NUR 2063 Essentials of Pathophysiology module 04 Exam 1 (31 questions)
Question 1
Which condition is caused by excessive growth hormone (GH) levels in adulthood?
A. Gigantism
B. Acromegaly
C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
D. Dwarfism
Answer: B. Acromegaly
Question 2
Diabetes insipidus is caused by which of the following?
A. lack of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin
B. Too much production of insulin
C. Too little antidiuretic hormone production
D. To little production of insulin
Answer: A. lack of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin
Question 3
Which process describes a form of cell division occurring only in mature sperm and ova?
A. Proliferation
B. Mitosis
C. Meiosis
D. Differentiation
Answer: C. Meiosis
Question 4
Which of the following causes inflammation of the vagina in copious foul smelling and yellow
vaginal discharge
A. Candidiasis
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Gonorrhoea
D. Syphilis
Answer: B. Trichomoniasis
Question 5
Which of the following are common early signs of acute prostatitis?
A. Mild fever, vomiting and leukopenia
B. Hesitancy and increased urinary output
C. Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria
D. A hard nodule in the gland and pelvic pain
Answer: C. Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria
Question 6
Which of the following would cause a client to experience gout?
A. Overproduction of uric acid
B. Decreased presence of serotonin receptors
C. Increased ammonia intake
D. Decreased calcium intake
Answer: A. Overproduction of uric acid
Question 7
Which condition is a cause of rickets
A. Vitamin D deficiency
B. Calcium excess
C. Phosphate deficiency
D. Vitamin D excess
Answer: A. Vitamin D deficiency
Question 8
Which is the best way to prevent transmission of infectious agents?
A. Call the practitioner of herbal supplements
B. Wash hands
C. Avoid public areas as much as possible
D Take antibiotics daily
Answer: B. Wash hands
Question 9
Which of the following is a systemic effect from an inflammatory response
A. Redness and swelling
B. Blisters
C. Elevated temperature
D. Pus
Answer: C. Elevated temperature
Question 10
Frequent respiratory infections steatorrhea and digital clubbing are clinical manifestations of which
condition?
A. Acute respiratory failure (ARF)
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Emphysema
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Answer: B. Cystic fibrosis
Question 11
Which of the following is true about Hypoventilation?
A. The amount air entering the alveoli increases
B. It is a normal response to high altitude
C. Hypocapnia occurs
D. The PaCO2 exceeds 45 mm hg
Answer: D. The PaCO2 exceeds 45 mm hg
Question 12
Which of the following describes how the body compensates for metabolic acidosis?
A. Decreasing respirations
B. Increasing bicarbonate ion excretion through urination
C. Increasing respirations
D. Hypoventilation
Answer: C. Increasing respirations
Question 13
An otherwise healthy client has pneumonia. Which of the following should the nurse complete?
A. Empty the urinary catheter
B. Administer the antibiotic
C. Determine the respiratory rate
D. Auscultate bowel sounds
Answer: C. Determine the respiratory rate
Question 14
Laryngotracheobronchitis also known as croup manifests as which of the following
A. Drooling and difficulty swallowing
B. Hoarse voice and barking cough
C. Wheezing and dyspnea
D. Sore and scratchy throat with fever
Answer: B. Hoarse voice and barking cough
Question 15
A. client presents with the following arterial gas results pH=7.30, PaCO2 = 55 mm hg this would be
classified as which acid/bases imbalance
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Answer: A. Respiratory acidosis
Question 16
Which as typical signs and symptoms of epiglottis?
A. Hyperinflation of the chest and nasal congestion
B. Hoarse voice and barking cough
C. Sneezing, mild cough and fever
D. Sudden fever, sore throat and drooling saliva
Answer: D. Sudden fever, sore throat and drooling saliva
Question 17
A. nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of respiratory alkalosis. Which pH finding would be
consistent with the diagnosis?
A. 7.35
B. 7.49
C. 7.29
D. 7.45
Answer: B. 7.49
Question 18
The client with papillomavirus human is at risk of which type of cancer
A. Pancreatic cancer
B. Stomach cancer
C. Lung cancer
D. Cervical cancer
Answer: D. Cervical cancer
Question 19
Which of the following is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis
A. Escherichia coli
B. staphylococcus
C. pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Answer: A. Escherichia coli
Question 20
Which of the following is not a function of the human kidney
A. Production of albumin
B. Activation of vitamin D
C. Removal of nitrogenous and acidic wastes
D. Regulation of body fluid and concentrations
Answer: A. Production of albumin
Question 21
Which component is most often associated with the formation of renal calcium
A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. Uric acid
D. Cysteine
Answer: B. Calcium
Question 22
A. nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of fibromyalgia. Which of the following with nurse
expected to observe in this individual
A. Altered nutrition
B. Bladder incontinence
C. Impaired skin integrity
D. Fatigue
Answer: D. Fatigue
Question 23
A. nurse is reviewing the difference between rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and osteoarthritis
(OA).Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding (OA) and (RA)
A. RA is an inflammatory joint disorder while OA is degenerative joint disorder
B. The disease pattern of RA is unilateral and affects a single joint whereas OA is bilateral
symmetric and in multiple joints
C. The typical onset of RA is between 35 and 45 years of age, where the typical onset of OA is ins
clients older than the age of 60 yrs
D. The risk factors or causes of RA are probably autoimmune, whereas OA may be caused by age,
obesity, trauma and occupation
Answer: B. The disease pattern of RA is unilateral and affects a single joint whereas OA is bilateral
symmetric and in multiple joints
Question 24
Which conditions refer to death of bone tissue due to a loss of blood supply to that tissue?
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Osteoporosis
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
D. Osteonecrosis
Answer: D. Osteonecrosis
Question 25
Which are the initial clinical manifestations noted immediately after a spinal cord injury?
A. Hypertension, neurogenic shock and tachycardia
B. Loss of deep tendon reflexes and flaccid paralysis
C. Headache, bradycardia and elevated blood pressure
D. Confusion, irritability and retrograde amnesia
Answer: B. Loss of deep tendon reflexes and flaccid paralysis
Question 26
Upon delivery an infant presents with a bulging fluid filled sac located at the base of the spine.
Based on the appearance the nurse suspects which of the following conditions
A. Spina bifida
B. Cerebral palsy
C. Meningitis
D. Hydrocephalus
Answer: A. Spina bifida
Question 27
Which is the most sensitive indicator of altered brain function ?
A. The lack of cerebrospinal fluid production
B. Altered level of consciousness
C. Intact cranial functions
D. The ability to perform complete mathematics
Answer: B. Altered level of consciousness
Question 28
A. client who has sustained a cervical spinal injury 2 days ago suddenly develops severe
hypertension and bradycardia. The client reports severe head pain and blurred vision, what are the
most likely cause for these clinical manifestations
A. Developing autonomic dysreflexia
B. Experiencing parasympathetic areflexia
C. Developing spinal shock
D. Experiencing acute anxiety
Answer: A. Developing autonomic dysreflexia
Question 29
Loss of motor and sensory control of the trunk of the body and lower extremities are a result of
spinal cord injury describes which of the following?
A. Paraplegia
B. Degenerative disk disease
C. Quadriplegia
D. Peripheral neuritis
Answer: A. Paraplegia
Question 30
The nurse teaches the family of a client with a concussion to return to the emergency room if
headache vomiting or blurred vision occurs. What may these symptoms indicate?
A. Increased intracranial pressure
B. Increased ocular pressure
C. Modulated kidney function
D. Decreased neck support
Answer: A. Increased intracranial pressure
Question 31
A. child diagnosed with cerebral palsy presents to the paediatric clinic for checkup. Based on the
diagnosis the nurse would expect to see which of the following clinical manifestations
A. An unusually enlarged head with bulging fontanelles
B. Spacity and excessive drooling
C. Fever and neck stiffness
D. a bulging fluid filled sac located at the base of the spine
Answer: B. Spacity and excessive drooling
