This Document Contains Chapters 9 to 16 Chapter 9 Perception and Attribution Workbook Exam and Review Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is not a step in the processing of stimuli during perception? a. selection b. organization c. evaluation d. synthesis e. none of the above—all are correct 2. If you and your neighbor, who belongs to a different political party, both listen to the same presidential debate but come away with opposite conclusions about who won the debate, which of the following would be the best hypothesis to explain this? a. central tendency b. distinctiveness c. projected similarity d. selective attention e. self-serving bias 3. Which of these is not an internal factor that affects perception? a. motives b. salience c. attitudes d. expectations e. none of the above 4. Which of the following is not one of the external factors that influence what we perceive? a. novelty b. intensity c. temperature d. salience e. motion 5. The quadrant of the Johari Window characterized by information known by the self and unknown to the other is called the _____. a. façade b. arena c. blindspot d. unknown e. none of the above 6. Which of the following is not true? a. Perception relates to stereotyping and how we attribute behavior or attitudes to others. b. The drawbacks to perception are that it prevents us from taking in everything we should and makes our interpretations open to question. c. Another drawback is that perception limits stimuli subconsciously d. There are numerous perceptual distortions one should try to avoid. e. none of the above 7. _____ are cognitive frameworks that represent organized knowledge about a given concept, event, or type of stimulus. a. Projected similarities b. Schemas c. Attributions d. Social identities e. none of the above 8. Good communication is most likely to occur when which of the four quadrants is the largest? a. unknown b. facade c. blindspot d. arena e. none of the above 9. According to attribution theory, if several subordinates agree that their boss does not know how to delegate, what type of information would we be using to explain what caused one of them to complain about him? a. consensus b. distinctiveness c. fundamental attribution error d. consistency e. none of the above 10. Which of the following statements describes the extent to which a person behaves I the same way in other contexts in attribution theory? a. distinctiveness b. consistency c. coherence d. consensus e. none of the above 11. The most important lesson to be learned about perception is that one’s perceptions are _____. a. seldom totally accurate b. able to respond to all of the quadrants of the Johari window c. always salient d. easily controlled e. none of the above 12. People who share a social identity are more likely to _____. a. distrust others with the same social identity b. share more information with others who have a different social identity c. perceive things similarly with others who share the same social identity d. cooperate less with others who share the same social identity e. all of the above 13. Which of the following are sources of misinterpretation in cross-cultural interactions? a. subconscious cultural blinders b. lack of cultural awareness c. projected similarity d. answer choices a, b and c e. none of the above 14. The D. I. E. model consists of _____. a. description, interpretation, evaluation b. description, internalization, evaluation c. discussion, interpretation, evaluation d. discussion, internalization, evolution e. design, interaction, elimination 15. A person acts consistently in the same way in different situations. According to attribution theory, you would most likely make what kind of attribution? a. external b. internal c. intermediate d. extreme e. none of the above 16. Which term refers to the tendency to perceive oneself and others in terms of social categories rather than as individuals? a. social comparison b. social identification c. social categorization d. social consensus e. none of the above 17. Which of the following is not a basis for social identity theory? a. social comparison b. social identification c. social integration d. social categorization e. none of the above True or False Questions 18. Once established, schemas determine what stimuli we attend to and remember. _____ True or _____ False? Why? True. These cognitive frameworks organize knowledge, so we are more likely to attend to stimuli that fits into already established schemas. 19. People evaluate and interpret stimuli in an objective fashion. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False. They do it in a subjective fashion. Short Answer Questions 20. _____ means that people do not see or hear all of the stimuli that are actually present. Selective attention 21. The _____ is the tendency for people to attribute their own successes to external factors while blaming external factors for their failures. self-serving bias 22. The _____ is the tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others. fundamental attribution error 23. _____ are cognitive frameworks that represent organized knowledge about a given concept, event, or type of stimulus. Schemas Essay Questions 24. Give an example that explains how internal factors affect what we perceive. "An employee's past experiences with deadlines might make them perceive a missed deadline as a personal failure, while someone else might see it as a minor setback, showing how internal factors like past experiences influence perception." 25. According to attribution theory, what is the difference between an internal cause and an external cause? Provide a behavioral example of each cause. Internal causes have to do with personal characteristics (intelligence, initiative, hard work, etc.). External causes are factors not under an individual’s control (demanding boss, too much work, interdepartmental problems, competitive industry, etc.); student examples. 26. Explain three perceptual distortions that can bias the evaluation process and define them. • Stereotyping - attributing behavior or attitudes to a person on the basis of the group or category to which the person belongs • Halo effect - our perception of another is dominated by only one trait • Central tendency - avoiding extreme judgments and rating everything as average • Contrast effects - evaluations are affected by comparisons with other people we have recently encountered who are better or worse in terms of this characteristic • Projection - tendency to attribute one’s own attitudes or feelings to another person • Self-fulfilling perceptual defenses - screens that block out what we do not wish to see and allow through stimuli that we wish to see Chapter 10 Group Dynamics and Work Teams Workbook Exam and Review Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. The impetus for incorporating teams into organizational structures is _____. a. speed b. increased complexity c. flexibility d. scale of organizational tasks e. all of the above 2. Which is not one of the “pure types” that represent the three different styles of reducing tension and expressing emotion? a. the friendly helper b. the devil’s advocate c. the logical thinker d. the tough battler e. none of the above 3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of self-managed work teams? a. they determine how they will accomplish their goals b. they are usually responsible for an entire process or product c. they are leaderless d. they often select their own members e. all of the above 4. A statement such as “It’s time we moved on to the next item,” is an example of which task behavior? a. seeking or giving information or opinions b. consensus testing c. initiating d. clarifying or elaborating e. none of the above 5. In order to succeed, teams require all of the following except _____. a. a common purpose b. a supportive environment c. policies that promote teamwork d. team members with teamwork skills e. general goals 6. When a group member asks, “Does anyone object?” this is an example of the _____ decision-making method? a. handclasp b. polling c. self-authorized agenda d. minority decision e. none of the above 7. When a group is focusing on work that must be done, this is an example of group _____. a. process b. communication c. content d. maintenance e. cohesion 8. Self-oriented behavior tends to be more prevalent _____. a. towards the end of the group b. when the group is focusing on task c. midway into the life of the group d. when a new member joins an established group e. none of the above 9. Which of the following are not task behaviors? a. initiating and seeking or giving information or opinions b. clarifying, elaborating, and summarizing c. encouraging, harmonizing, and compromising d. consensus testing and orienting e. none of the above 10. Which of the following is a component of team effectiveness? a. the productive output b. the social processes c. the learning and well-being of team members d. answer choices a and b e. answer choices a, b and c 11. Team members should be proficient in which of the following skills? a. collaborative problem-solving b. conflict resolution c. communication d. goal setting e. all of the above 12. A statement such as “Let’s give Amy a chance to voice her opinion” is an example of which maintenance behavior? a. gatekeeping b. standard setting c. smoothing d. reality testing e. none of the above 13. Group cohesion can be increased by _____. a. small size b. failure c. perceived dissimilarity among members d. making it easy to join the group e. none of the above 14. Team-building training includes which of the following? a. establishing goals and priorities b. defining member roles c. determining team procedures d. all of the above e. none of the above True or False Questions 15. Social identity refers to the perception of members as a set of unique individuals. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False. Social identity refers to the perception of members as a “group,” rather than as a set of unique individuals, and a shared (usually positive) image of the group. Short Answer Questions 16. The _____ role includes managing upward relationships, marketing the team, lobbying for resources, and managing the team reputation. ambassador 17. The _____ role includes gathering information in the organization, market, and industry; and managing lateral and downward searches. scout 18. _____ refers to the tendency to contribute less effort when working in groups than when working alone. Social loafing 19. _____ are unwritten, often implicit, rules that define the attitudes and behaviors that characterize good and bad group members. Norms Essay Questions 20. Briefly describe the well-known, five-stage model of group development. Give the name of the stage and explain what occurs in each stage. • Forming-meet, learn more about the group and each other, period of uncertainty • Storming¬-issues of control surface, tension is typical, group can polarize • Norming-members develop shared expectation about group roles and norms, members identify with the group • Performing-energy is focused on achieving goals, increased cohesion is developed • Adjourning-focus is on closure, often celebrate achievements 21. There are two types of group process. Identify both and explain how they differ. Task process focuses on how groups accomplish their work, including setting agendas, figuring out time frames, generating ideas, choosing techniques for making decisions and solving problems, and testing agreement. Maintenance process concerns how groups function with regard to meeting group members’ psychological and relationship needs, including issues such as leadership, membership, norms, communication, influence, conflict management, and dealing with difficult members and dysfunctional behaviors. 22. Describe as many conditions as possible that determine when a team should be used to make a decision. Teams should be used when: • Tasks are uncertain • Tasks are complex • Tasks are large • Input from multiple sources required • Members have task and interaction skills • Members are willing to devote effort to the group • The team supports organizational goals • The team has the resources and authority necessary to accomplish the task • The team has a common purpose and specific goals • The team has a sense of group efficacy 23. How can virtual teams be effectively managed? Be as comprehensive as possible in your answer and explain why each recommendation leads to effectiveness. • Begin with a face-to-face meeting to foster the development of trust among team members • Clarify team goals and team roles that are not in conflict with commitments to other work units • Designate a strong senior sponsor who protects the team and secures resources • Carefully implement efficient communication and collaboration processes that prevent misunderstandings and conflict escalation • Create experiences of interdependence within the team in order to compensate for feelings of disconnectedness, for instance via goal setting, task design, or team based incentives • Share measurement systems and metrics across sites-the more comprehensive, the more useful • Align incentive systems across subunits and recognize team level efforts • Create knowledge management systems such as a team intranet, archives, index, and templates • Develop appropriate “kick-off” workshops and a team training concepts to prepare and support the teams for the specific challenges of virtual teamwork 24. How can multicultural teams be effectively managed? Be as comprehensive as possible in your answer and explain why each recommendation leads to effectiveness. • Clearly define the team charter, outlining the scope of the project, the expected deliverables and the timeline • Overcome communication barriers by investing in language and cross-cultural training • Agree on norms of behavior to channel behavior correctly • Adopt data-driven decisions to avoid decision biases like premature closure • Develop alternatives to enrich the debate (e.g., dialectical thinking and devil’s advocates) • Rotate meeting locations to accommodate members’ needs • Cultivate a culture of trust so members can feel free to rely on one another • Schedule face-to-face meetings to build a solid foundation and perform periodic team maintenance • Rotate team leadership to give members opportunities to develop those skills • Link rewards to team performance to ensure appropriate cooperation • Build social capital in the organization by helping managers build social networks outside their units • Rotate personnel to different countries so they can understand members’ situations and cultures 25. There are four basic emotional causes of self-oriented behavior in groups. Identify the four causes. • The problem of identity • The problem of power and control • The problem of goals • The problem of acceptance and intimacy Chapter 11 Problem Solving Workbook Exam and Review Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. According to the textbook, problem solving proceeds _____. a. in wavelike expansions and contractions b. like a pendulum swings c. in a top-down fashion d. in a logical, linear fashion e. like a spiral 2. The dialectics of problem solving have been conceptualized in all of these ways except for _____. a. green light/red light b. doubting/believing c. analyzing/implementing d. divergence/convergence e. none of the above 3. The dialectical processes involved in the situation analysis phase of problem solving are _____. a. information gathering and problem solving b. action and doing c. visioning/exploration and priority setting d. participation and planning e. idea getting/decision making 4. The basic formula for getting to Six Sigma is _____. a. describe, measure, analyze, improve and control b. define, motivate, analyze, improve and control c. define, measure, analyze, improvise and control d. define, measure, analyze, improve and control e. none of the above 5. Which of the following is not one of the tasks of priority setting? a. brainstorming b. explore the current situation with regard to the features that facilitate and hinder goal achievement. c. test the feasibility of changing those features d. articulate reality-based goal statements that give substance to values and allow them to be realized e. none of the above 6. The dialectical processes involved in the problem analysis stage of the problem-solving process are _____. a. action and doing b. information gathering and problem definition c. valuing and priority setting d. participation and planning e. problem as given and solution chosen 7. The dialectical processes involved in the solution analysis stage of the problem-solving process are ______. a. information gathering and problem definition. b. action and doing c. valuing and priority setting d. idea getting and decision making e. problem as given and solution chosen 8. The dialectical processes involved in the implementation analysis stage of the problem solving process are _____. a. information gathering and problem definition b. idea getting and decision making c. valuing and priority setting d. participation and planning e. problem as given and solution chosen 9. A frequent error with brainstorming is _____. a. assuming there is more than one right answer b. selecting the first solution that arises and failing to consider alternatives c. continually searching for new and innovative ways to solve the problem d. banning evaluation to stimulate participation and creativity e. none of the above True or False Questions 10. Problem solving is a social process. _____ True or _____ False? Why? True. Problems are often solved in groups and other people make contributions to the solutions. Problem solving requires skills like communication, perception, creativity, conflict management and group and facilitation skills. Employees at all levels are more likely to be committed to implementing the solutions if they participated in the problem-solving process. 11. Problem solving is the responsibility of managers alone. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False. It has been delegated in many organizations to employees because this allows the organization to profit from their ideas and empowers them, gains their commitment to solutions, and develops their management skills. 12. Groups are used most appropriately to solve problems when the problems in question are simple. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False. Group problem solving is indicated when problems are complex. 13. The red mode mind-set refers to the expansion phases of problem solving, which is characterized by “believing”, and divergence. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False. This description pertains to the green mode. 14. Problem finding is equally as important as problem solving. _____ True or _____ False? Why? True. Managers have to see the right information out of a great deal of stimuli and form the problem. They have to see the opportunities in the situation. Short Answer Questions 15. In the _____, people refrain from doubting or evaluating and instead focus on possibilities and how an idea could work. believing game 16. _____ problems are novel and not covered by ready-made procedures for handling them. Unstructured 17. _____ is an intervention used in organizational development that focuses on the study and exploration of what gives life to human systems when they function at their best. Appreciative inquiry Essay Questions 18. Describe a problem-solving situation you have observed or experienced that did not go well. Use the course material to discuss the reasons why. Then describe what could have been done to make the problem solving process more effective. Situation: In a team project at work, we faced a problem when our marketing campaign failed to meet key performance indicators. The team leader, Sarah, called a meeting to address the issue but dominated the discussion, dismissing others’ input. Team members were reluctant to speak up, leading to a lack of diverse perspectives and a superficial analysis of the problem. The meeting concluded with a generic action plan that failed to address the root causes. Reasons for Failure: According to course material on problem-solving, the issues stemmed from ineffective group dynamics and poor facilitation. Sarah's dominant behavior stifled open communication and collaboration, preventing the team from exploring a range of solutions. Additionally, there was a lack of structured problem analysis, leading to an action plan that lacked specificity and depth. Improvements: To make the problem-solving process more effective, Sarah could have adopted a more inclusive approach, encouraging all team members to contribute their insights and suggestions. Implementing structured problem-solving techniques, such as root cause analysis and brainstorming, would help identify underlying issues and develop targeted solutions. Establishing a clear agenda and setting specific goals for the meeting would also improve focus and outcomes. 19. Why does effective problem solving involve two dialectically opposed mental orientations? Because the process is not simply logical and linear. It is characterized by wave-like expansions and contractions alternatively moving outwardly to gather and consider alternatives, information and ideas and inwardly to focus, evaluate and decide. If people relied solely on the red mode, they would leap too quickly to a solution, without considering all the possibilities, information and ideas. 20. What are the four stages of the problem-solving model? • Situation analysis • Problem analysis • Solution analysis • Implementation analysis 21. Identify the different management roles for the different stages of the problem-solving process. • Situation analysis = leader • Problem analysis = detective • Solution analysis = inventor • Implementation analysis = coordinator 22. Describe the 4D cycle of appreciative inquiry and explain what occurs in each stage. • Discover: appreciate what is • Dream: imagine what could be • Design: determine what should be • Destiny: create what will be Chapter 12 Managing Creativity Workbook Exam and Review Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is not a requirement of creativity? a. extrinsic rewards b. time c. hard work d. mental energy e. none of the above 2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of creative people? a. persistent b. concerned with achievement c. attracted to simplicity d. high energy e. love of their work 3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cognitive creativity skills? a. generate alternatives b. suspect judgment c. ability to think creatively d. engage in convergent thinking e. engage in divergent thinking 4. In the creative process, the stage in which the solution is tested by logic or experimentation and evaluated more rigorously to see whether it meets some standard of acceptability is _____. a. verification b. implementation c. preparation d. illumination e. incubation 5. Which of the following is not a rule for brainstorming? a. quantity b. building c. non-evaluation d. critical thinking e. expressiveness 6. In the creative process, the stage that involves gathering information and immersing oneself in all that is known about the problem is _____. a. verification b. preparation c. illumination d. incubation e. implementation 7. Which of the following is not a stage in the creative process? a. illumination b. implementation c. preparation d. incubation e. verification 8. Which of the following is not one of the ways that organizations can foster creativity? a. developmental feedback b. negative reinforcement for failure c. flexible, flat structures d. supportive climate e. productivity 9. Which of the following is not one of the categories of characteristics of creative people? a. personality traits b. intrinsic motivation c. cognitive creativity skills d. domain-specific knowledge e. stress management 10. When athletes and artists talk about a special pane where they perform well almost without conscious thought, they are referring to _____. a. autonomy b. productivity c. flow d. autodidactic experience e. developmental feedback 11. Which of the following is a creativity killer? a. limits set by superiors b. encourage risk taking c. clear organizational goals d. healthy competition e. none of the above 12. In the creative process, the stage that involves a flash of inspiration about the solution to a problem, often while engaged in an unrelated activity is _____. a. verification b. preparation c. illumination d. incubation e. implementation 13. In the creative process, the stage that involves reflective thought, where one’s subconscious mind continues to mull over the problem and combines unrelated thoughts is _____. a. verification b. preparation c. illumination d. incubation e. implementation 14. Which of the following is not a creativity killer? a. critical evaluation b. close, controlling supervision c. time pressure d. political problems e. supportive supervision 15. Which of the following is not a key element of flow? a. immediate feedback to one’s actions b. clear goals every step of the way c. concern about failure d. self-consciousness disappears e. sense of time is distorted True or False Questions 16. Creative people are motivated by intrinsic motivation so they should receive low salaries. _____ True or _____ False. Why? False. It’s true that they are motivated by intrinsic motivation, but that does not mean you should take advantage of them. They have to be paid equitably, like anyone else. 17. All over the world, creativity is found only in conjunction with participative leadership styles. _____ True or _____ False. Why? False. Although this is generally true, there are examples, as in Egypt, where creativity flourished despite more authoritarian leadership styles. Short Answer Questions 18. _____ is the development of ideas about products, practices, services, or procedures that are novel and potentially useful to the organization. Creativity 19. _____ is the implementation of new ideas at the individual, group, or organizational level. Innovation 20. _____ occurs when people experience a state of effortless concentration and enjoyment. Flow 21. _____ is a characteristic of creative people that is also influenced by organizational reactions to failure. Risk taking 22. What are the four ways in which domain-specific knowledge is developed? Education, training, experience and contextual knowledge. Essay Questions 23. Name three ways that creativity can be fostered at the organizational level (not by immediate managers). Hire a creative, diverse work force; design complex, challenging jobs; set clear goals; set creativity goals; instruct employees to be creative; provision of necessary resources; recognition and rewards for creativity; promote internal and external interaction; supportive climate; organizational culture that promotes innovation; flexible, flat structures; close interaction with customers─reasons given in text. 24. Distinguish between brainstorming and brainwriting. How are they different? Which is more effective? Brainstorming generates ideas in a group. Since individuals can sometimes produce better ideas than a brainstorming group, brainwriting was developed as a hybrid of both individual and group brainstorming. Brainwriting begins with a period in which individuals generate their own written ideas. Next, they are shared with a group, either face-to-face or via computer. The ideas are collected, categorized and evaluated. Brainwriting produces more ideas. Chapter 13 Conflict and Negotiation Workbook Exam and Review Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. The two axes of the Thomas conflicting handling modes are _____. a. cooperativeness and competitiveness b. cooperativeness and assertiveness c. assertiveness and competitiveness d. functional and dysfunctional e. none of the above 2. When the Sherifs used equal status contact and superordinate goals as techniques for reducing inter-group tensions in their experiment at Robbers Cave, _____. a. both techniques were successful b. superordinate goals worked; equal status contact didn’t work c. equal status contact worked; superordinate goals didn’t work d. neither technique worked e. a completely new technique was introduced 3. Which of the following is not typical of conflict situations involving groups? a. devaluation of one’s own group b. stereotyping of the opposing or competing group c. distortion of perceptions d. polarization on the issues e. escalation 4. Escalation of group conflict is characterized by all of the following except for _____. a. pursuing increasingly extreme demands or objectives b. using increasingly coercive tactics c. focusing intensely on the core issue under dispute d. enlisting other parties to take sides in the conflict e. answer a and d 5. Which of the following is not a result of dysfunctional conflict? a. reduced job satisfaction b. increased absenteeism c. lower morale d. answer choices a, b and c e. none of the above 6. Functional conflict does all of the following except for _____. a. forces us to articulate our views and positions b. makes the values and belief systems of the organization more visible c. serves as a safety valve to blow off steam d. makes it unnecessary to clarify organizational priorities e. answers a and b 7. The conflict-handling mode characterized by an “I lose-you win” orientation is known as _____. a. competition b. accommodation c. compromise d. avoidance e. none of the above 8. The phrase “winning the battle but losing the war” most accurately describes the gains and losses of which conflict-handling style? a. accommodation b. avoidance c. competition d. compromise e. none of the above 9. When an issue is trivial, or more important issues are pressing, an appropriate conflict handling style would be _____. a. accommodating b. compromising c. avoiding d. collaborating e. none of the above 10. Distributive bargaining is most closely related to _____. a. compromise b. accommodation c. collaboration d. competition e. all of the above 11. Which of the following statements about conflict is not true? a. it is easier to create conflict than to resolve it. b. cultural differences in conflict handling are hard to discern. c. too much conflict is dysfunctional. d. too little conflict is dysfunctional. e. none of the above 12. Fisher and Shapiro identify which of the following as a key concern in managing emotions in negotiations? a. autonomy b. affiliation c. status d. appreciation e. all of the above True or False Questions 13. Competition between groups is always dysfunctional. _____ True or _____ False? Explain why or why not? False. Competition is functional and the essence of the marketplace when it results in greater team spirit and effort. It is dysfunctional when it siphons energy away from the overall mission of the organization. Short Answer Questions 14. _____ is a form of interaction among parties that differ in interests, perceptions, and preferences. Conflict 15. _____ conflict refers to conflict about the work itself such as its substance and its goals. Task 16. _____ conflict focuses on conflict about how the work gets done. Process 17. _____ conflict involves disagreement about interpersonal relations. Relationship 18. Discuss when inter-group competition can be functional. • Groups are not part of the same organizational structure • Groups do not have to work together to achieve a common goal 19. What are the advantages and disadvantages of organizational reference groups? • Advantages—they provide individuals with a sense of belonging and identity. • Disadvantages—they can cause we-they attitudes to develop that can foster competition and a lack of collaboration that hinders productivity and achievement of the overall goals of the organization. 20. The rational emotional approach to negotiation emphasized _____ and _____ emotional expression. controlling; suppressing 21. Fisher and Ury recommend that negotiators arm themselves with an alternative in case the negotiation does not go as expected. What do they call this? BATNA - Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement Fisher and Ury recommend that negotiators arm themselves with an alternative in case the negotiation does not go as expected. They refer to this as a BATNA—Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement. Essay Questions 22. What elements should be considered when engaging in conflict with people from other cultures? • Choose the representative carefully to ensure the power status is appropriate • Understand the network of relationships and the level of approval necessary • Provide mechanisms for saving face • Understand how and when to show respect • Understand the communication style • Anticipate that cultural differences may influence integrative bargaining 23. Describe two gains and two losses associated with the collaborative conflict style. • Gains • Both sides win • Better chance for long-term solutions • Creativity in problem solving • Maintains relationship • New level of understanding of situation • Improves quality of solution and commitment • Losses • Requires more time in short run • Loss of sense of autonomy 24. Name three potential sources of conflict that could create problems between a manufacturing and a marketing department. • We-they attitudes • Competition for scarce resources • Ambiguous authority • Interdependence • Deficient information • Differences in values, goals, interests, personalities, education, culture, perceptions, and expectations 25. List the four steps in Fisher and Ury’s principled negotiation. • Separate the people from the problem. • Focus on interest, not positions. • Invent options for mutual gain. • Insist on objective criteria. 26. Discuss the effects that positive and negative emotions can have on the various features of the negotiation process. Answer: Chapter 14 Managing Diversity Workbook Exam and Review Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of inclusive organizations? a. minority members are fully integrated into informal networks b. organizational resources are limited to the majority group c. the ability to influence decisions and their implementation is shared widely d. majority and minority members are equally identified with organizational goals e. there is a minimum of inter-group conflict among diverse groups 2. The exaggerated tendency to think that one’s own group or race is superior to another group or race is known as _____. a. cultural bias b. attribution error c. superiority complex d. ethnocentrism e. none of the above 3. Which of the following is not a true statement? a. Stereotyping leads to prejudice and discrimination. b. Stereotyping is partly responsible for the glass ceiling facing female executives. c. Stereotyping denies individual uniqueness. d. Stereotyping does not happen with highly successful minorities. e. none of the above 4. According to Kanter, which of these sentences describes the typical experience of tokens in large organizations? a. they are virtually ignored b. their behavior is closely scrutinized c. performance pressures are low d. differences are minimized e. none of the above 5. In which stage of the Developmental Model of Intercultural Sensitivity (DMIS) do people see their own culture as one of many equally complex worldviews? a. acceptance b. defense c. integration d. minimization e. denial 6. A female quit her job because she was a token, the only woman at her organizational level. She complained of isolation and said that her presence caused the boundary around the dominant group to become even stronger. According to Kanter, this is an example of _____. a. denial b. high visibility c. contrast that exaggerates differences d. assimilation via stereotyping e. none of the above 7. Diversity training should emphasize all of the following except for _____. a. an appreciation of differences b. a focus on similarities c. blaming the majority d. diversity as a competitive advantage e. skill training related to diversity 8. A female quit her job because she was a token, the only woman at her organizational level. She complained of being perceived only as a cheerleader for the men rather than as an individual. According to Kanter, this is an example of _____. a. denial b. high visibility c. contrast that exaggerates differences d. assimilation via stereotyping e. none of the above 9. In which stage of the Developmental Model of Intercultural Sensitivity (DMIS) do people avoid cultural differences by saying they do not exist? a. acceptance b. defense c. integration d. minimization e. denial 10. A man quit his job because he was the only man in his organization. He complained that the other employees watched his every step because he was the token male and that he felt a great deal of pressure to perform. According to Kanter, this is an example of _____. a. denial b. high visibility c. contrast that exaggerates differences d. assimilation via stereotyping e. none of the above 11. Which of these is not a common stereotype for tokens? a. militant b. martyr c. mascot d. sex object e. none of the above 12. In which stage of the Developmental Model of Intercultural Sensitivity (DMIS) do people assume that all cultures are basically the same-“like mine?” a. acceptance b. defense c. integration d. minimization e. denial 13. In which stage of the Developmental Model of Intercultural Sensitivity (DMIS) do people see their culture as superior and other cultures as inferior? a. acceptance b. defense c. integration d. minimization e. denial 14. In which stage of the Developmental Model of Intercultural Sensitivity (DMIS) do people incorporate aspects of another culture into their own personal identity? a. acceptance b. defense c. integration d. minimization e. denial 15. What percentage of U.S. white males experienced discrimination in the preceding year measured by a study? a. 15% b. 31% c. 10% d. 20% e. 3% True or False Questions 16. With training, you can completely eliminate your ethnocentrism. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False. Training can help, but everyone possesses some degree of ethnocentrism. 17. Minorities in societies characterized by discrimination are especially sensitive to discriminatory behavior in the organizations that employ them. _____ True or _____ False? Why? True. Because they have been exposed to discrimination in the larger society, they are sensitized to see discriminatory intent in behaviors that may seem appropriate and non-discriminatory to members of the dominant culture. Short Answer Questions 18. _____ is the solution to decreasing the stress on tokens. Increasing the number of the minority group 19. _____ is assigning identical characteristics to any member of a group regardless of his or her individual differences. Stereotyping 20. _____ provides us with ready-made solutions for basic human problems and a sense of identity. Culture 21. _____ limits our ability to see and sometimes appreciate alternative behaviors. Culture 22. Minority groups often form _____ within larger organizations to share common interests and meet needs that the formal organizations may not fill. networks Essay Questions 23. Write an essay explaining how organizations can more effectively make use of diversity. Tangibly demonstrate top management commitment to diversity; establish unambiguous qualifications criteria used in selection decisions and clearly communicate them; develop strategies to recruit a diverse workforce; remove barriers to achievement and advancement; encourage the development of a superordinate goal and a group identity; establish appropriate training programs; align organizational reward systems with recruiting, hiring, retaining, and advancing a diverse workforce; monitor the effectiveness of your diversity initiatives; training employees and managers to be interculturally competent. 24. Describe the five reasons why diversity is a business issue. • There are clear benefits to having diverse viewpoints. • You can better understand the needs of diverse customers. • There are turnover costs to losing women and minorities to the competition. • You will have a competitive advantage in attracting and retaining well-qualified employees. • Diversity can contribute to profitability. Chapter 15 Leadership Workbook Exam and Review Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is not part of the definition of leadership? a. establish procedures for a group b. motivate group members to achieve goals c. establish direction for a group d. gain group members’ commitment e. none of the above 2. When employees perceive leaders to have high credibility and a strong philosophy, employees are more likely to do all of the following except _____. a. be proud to tell others they are part of the organization b. talk up the organization with friends c. have a strong sense of team spirit d. feel a sense of ownership e. none of the above 3. Schemas of what constitutes good leadership vary from one culture to another. In the United States, people value _____ while Germans do not. a. authoritarian leaders b. laissez faire leaders c. transformational leaders d. charismatic leaders e. none of the above 4. When working with people from different cultures or ethnic groups, it is very important to understand their accustomed leadership style and _____. a. adapt b. retrain them c. enlighten them d. answer b and c e. none of the above 5. In the behavior styles approach to leadership, leader behavior that organizes and defines what group members should be doing to maximize output is called _____. a. consideration b. supportive c. achievement-oriented d. initiating structure e. none of the above 6. According to path-goal theory, leaders motivate employees when they do all of the following except _____. a. clarify the path that will result in employee achievement b. link satisfaction to the problem-solving cycle c. provide the necessary guidance and support to get the job done d. remove the obstacles that block the path to goal achievement e. none of the above 7. The ways women and men lead _____. a. are more similar than different b. are more different than similar c. are the same d. is inherited e. none of the above 8. Kouzes and Posner identified all of the following leadership practices except for _____. a. challenging the process b. inspiring a shared vision c. empowering the mind d. encouraging the heart e. modeling the way 9. Charismatic leaders develop a special relationship with their followers that includes high levels of _____. a. performance, empowerment, and loyalty b. loyalty, enthusiasm, and sacrifice c. commitment, empowerment, and conformity d. communication, compromise, and sacrifice e. none of the above 10. Servant leadership is rooted in _____. a. spirituality b. environmentalism c. empowerment d. philosophy e. none of the above 11. _____ refers to leaders as stewards who are responsible for serving, developing, and transforming the organization and its people. a. lateral leadership b. distributed leadership c. leader-member exchange d. distributed leadership e. servant leadership 12. Level 5 leaders are _____. a. ambitious for themselves b. take credit for success c. charismatic d. modest and understated e. none of the above 13. When subordinates trust their leader, they are more likely to _____. a. perform better b. increase workplace civility c. reduce their organizational citizenship behavior d. disagree with the leader’s decisions e. none of the above 14. _____ leadership occurs when colleagues at the same level in the hierarchy collaborate and facilitate joint problem solving. a. Lateral leadership b. Distributed leadership c. Leader-member exchange d. Distributed leadership e. Servant leadership 15. _____ leadership is rotated and the person with the most relevant skill assumes the leadership role at a particular time. a. Lateral leadership b. Distributed leadership c. Leader-member exchange d. Distributed leadership e. Servant leadership True or False Questions 16. Leaders are born, not made. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False. Although some leadership traits, such as intelligence and high energy, are inherited, many more are learned, such as drive, honesty and integrity, leadership, motivation, self-confidence, knowledge of the business, creativity, and flexibility. Therefore, it is possible to develop and train people to be leaders or to be better leaders. 17. The favoritism in the leader-member exchange theory has no negative consequences. _____ True or _____ False Why? False. It results in less communication and cooperation between the in-group and out-groups. 18. Hitler was an ethical charismatic leader. _____ True or _____ False? Explain why or why not? False. It’s true that Hitler was charismatic and engendered loyalty, commitment, enthusiasm, and sacrifice in his followers. However, he was also unethical and motivated by personalized power, pursued his own vision and goals, censured critical or opposing views, and encouraged blind obedience, dependency, and submission. He fits the profile of an unethical charismatic leader. Short Answer Questions 19. Good leadership makes it easier for employees to adapt to _____. change 20. In contingency theory, there is no “one best way” to lead; it depends on the _____. situation 21. _____ refers to an ability to recognize the meanings of emotions and their relationships and to reason and problem-solve on the basis of them. Emotional intelligence 22. _____ leaders exchange rewards for performance. Transactional 23. _____ leaders are value-driven change agents who make followers more conscious of the importance and value of task outcomes. Transformational 24. _____ is the least effective leadership style Laissez faire 25. According to the leader-member exchange model, leaders give preferential treatment to _____, which is more satisfied and successful an in-group 26. According to U.S. research, followers expect four characteristics of their leaders. What are they? • Integrity • Competence • Forward-looking • Inspiring 27. What’s the key difference between managers and leaders? Leaders tend to produce change whereas managers tend to produce order and predictability, the key results expected by stakeholders. Essay Questions 28. What are the core competencies of global leaders? • Cross-cultural relationship skills • Traits and values • Cognitive orientation • Global business expertise • Global organizing expertise • Visioning 29. When do subordinates benefit from a directive style of leadership: • When they are working with an unstructured or stressful task • When they are working on a routine job, further instruction can waste time and be seen as insulting • When the work group is cohesive • When the organization is highly formalized • When they don’t want to take responsibility at work 30. What are the dimensions of emotional intelligence? • Self-awareness • Self-management • Social awareness • Relationship management 31. Your manager has asked you to design a training program that will develop employees’ global leadership skills. Describe your program. The program should include the following: • Long-term international assignments • Multicultural team projects • Cultural mentors • Training about other cultures 32. According to Peter’s Drucker’s vignette, what practices do effective executives follow? • They ask “What needs to be done? • They ask “What is right for the enterprise?” • They develop action plans • They take responsibility for decisions • They take responsibility for communicating • They focus on opportunities rather than problems • They run productive meetings • They think and say “we” rather than “I” 33. Why is House’s path-goal theory called a contingency theory? Provide an example by applying this example to an organizational situation. In path-goal theory, the leadership style is contingent on the situation. The leader analyzes both employee and environmental factors and then decides which of the four leadership styles (supportive, directive, achievement-oriented, or participative) is most appropriate. Student example: Chapter 16 Organizational Culture Workbook Exam and Review Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following factors has the least influence on determining an organizational culture? a. attitudes about your competitors b. values of the founder(s) c. the external environment d. solutions to problems over time e. none of the above 2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a strong culture? a. employees can easily identify the dominant values b. to add diversity, selection processes target people who will challenge and enrich the culture c. managers measure and control what is important to the culture d. by their behavior, leaders and managers send clear, consistent signals about desired values and norms e. none of the above 3. According to the text, there should be a “fit” between the organizational culture and all of the following except _____. a. people b. external environment c. organizational task d. strategy e. none of the above 4. Which of the following is a signal of organizational decline? a. tolerance of incompetence b. replacement of form with substance c. clear goals and benchmarks d. adaptive organizational structure e. none of the above 5. All of the following are organizational stages of growth except: _____. a. entrepreneurial b. elaboration c. embryonic d. formalization e. none of the above 6. The primary mechanisms a leader can use to create, transmit, or change culture include all of the following except _____. a. the reactions of leaders to the day-to-day business of the organization b. deliberate role modeling, teaching, and coaching c. criteria for recruitment, selection, promotion, retirement, and excommunication d. criteria for allocating rewards and status e. the reactions of leaders to crises 7. Secondary mechanisms for transmitting culture include all of the following except _____. a. organization structure b. organizational environment c. rites and rituals d. organizational philosophy, creeds, and charters e. none of the above 8. Cultures that promote ethical behavior were found to be high in both _____. a. rules and socialization b. rules and conflict avoidance c. nonconformity and risk taking d. risk taking and conflict tolerance e. none of the above True or False Questions 9. Organizational culture has three levels: artifacts, espoused values, and assumptions. _____ True or _____ False? True. Short Answer Questions 10. What is the definition of organizational culture? The pattern of shared values and beliefs which produces certain norms of behavior; “the way we do things around here.” 11. What is the main difference between weak and strong cultures? Give an example of an organization with a strong culture. Strong cultures have core values and beliefs that are intensely held, more widely shared, and more ordered. Employees know which values are most important. 12. Lack of external _____ was the impetus for some of the widespread restructuring that U.S. industry has undergone in recent years. adaptation or fit 13. Name three ways in which culture is transmitted. Culture is transmitted through socialization, stories, symbols, jargon, rituals and ceremonies, and statements of principles. 14. _____ is the systematic process by which organizations bring new members into their cultures. Socialization 15. The pink Cadillacs awarded to successful salespeople by Mary Kay Cosmetics is a _____ of the company’s cultural values. symbol 16. What managers do to reinforce culture is stronger than what they _____. say 17. Define dominant culture, subculture and counterculture. The dominant culture manifests the values shared by a majority of the organization’s members. A subculture usually shares the dominant culture’s core values as well other values that characterize the unit. A counterculture has values in opposition to the dominant culture. 18. _____ refers to fairness regarding the disbursement of resources. Distributive justice 19. _____ refers to fairness of decision-making processes used to determine how resources are disbursed. Procedural justice 20. During the _____ stage of organizational growth, the formal aspects of the organizational are beginning to appear and some form of hierarchical authority is defined but the organization consists of a highly committed group working together to make the organization succeed. collectivity Essay Questions 21. You are responsible for designing a socialization program for the new employees in your unit. Describe your program. • Careful selection of entry-level candidates • Humility inducing experiences that cause newcomers to question prior behavior, believes, and values • Training that leads to mastery of one of the business’s core disciplines • Meticulous attention to rewards and control systems • Adherence to firm’s core values • Reinforcement of the firm’s folklore, stories, and legends • Exposure to consistent role models 22. What are the signals of organizational decline? • Excess personnel • Tolerance of incompetence • Cumbersome administrative procedures • Disproportionate staff power • Replacement of substance with form • Scarcity of clear goals and decision benchmarks • Fear of embarrassment and conflict prevents problem identification • Loss of effective communication • Outdated organizational structure 23. How can mature organizations be renewed? • Instilling a customer perspective and focusing on customer demands • Increasing capacity for change • Altering hardware (strategy, structure, processes) and software (employee behavior and mental models) • Empowering employees to act as leaders at all levels of the organization 24. What are the advantages and disadvantages of strong cultures? Advantages: • High performance under certain conditions • Clear sense of purpose • More value-driven decision making • Employee commitment, loyalty, and pride Disadvantages: • Pressure for conformity • Resistance to change Test Bank for Organizational Behavior: An Experiential Approach Joyce S. Osland, David A. Kolb, Irwin M. Rubin, Marlene E. Turner 9780131441514, 9780138961923
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