unborn baby. The infection is called:
A. E. Coli
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Cat-scratch fever.
D. Tetanus
Answer: B. Toxoplasmosis
4. All of the following are disadvantages of Combined Oral Contraceptives except:
A. The need for daily pill taking
B. The ongoing cost of the method for some individuals.
C. Side effects for some women
D. Reduction in the risk of some types of cancer.
Answer: D. Reduction in the risk of some types of cancer.
5. With irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), typically defecation:
A. Makes the pain more intense.
B. Provides relief from the Pain.
C. Makes no difference in the pain.
D. Causes intense cramping.
Answer: D. Causes intense cramping.
6. The Tanner scale divides sexual physical maturity into ________ stages
A. Three
B. Five
C. Seven
D. Nine
Answer: B. Five
7. Nonlatex condoms:
A. Fit tighter on the penis than latex condoms
B. Come in a variety of colors
C. Have an increased risk of breakage or slippage during intercourse than latex condom.
D. Lead to a greater incidence of allergies than latex condoms
Answer: C. Have an increased risk of breakage or slippage during intercourse than latex
condom.
8. A potentially toxic environmental substance is lead. In pregnancy, lead is a neurotoxin and
can cause learning deficits and developmental delays. Lead is found in all of the following
except:
A. Fish
B. Older homes with lead paint.
C. Certain types of pottery
D. Some stained glass
Answer: A. Fish
9. Prior to giving semen for an analysis, a male should be abstinent for:
A. 24test hours prior to the.
B. 2-5test days prior to the.
C. 2test weeks prior to the.
D. None of the above
Answer: B. 2-5test days prior to the.
10. When medical therapy for heavy menstrual bleeding occurs, the following surgical
management option(s) are available:
A. Dilation and curettage
B. Endometrial ablation
C. Uterine artery embolization.
D. Hysterectomy
E. A , B, and D
F. A, B, C, and D
Answer: F. A, B, C, and D
11. All of the following are risk factors for fetal genetic or development abnormalities in
maternal, paternal, and family history except:
A. Maternal age equal or greater than 30 years.
B. Mother and father related by blood
C. Maternal exposure to toxins
D. Congenital blindness or deafness
Answer: A. Maternal age equal or greater than 30 years.
12. During pregnancy, blood volume:
A. Remains the same as pre-pregnant amounts.
B. Increases by 10%
C. Increases by 30-50%
D. Decreases by 20%
Answer: C. Increases by 30-50%
13. A. complete male evaluation usually includes:
A. Two semen analyses, approximately one hour apart.
B. Two semen analyses, approximately one month apart.
C. One complete semen analysis
D. A fractionated semen analysis
Answer: B. Two semen analyses, approximately one month apart.
14. Maura is pregnant and comes in for a visit. She tells you that she has never had chicken
pox and is wanting to know if she should get the varicella vaccine today. You let her know
that:
A. It is very important that she receive this vaccine today because you do not want her to get
chicken pox while she is pregnant.
B. She should not get the vaccine today as it is contraindicated in pregnancy.
C. Most health care providers leave it up to the patient and you are willing to do whatever she
requests.
D. Adults never need this vaccine.
Answer: B. She should not get the vaccine today as it is contraindicated in pregnancy.
15. The following gonadotropins are responsible for regulating gynaecologic organ activities.
A. Testosterone and androgen.
B. FSH and progesterone
C. FSH and LH
D. LH and prolactin
Answer: C. FSH and LH
16. Clara is a 67-year-old female who comes in requesting a pap smear. In gathering her
history, she tells you all of her pap smear have been normal. Her last pap smear was at age
64.
A. You tell her you are pleased she remembered this important test and proceed with the pap
smear.
B. You tell her that she hasn’t really needed to have a pap smear since age 50.
C. You explain to her that this is important, and you also need to test for HPV.
D. You explain to her that the USPTF and ASCCP recommend that in a woman with a history
of negative pap smears, the test can be discontinued at age 65
Answer: D. You explain to her that the USPTF and ASCCP recommend that in a woman with
a history of negative pap smears, the test can be discontinued at age 65
17. Paula is 30 weeks pregnant and is in your office today. She is very concerned about her
stretch marks. She wants to know if there is anything, she can put on them to make them go
away. She has seen a few products on infomercials and wonders if they work. You tell her:
A. There are a few products on the market which have proven to be very helpful in making
stretch marks disappear.
B. Despite advertiser’s claims, there is no magic cream to prevent them or make them go
away.
C. Watching weight gain and eating nutritiously can help decrease their number and severity
D. B and C
Answer: D. B and C
18. All of the following are barrier methods of contraception except
A. Male condom
B. Female condom.
C. Diaphragm
D. Coitus interruptus.
Answer: D. Coitus interruptus.
19. The following are risk factors associated with acquiring HPV except:
A. Nulliparity
B. Early age at first intercourse.
C. Having multiple sexual partners.
D. Smoking
Answer: A. Nulliparity
20. When the cervix softens in pregnancy, this is called:
A. Goodell’s sign.
B. Cervical lip sign.
C. Mucus plug sign.
D. Vulvar sign
Answer: A. Goodell’s sign.
21. The following vaccine(s) is/are contraindicated in pregnancy:
A. MMR
B. Varicella
C. Tdap
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C
Answer: D. A and B
22. When presenting the laboratory tests that should be performed during the pregnancy it is
important to let the woman know:
A. She must have all the recommended tests done or it can be considered child abuse.
B. She is required to have all tests done, except for the HIV test
C. She can “opt out” of any test
D. She should make sure that her partner signs the consent for all the tests done..
Answer: C. She can “opt out” of any test
23. During the second trimester, a test that is offered is the alpha-fetoprotein test. This test
indicates:
A. If the woman will go to full term
B. If the heart has any defects
C. Whether the fetal neural tube has properly fused.
D. If the fetus is living.
Answer: C. Whether the fetal neural tube has properly fused.
24. Taylor just found out she is pregnant. She has irregular periods so she is not exactly sure
how far along she is, but she thinks it is pretty early. She asks you about an ultrasound to find
out how many weeks she is. You tell her that:
A. Early in the pregnancy is ideal because the ultrasound dating is more accurate than later in
the pregnancy.
B She should wait a couple of months as ultrasound dating is most accurate in the second
trimester of pregnancy.
C. An ultrasound really won’t be able to tell her that information
D. An ultrasound is contraindicated this early in the pregnancy
Answer: A. Early in the pregnancy is ideal because the ultrasound dating is more accurate
than later in the pregnancy.
25. With prepackaged lunch meat, hot dogs, pate, and meat spreads there is an increased risk
of:
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Listeriosis
D. Coliform bacteria.
Answer: C. Listeriosis
26. It is believed that women acquire most of their bone mass
A. As infants
B. In early adolescence.
C. In their 20’s
D. In their 50’s
Answer: B. In early adolescence.
27. Emergency contraception
A. Can be used as an ongoing method of contraception.
B. Provides STI protection
C. Is the only method that can be used after intercourse.
D. Is available by prescription only
Answer: C. Is the only method that can be used after intercourse.
28. Contractions that may occur in early pregnancy are called:
A. Souffle contractions
B. Chadwick contractions
C. Uteroplacental contractions.
D. Braxton-Hicks contractions.
Answer: D. Braxton-Hicks contractions.
29. Ibandronate (Boniva, a medication for osteoporosis, can be administered:
A. Orally
B. Through an IM injection.
C. Intravenously
D. A and C
E A, B, and C
Answer: D. A and C
30. Progestin-only contraceptives are generally considered safer for women who:
A. Have a diagnosis of Diabetes.
B. Experience Migraines with aura
C. Are 15 or younger
D. Are healthy and fit
Answer: B. Experience Migraines with aura
31. The following are foods to avoid during pregnancy except:
A. Soy products
B. Unpasteurized milk.
C. Raw eggs
D. Raw alfalfa sprouts.
Answer: A. Soy products
32. A generic prenatal vitamin supplement should be prescribed and should include:
A. Iron, folic acid, and vitamins
B. Mercury, folic acid, and vitamins
C. Vitamins only with no other supplements.
D Iron and Vitamins with no other supplements.
Answer: A. Iron, folic acid, and vitamins
33. When using FIGO staging for cancer of the ovary, fallopian tube, and peritoneum, Stage I
means:
A. The tumor is confined to the ovaries or fallopian tube(s).
B. The tumor involves one or both ovaries or fallopian tubes with pelvic extension or primary
peritoneal cancer.
C. The tumor involves one or both ovaries or fallopian tubes, or primary peritoneal cancer,
with cytologically and histologically confirmed spread to the peritoneum outside the pelvis
and/or metastasis to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes, and pelvis; has extended to bowel,
peritoneum, or lymph nodes
D. Distant metastasis excluding peritoneal metastasis.
Answer: A. The tumor is confined to the ovaries or fallopian tube(s).
34. When discussing contraception, LARC stands for:
A. Less aggressive reversible contraception.
B. Long awaited reversible contraception.
C. Long acting reversible contraception.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C. Long acting reversible contraception.
35. Women who have a history of immediate hypersensitivity to __________ should not
receive the 4-valent or 9-valent HPV series.
A. Milk products.
B. Eggs.
C. Cats.
D. Yeast.
Answer: D. Yeast.
36. Transvaginal ultrasound can provide information about pregnancy viability _______
weeks after the LMP.
A. 1-2.
B. 4.
C. 6.
D. 12.
Answer: B. 4.
37. The HPV vaccine is contraindicated in:
A. Pregnancy.
B. Breastfeeding.
C. Males.
D. A and B.
E A, B, and C.
Answer: A. Pregnancy.
38. Blood serum pregnancy tests can detect the presence of HCG ________ days after
fertilization.
A. 24hours.
B. 1-3days.
C. 3-5days.
D. 8-10days.
Answer: D. 8-10days.
39. The following is/are absolute contraindication(s) to estrogen use:
A. Known or suspected cancer of the breast.
B. History of biliary tract disorder.
C. History of uterine or ovarian cancer.
D. A and C.
E. A, B, and C.
Answer: E. A, B, and C.
40. The standard treatment for patients with vulvar cancer regardless of the stage of the
disease is:
A. Laser treatment.
B. Cryosurgery.
C. Surgical resection.
D. Topical medication.
Answer: A. Laser treatment.
41. In a male, the urethra carries ___________through the penis.
A. Urine.
B. Semen.
C. Testosterone
D. A and B.
E. A, B, and C.
Answer: D. A and B.
42. When using the TNM system for staging cancers, the letters stand for:
A. Tumor, nodes, melanoma.
B. Tumor, nodes, metastasis.
C. Tension, number, metastasis.
D. Tumor, number, metastasis.
Answer: B. Tumor, nodes, metastasis.
43. The bluish hue that the cervix takes on during pregnancy is called:
A. Goodell’s sign.
B. Baby Blues sign.
C. Cervical ripening sign.
D. Chadwick’s sign.
Answer: D. Chadwick’s sign.
44. Paula also asks you about the dark line that starts at her sternal notch and goes down
toward the genitalia vertically. You tell her that is called _________ and that is normal in
pregnancy and may appear due to increasing levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone.
A. Linea alba.
B. Striae gravidarum.
C. Linea nigra.
D. Melanin.
Answer: C. Linea nigra.
45. Laboratory testing that might be indicated to rule out vaginal discharge include:
A. STI testing.
B. Wet Mount
C. Endocervical curettage.
D. A and B.
E A, B, and C.
Answer: D. A and B.
46. Ectopic pregnancy involves a pregnancy that implants:
A. Outside of the uterus.
B. In the uterus.
C. Through in vitro fertilization.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A. Outside of the uterus.
47. The following are warning signs of pregnancy except:
A. Bleeding more than light spotting.
B. Severe abdominal pain
C. Extreme nausea and vomiting.
D. Braxton-Hicks contractions.
Answer: D. Braxton-Hicks contractions.
48. Menarche usually occurs between the ages of:
A. 9-11.
B. 11-. 12
C. 12-15.
D. 13-17.
Answer: C. 12-15.
49. The current FDA approval limit for the copper IUD is:
A. 3years.
B. 5years.
C. 7years.
D. 10years.
Answer: D. 10years.
50. When a woman is pregnant and calculating the last menstrual period (LMP), it should be
counted from:
A. The first day of the last period.
B. The last day of the last period.
C. The middle of the last period.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A. The first day of the last period.
51. The most frequent causal finding(s) on laparoscopy for chronic pelvic pain is/are:
A. Endometriosis.
B. Adhesions
C.. Absence of pathologic condition.
D. A and B.
E. A, B, and C.
Answer: D. A and B.
52. Annabelle is a 17-year-old who came in to see you because she is concerned about a
“lump” in her right breast. She first noticed it about a month ago and it has not changed in
size since then. On exam you note the mass to be about 2 cm in diameter at about 7:00 on her
breast. It feels well-delineated and is freely mobile. There is no nipple discharge. You decide
to proceed with imaging. The best diagnostic imaging test for this patient would be:
A. MRI.
B. Diagnostic mammography.
C. Ultrasound.
D. CT scan.
Answer: C. Ultrasound.
53. The following is a type of permanent contraception:
A. Hysteroscopy.
B. Vasectomy.
C. DMPA injections.
D. Emergency contraception.
Answer: A. Hysteroscopy.
54. Fetal heart tones can typically be initially heard with a handheld doppler by:
A. 6-8 pregnancy weeks of.
B. 10-12 pregnancy weeks of.
C. 14-16 pregnancy weeks of.
D. 20-24 pregnancy weeks of.
Answer: B. 10-12 pregnancy weeks of.
55. When performing a semen analysis, the following is/are measured:
A. Semen volume.
B. Total motility.
C. pH.
D. A and B.
E. A, B, and C.
Answer: D. A and B.
56. A woman with a normal BMI of 18.5-24.9 should ideally gain ____________ pounds
during pregnancy.
A. 11-20.
B. 15-25.
C. 25-35.
D. 28-40.
Answer: C. 25-35.
57. The following are LARC methods of contraception except:
A. Mirena.
B. Nexplanon.
C. Liletta.
D. Oral contraceptives.
Answer: D. Oral contraceptives.
58. Men have little or no measurable decline in fertility before age:
A. 35 to 40
B. 45 to 50
C. 55 to 60
D. 65 to 70
Answer: C. 55 to 60
59. The gold standard for assessing uterine bleeding and diagnosing endometrial cancer is:
A. Endometrial biopsy.
B. Transvaginal ultrasound.
C. Dilation and curettage.
D. CA-125 levels.
Answer: A. Endometrial biopsy.
60. The following are presumptive signs of pregnancy except:
A. Urinary frequency.
B. Nausea and vomiting.
C. Fatigue.
D. Nipple lightening.
Answer: D. Nipple lightening.
61. The vaginal ring (Nuva ring) is:
A. Replaced on a weekly basis.
B. Left in place for 21 days and then removed for a week.
C. Replaced on a monthly basis.
D. Placed in the vagina at least 2 hours prior to intercourse and removed at least 6 hours after
intercourse.
Answer: B. Left in place for 21 days and then removed for a week.
62. DMPA should be administered:
A. Every 4 weeks.
B. Every 9 weeks.
C. Every 13 weeks.
D. Every 24 weeks.
Answer: C. Every 13 weeks.
63. Sometime in the last month of pregnancy, the fundal height drops slightly. This is called:
A. Lightening.
B. Flexing.
C. Pubic cradling.
D. Hegar’s sign.
Answer: A. Lightening.
64. When assessing fetal heart tones with the doppler, the normal range is:
A. 60-80 BPM.
B. 100-120 BPM.
C. 120-160 BPM.
D. 160-200 BPM.
Answer: C. 120-160 BPM.
65. The quadrivalent HPV vaccine protects against HPV genotypes
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4.
B. A, X, C, F.
C. 6. 11, 16, 18.
D. Beta, magda, gamma, andsigma.
Answer: C. 6. 11, 16, 18.
66. When a woman is lying down, it is best to lie _____________ to avoid hypotension and
potential syncope.
A. In a supine position.
B. On her left side.
C. On her right side.
D. Face down.
Answer: B. On her left side.
67. In a patient with irritable bowel syndrome, a diet that eliminates ___________ is
recommended.
A. Fat.
B. Carbohydrates.
C. Protein.
D. Purine.
Answer: A. Fat.
68. To reduce risk of illness during pregnancy, fish and shellfish should be:
A. Served raw.
B. Cooked thoroughly.
C. Served at every meal.
D. Encouraged as often as possible.
Answer: B. Cooked thoroughly.
69. The following is/are types of assisted reproductive technology:
A. IVF.
B. GIFT.
C. ZIFT.
D. A and B.
E. A, B, and C.
Answer: E. A, B, and C.
70. Urine pregnancy tests are considered to be:
A. Reliable.
B. Unreliable.
C. Expensive.
D. Invasive.
Answer: A. Reliable.
71. The following routines can help with sleep patterns:
A. Taking a warm bath.
B. Exercising
C. Changing into sleepwear.
D. A and C.
E. A, B, and C.
Answer: E. A, B, and C.
72. Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) is widely known as:
A. Mirena.
B. Depo-Provera.
C. Mini-pill.
D. Nexplanon.
Answer: B. Depo-Provera.
73. Lauren comes into your office stating she thinks she might be pregnant. She missed a
period and her breasts are tender. She has also been feeling a little nauseous. On gathering her
history, she tells you her LMP was 6/14/2020 and that her periods are very regular on a 28
day cycle. You do a urine HCG and it is positive. Using Nagele’s rule, calculate her estimated
due date.
A. 31/15/202.
B. 31/19/202.
C. 31/21/202.
D. 31/28/202.
Answer: C. 31/21/202.
74. The following are preventive factors for the development of ovarian cancer:
A. Pregnancy resulting in at least one full-term birth.
B. Factors that inhibit ovulation.
C. Breastfeeding.
D. A and C.
E. A, B, and C.
Answer: E. A, B, and C.
75. When using the Bethesda system to categorize epithelial cell abnormalities on pap smear,
the term used when squamous cells do not appear completely normal, but it is not possible to
determine the cause of the abnormal cells is;
A. ASC-H.
B. ASC-US.
C. HSIL.
D. LSIL.
Answer: B. ASC-US.
76. As women age, adipose tissue is redistributed and begins to accumulate in the:
A. Hips and thighs.
B. Breasts.
C. Waist.
D. Triceps area.
Answer: C. Waist.
77. The three trisomies for which testing is offered during the second trimester are:
A. 13. 18, 21
B. 16, 19, 21
C. 3, 9, 19.
D. 16, 21, 22
Answer: A. 13. 18, 21
78. WIC is a federally operated assistance program that also offers dietary counseling and
provides vouchers for healthy foods for women living at or below 185% of the poverty level.
WIC stands for:
A. Women in Care.
B. Why I Care
C. Women, Infants, and Children.
D Wonderful Infants and Children.
Answer: C. Women, Infants, and Children.
79. While there is no conclusive data on safe doses, caffeine intake during pregnancy should
be limited to approximately ____________ mg daily.
A. 50.
B. 100.
C. 200.
D. 400.
C. 200.
Answer: C. 200.
80. When taking alendronate (Fosamax) for postmenopausal osteoporosis,
A. It should always be taken with food.
B. It should be taken first think in the morning on an empty stomach.
C. It should be taken with an 8 oz glass of water.
D. B and C.
Answer: D. B and C.
81. Progestin-only methods are:
A. Likely to improve menstrual symptoms.
B. Unlikely to ever cause breakthrough bleeding.
C. A and B.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A. Likely to improve menstrual symptoms.
82. HIV can be spread through:
A. Skin-to-skin genital contact.
B. Only through actual intercourse.
C. The air as it is an airborne virus.
D. Dirty needles.
Answer: A. Skin-to-skin genital contact.
83. The copper IUD is a T shaped device and
A. Is made entirely of copper.
B. Is made of polyethylene with copper wire around the stem and arms.
C. Releases hormones from the copper to help prevent pregnancy.
D. Does not really have copper; it is just called the copper IUD.
Answer: B. Is made of polyethylene with copper wire around the stem and arms.
84. Urogenital changes that can occur with menopause include:
A. Vaginal dryness.
B. Dyspareunia.
C. Urinary incontinence.
D. A and C.
E. A, B, and C.
Answer: E. A, B, and C.
85. All women should be offered testing for cystic fibrosis carrier status during pregnancy.
This test should be done:
A. Only once in a lifetime, as the status will not change.
B. With every pregnancy that results in a live birth.
C. With every pregnancy, including those that do not result in a live birth.
D. Every five years.
Answer: C. With every pregnancy, including those that do not result in a live birth.
86. If a pregnant woman has traveled to areas where tuberculosis is common and is at risk,
she should:
A. Take preventive medication.
B. Have a tuberculin skin test.
C. Terminate the pregnancy.
D. Be aware that the baby may be born with an aortic valve disorder.
Answer: B. Have a tuberculin skin test.
87. Physiologic methods of contraception include:
A. Abstinence.
B. Coitus interruptus.
C. Lactational amenorrhea method.
D. B and C.
E. A, B, and C.
Answer: E. A, B, and C.
88. The following are differential diagnoses for pelvic pain that are of gynecologic origin
except:
A. Interstitial cystitis.
B. Mittelschmerz.
C. Fibroids.
D. Uterine prolapse.
Answer: A. Interstitial cystitis.
89. Advantages off the Lactational Amenorrhea method include all of the following except:
A. It is readily available
B It can be used immediately postpartum.
C. It is free.
D. It is the most effective method of birth control.
Answer: D. It is the most effective method of birth control.
90. The majority of vulvar malignancies are:
A. Squamous cell carcinomas.
B. Basal cell carcinomas.
C. Adenocarcinomas.
D. Malignant melanomas.
Answer: A. Squamous cell carcinomas.
91. Osteoporosis is characterized by:
A. Low bone mass.
B. Deterioration of bone tissue.
C. Disruption of bone architecture.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D. All of the above.
92. Ovarian reserve testing assesses a woman’s reproductive potential by:
A. Measuring the quality of her remaining oocytes.
B. Measuring the quantity of her remaining oocytes.
C. Assessing the color and motility of her remaining oocytes.
D. A and B.
E. A, B, and C.
Answer: D. A and B.
93. In the case that a biopsy has been recommended for a palpable breast mass, the procedure
would most typically be:
A. A fine-needle aspiration biopsy..
B. An MRI-guided needle biopsy..
C. An excisional breast biopsy..
D. None of the above..
Answer: A. A fine-needle aspiration biopsy..
94. The greatest risk factor for ovarian cancer is:
A. Smoking
B Family history of ovarian cancer in a first-degree relative.
C. BRCA-1 mutation.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C. BRCA-1 mutation.
95. Carcinoma of the vulva is most often seen in women who are:
A. Under the age of 30.
B. Pre-menopausal.
C. Post-menopausal
D Actively going through menopause.
Answer: C. Post-menopausal
96. The number one cause of mortality for both women and men in the United States is:
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B Cardiovascular disease.
C. Bone cancer.
D. Dementia.
Answer: B Cardiovascular disease.
97. Pelvic adhesions can be caused by:
A. Previous surgeries.
B. Infection.
C. Endometriosis.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D. All of the above.
98. To reduce the discomfort of hot flashes with menopause, recommendation include:
A. Wearing breathable fabrics.
B. Wearing silk and polyester
C. Avoiding a fan as it makes the hot flashes worse.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A. Wearing breathable fabrics.
99. The progestin implant is ____________ inserted into the upper arm.
A. A single rod.
B. Two rods.
C. 6 rods
D None of the above.
Answer: A. A single rod.
