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This Document Contains Chapters 9 to 10 Chapter 9 Electrons in Atoms and the Periodic Table True/False Questions 1. When the elements are arranged in order of increasing number of protons, certain sets of properties recur periodically. Answer: True 2. The early scientists who developed the quantum-mechanical model were bewildered by the model and it altered our fundamental view of matter. Answer: True 3. Light is a type of matter. Answer: False 4. Light travels through space at a speed of 3.00 × 108 m/s. Answer: True 5. A red shirt appears red to our eyes because the shirt absorbs the red wavelengths of visible light. Answer: False 6. A particle of light is called a packet. Answer: False 7. A photon of red light contains the same amount of energy as a photon of blue light. Answer: False 8. The shorter the wavelength of light, the more energy it has. Answer: True 9. Wavelength of visible light determines color. Answer: True 10. The most energetic photons are gamma rays. Answer: True 11. Visible light makes up the largest portion of the electromagnetic spectrum. Answer: False 12. X-rays damage biological molecules. Answer: True 13. Ultraviolet light produces suntans and sunburns. Answer: True 14. The heat you feel when you place your hand near a hot object is ultraviolet radiation. Answer: False 15. In order for a substance to be heated in a microwave, it must contain water. Answer: True 16. The great success of the Bohr model of the atom is that it predicted the emission spectrum lines of multi-electronic elements like helium. Answer: False 17. Bohr showed that the emission spectrum of hydrogen was continuous with no interruption across the entire visible wavelength range. Answer: False 18. Each element produces its own unique and distinctive emission spectrum. Answer: True 19. An emission spectrum results when light emitted by glowing gas is passed through a prism. Answer: True 20. When an atom absorbs energy, it often re-emits that energy as heat. Answer: False 21. The energy of an electron orbit is quantized. Answer: True 22. The energy of each Bohr orbit increases with increasing value of "n", but levels become more closely spaced as "n" increases. Answer: True 23. Electrons behave like particles and we can describe their exact paths. Answer: False 24. An orbital is a probability map showing exactly where an electron can be found in an atom. Answer: False 25. The higher the principal quantum number, the lower the orbital energy. Answer: False 26. The possible values for the principal quantum numbers are: n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4. Answer: False 27. The subshells of the orbital are represented by the possible letters: s, p, d, or f. Answer: True 28. A principal shell with a value of n=3 would contain s, p, d, and f orbitals. Answer: False 29. All subshells within the same principal shell have the same energy. Answer: False 30. The ground state is when an electron in an atom is excited into the lowest possible vacant orbital. Answer: False 31. The correct electron configuration for fluorine is: 1s22s22p5. Answer: True 32. Transition metal elements always contain at least one "d" block electron. Answer: True 33. The Pauli exclusion principle states that orbitals may hold no more than two electrons of identical spins. Answer: False 34. The orbital diagram for fluorine shows 1 unpaired electron in a p orbital. Answer: True 35. The correct electron configuration for magnesium is: 1s22s22p63s3. Answer: False 36. The element manganese (symbol = Mn) has five valence electrons. Answer: False 37. Bromine has 17 valence electrons. Answer: False 38. Bromine has 28 core electrons. Answer: True 39. The elements will lose or gain electrons as needed to have an electron configuration that matches a noble gas. Answer: True 40. The ionization energy of lithium is higher than that of fluorine. Answer: False 41. The atomic size of lithium is larger than the atomic size of nitrogen. Answer: True 42. Based on relative location on the periodic table, a carbon atom is larger in atomic size than a phosphorous atom. Answer: False Multiple Choice Questions 43. Which of the statements about light is FALSE? A) Light travels through space at a speed of 3.00 × 108 m/s. B) Light travels much faster than sound. C) A packet of light energy is called a photon. D) A characteristic feature of light that determines its color is its wavelength. E) All of the above statements are true. Answer: E 44. The distance between adjacent wave crests is called A) wavelength. B) frequency. C) trough. D) nu. E) none of the above Answer: A 45. The number of cycles of a wave that passes a stationary point in one second is called its A) wavelength. B) frequency. C) crest. D) trough. E) none of the above Answer: B 46. Which among the following statements is TRUE? A) The wavelength of light is inversely related to its energy. B) As the energy increases, the frequency of radiation decreases. C) As the wavelength increases, the frequency also increases. D) Red light has a shorter wavelength than violet light. E) none of the above Answer: A 47. Which color of the visible spectrum has the shortest wavelength (400 nm)? A) red B) orange C) green D) violet E) yellow Answer: D 48. Which color of the visible spectrum has the longest wavelength (750 nm)? A) red B) orange C) green D) violet E) yellow Answer: A 49. Which color of the visible spectrum has photons with the most energy? A) red B) orange C) green D) violet E) yellow Answer: D 50. How are wavelength and frequency of light related? A) Wavelength is one-half of the frequency. B) Wavelength is double the frequency. C) Wavelength increases as frequency increases. D) Wavelength increases as the frequency decreases. E) Wavelength is independent of frequency. Answer: D 51. What is the correct order of the electromagnetic spectrum from shortest wavelength to longest? A) Gamma Rays → X-rays → Ultraviolet Radiation → Visible Light → Infrared Radiation → Microwaves → Radio Waves B) Visible Light → Infrared Radiation → Microwaves → Radio Waves → Gamma Rays → X-rays → Ultraviolet Radiation C) Radio Waves → X-rays → Ultraviolet Radiation → Visible Light → Infrared Radiation → Microwaves → Gamma Rays D) Gamma Rays → X-rays → Visible Light → Ultraviolet Radiation → Infrared Radiation → Microwaves → Radio Waves E) Gamma Rays → X-rays → Infrared Radiation → Visible Light → Ultraviolet Radiation → Microwaves → Radio Waves Answer: A 52. Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the shortest wavelength? A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: D 53. Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the longest wavelength? A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: A 54. Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the highest frequency? A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: D 55. Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest frequency? A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: A 56. Which form of electromagnetic radiation has photons with the highest energy? A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: D 57. Which form of electromagnetic radiation has photons with the lowest energy? A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: A 58. What happens to an atom when it absorbs energy? A) The atom stores the energy for later use. B) The extra energy increases the speed of the electrons in their orbitals. C) The atom re-emits the energy as heat. D) The atom re-emits the energy as light. E) none of the above Answer: D 59. When sunlight is passed through a prism, what is observed? A) continuous spectrum B) nothing C) bright spots and lines D) white light E) none of the above Answer: A 60. When neon light is passed through a prism, what is observed? A) continuous spectrum B) nothing C) bright spots or lines D) white light E) none of the above Answer: C 61. Which statement below does NOT follow the Bohr Model? A) When energy is absorbed by atoms, the electrons are promoted to higher-energy orbits. B) When an atom emits light, electrons fall from a higher orbit into a lower orbit. C) The energy emitted from a relaxing electron can have any wavelength. D) Electrons exist in specific, quantized orbits. E) none of the above Answer: C 62. Which of the following statements about the quantum-mechanical model is FALSE? A) Orbitals are a probability map of finding electrons. B) Electrons do not behave as particles. C) Orbitals are specific paths electrons follow. D) Electron paths cannot be described exactly. E) All of the above are correct statements. Answer: C 63. The principal quantum number (n): A) specifies the 3-D shape of the orbital. B) specifies the subshell of the orbital. C) specifies the maximum number of electrons. D) specifies the principal shell of the orbital. E) none of the above Answer: D 64. The subshell letter: A) specifies the 3-D shape of the orbital. B) specifies the principal quantum number of the orbital. C) specifies the maximum number of electrons. D) specifies the principal shell of the orbital. E) none of the above Answer: A 65. How many subshells are there in the n = 4 principal shell? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) not enough information Answer: D 66. How many subshells are there in the n = 2 principal shell? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) not enough information Answer: B 67. The n = ________ principal shell is the lowest that may contain a d-subshell. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) not enough information Answer: C 68. Which subshell letter corresponds to a spherical orbital? A) s B) p C) d D) f E) not enough information Answer: A 69. Which one of the following is the correct orbital diagram for nitrogen? A) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↓ ↓ ↑ B) ↑↓ ↓↓ ↓ ↑ ↑ C) ↑↓ ↓↓ ↑ ↑ ↑ D) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑ E) none of the above Answer: D 70. Which subshell letter corresponds to a 4-leaf clover orbital pattern? A) s B) p C) d D) f E) not enough information Answer: C 71. Which statement is NOT true about "p" orbitals? A) A subshell contains three "p" orbitals. B) These orbitals are shaped like dumbbells. C) A 3p orbital has a higher energy than a 2p orbital. D) All three of these statements are true. E) none of the above Answer: D 72. The "d" subshell can hold a maximum of __________ electrons. A) 2 B) 5 C) 6 D) 10 E) none of the above Answer: D 73. How many electrons can exist in an orbital? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none of the above Answer: B 74. The lowest energy orbital in the quantum-mechanical model is the A) zero orbital. B) 1a orbital. C) 1p orbital. D) 1s orbital. E) none of the above Answer: D 75. Which orbital would the electron of a ground state hydrogen atom occupy? A) 1s B) 2p C) 0s D) 1p E) none of the above Answer: A 76. How many electrons are unpaired in the orbitals of carbon? A) 12 B) 6 C) 4 D) 2 E) none of the above Answer: D 77. How many electrons are unpaired in the orbitals of nitrogen? A) 14 B) 5 C) 9 D) 3 E) none of the above Answer: D 78. "When filling orbitals of equal energy, electrons fill them singly first with parallel spins." This is known as: A) Hund's rule. B) Pauli exclusion principle. C) Bohr's model. D) Ground state. E) none of the above Answer: A 79. An accepted abbreviation format is to write an electron configuration that includes a noble gas symbol in brackets. If you were writing an electron configuration for a bromine atom, which elemental symbol would you place in the bracket? A) He B) Ne C) Ar D) Kr E) Xe Answer: C 80. Which element is represented by the electron configuration 1s22s22p2? A) C B) He C) Be D) O E) none of the above Answer: A 81. What is the electron configuration for Kr? A) 1s22s22p63s23p43d104s24p6 B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d24p6 C) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p6 D) 1s22s22p63s23p24s23d104p6 E) none of the above Answer: C 82. What is the electron configuration for Ga? A) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p6 B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p1 C) 1s22s22p63s23p53d104s24p1 D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24d104p1 E) none of the above Answer: B 83. What is the electron configuration for P? A) [Ar]3s23p64s23d104p3 B) [Ne]1s21p62s22p3 C) [Ne]3s23p3 D) [Ar]3s23p3 E) none of the above Answer: C 84. How many core electrons are in a chlorine atom? A) 1 B) 17 C) 10 D) 7 E) none of the above Answer: C 85. How many valence electrons are in a chlorine atom? A) 1 B) 17 C) 10 D) 7 E) none of the above Answer: D 86. The element with a completely filled p-subshell is A) Na. B) Al. C) P. D) Ar. E) none of the above Answer: D 87. What is the element in which at least one electron is in the d-orbital? A) Ar B) K C) Ca D) Sc E) none of the above Answer: D 88. What do the alkali metals all have in common? A) They all undergo similar reactions. B) They all have similar physical properties. C) They all form +1 ions. D) They all have the same number of valence electrons. E) all of the above Answer: E 89. Which of the following elements has the electron configuration of 3s23p4 in its outermost shell? A) Al B) Si C) S D) Cl E) none of the above Answer: C 90. Chlorine and bromine have very similar chemical properties. This is best explained by the fact that both elements A) are gases. B) are in period 3 of the Periodic Table. C) have the same number of valence electrons. D) have equal number of protons and electrons. E) none of the above Answer: C 91. Consider the electron configuration of the ion to determine which ion shown below has an incorrect ionic charge? A) Al3- B) Se2- C) Rb+ D) Ba2+ E) none of the above Answer: A 92. Which one of the following species has the electron configuration of 1s22s22p6? 1. Na+ 2. O2- 3. F- A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: D 93. If the electron configuration of a ground state potassium atom is 1s22s22p63s1, the electron configuration of the potassium cation (K+) would be: A) 1s22s22p63s2 B) 1s22s22p6 C) 1s22s22p63s1 D) 1s12s22p63s1 E) none of the above Answer: B 94. Choose the answer that best completes the following statement: When an aluminum atom reacts so as to attain a noble gas electron configuration, A) the atom gains five electrons. B) the result is a configuration of 1s22s22p6. C) a 3- ion forms. D) the noble gas configuration of argon is achieved. E) none of the above Answer: B 95. The size of an atom generally increases A) down a group and from right to left across a period. B) up a group and from left to right across a period. C) down a group and from left to right across a period. D) up a group and from right to left across a period. E) up a group and diagonally across the Periodic Table. Answer: A 96. Which of the following elements has the lowest ionization energy? A) Rb B) Na C) C D) F E) He Answer: A 97. Which of the following elements has the highest ionization energy? A) Ba B) Ca C) Al D) Cl E) Ne Answer: E 98. Which of the following atoms is the largest? A) Li B) Na C) K D) Rb E) Cs Answer: E 99. Which of the following atoms is the smallest? A) Li B) Be C) B D) O E) Ne Answer: E 100. Which of the following atoms has the least metallic character? A) Li B) Na C) K D) Rb E) Cs Answer: A 101. Which of the following atoms has the greatest metallic character? A) Cs B) Be C) Cu D) Ti E) Au Answer: A Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding True/False Questions 1. Bonding theories are used to predict how atoms bond together to form molecules. Answer: True 2. Drugs to fight HIV have been developed using bonding theory models. Answer: True 3. Li: is the proper Lewis structure (dot structure) for lithium. Answer: False 4. A chemical bond is classified as a covalent bond if it involves the transfer of electrons. Answer: False 5. The Lewis structure of oxygen should have 8 valence electrons. Answer: False 6. Lewis structures only use the valence electrons in determining the bonding. Answer: True 7. Having eight valence electrons is very stable and is called an octet. Answer: True 8. A correct Lewis structure for an atom of carbon would have eight dots surrounding the symbol of the element. Answer: False 9. The correct Lewis structure for potassium in KCl is: K+. Answer: True 10. Chlorine has 8 valence electrons in the Lewis structure for KCl. Answer: True 11. The Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound of magnesium and sulfur is MgS2. Answer: False 12. The Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound made of sodium and fluorine is NaF. Answer: True 13. Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound made of aluminum and phosphorus is AlP. Answer: True 14. The Lewis structure of water has two sets of lone pair electrons. Answer: True 15. The structure: H≡H is a proper representation of the bonding in the H2 molecule. Answer: False 16. The Lewis structure for O2 contains a triple bond. Answer: False 17. The double bond is shorter and stronger than a single bond. Answer: True 18. The triple bond present in diatomic nitrogen, N2, is what makes this molecule so reactive. Answer: False 19. When calculating the number of electrons for the Lewis structure of a polyatomic ion, subtract one electron for each negative charge. Answer: False 20. The correct Lewis structure for CO2 shows that the molecule contains two double bonds. Answer: True 21. The correct Lewis structure for CO2 shows that the carbon atom has two sets of lone pair electrons. Answer: False 22. The sulfate ion contains 28 valence electrons. Answer: False 23. The ammonium ion contains 10 valence electrons. Answer: False 24. Boron forms compounds that violate the octet rule. Answer: True 25. Resonance structures are the best representation we can draw but do not accurately reflect the true structure. Answer: True 26. Carbon monoxide contains resonance Lewis structures. Answer: False 27. The VSEPR theory predicts that the angle between the central carbon atom and the two oxygen atoms in CO2 measures 180°. Answer: True 28. The VSEPR theory predicts that the H-C-H angle in CH4 measures 120°. Answer: False 29. It is important to identify lone pairs around a central atom because they do not repel other electron groups. Answer: False 30. The electron geometry of a molecule is never the same as its molecular geometry. Answer: False 31. When you have 2 electron groups and none are lone pairs, the molecular geometry is linear. Answer: True 32. When you have 4 electron groups and 1 of them is a lone pair, the molecular geometry is bent. Answer: False 33. When you have 4 electron groups and none of them are lone pairs, the molecular geometry is trigonal pyramidal. Answer: False 34. When you have 4 electron groups, the electron geometry is tetrahedral. Answer: True 35. The compound H2S contains polar bonds but the molecule is nonpolar. Answer: False 36. Water and oil do not mix because water molecules are nonpolar and molecules that compose oil are generally polar. Answer: False Multiple Choice Questions 37. Which of the following statements about Lewis structures is FALSE? A) An octet is when an atom has 8 valence electrons. B) A duet is a stable electron configuration for helium. C) An ionic bond occurs when electrons are transferred. D) A covalent bond occurs when electrons are shared. E) All of the above statements are true. Answer: E 38. Which Lewis structure below correctly represents KCl? Answer: B 39. Which Lewis structure below correctly represents the compound formed between magnesium and sulfur? Answer: D 40. Lewis theory predicts that the formula of a compound formed between bromine and aluminum is: A) AlBr B) Al2Br C) AlBr3 D) AlBr2 E) none of the above Answer: C 41. Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound between fluorine and calcium is: A) CaF B) Ca2F C) CaF2 D) CaF3 E) none of the above Answer: C 42. Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound between barium and sulfur is: A) BaS B) Ba2S C) BaS2 D) BaS3 E) none of the above Answer: A 43. Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound between potassium and sulfur is: A) KS B) K2S C) KS2 D) K3S E) none of the above Answer: B 44. When a nonmetal bonds with a nonmetal A) a molecular compound forms. B) a covalent bond is involved. C) electrons are shared. D) all of the above are true E) none of the above Answer: D 45. What is the correct Lewis structure for water? Answer: D 46. What is the correct Lewis structure for Br2? Answer: B 47. What is the correct Lewis structure for O2? Answer: C 48. What is the correct Lewis structure for N2? Answer: D 49. The Lewis structure for carbon monoxide is This structures shows A) 4 lone pairs and 1 bonding pair. B) 4 lone pairs and 3 bonding pairs. C) 2 lone pairs and 3 bonding pairs. D) 2 lone pairs and 1 bonding pair. E) none of the above Answer: C 50. Which sequence below represents the proper order of increasing bond strength? A) single < double < triple B) double < single < triple C) single < triple < double D) triple < double < single E) none of the above Answer: A 51. How many valence electrons are in the nitrate ion? A) 18 B) 22 C) 23 D) 24 E) 26 Answer: D 52. The total number of electrons to be counted for the Lewis structure of the PO43- polyatomic ion is A) 8. B) 26. C) 29. D) 32. E) none of the above Answer: D 53. The central atom in the chlorate anion, ClO3- is surrounded by A) two bonding and two unshared pairs of electrons. B) one bonding and three unshared pairs of electrons. C) three bonding and one unshared pair of electrons. D) two double bonds and no unshared pairs of electrons. E) none of the above. Answer: C 54. The central atom in the chlorite anion, ClO2- is surrounded by A) one bonding and three unshared pairs of electrons. B) two bonding and two unshared pairs of electrons. C) two bonding and one unshared pair of electrons. D) two double bonds and no unshared pairs of electrons. E) none of the above Answer: B 55. What is the correct Lewis structure for CO2? Answer: D 56. The Lewis structure, represents A) NO2+ B) NO2- C) NO2 D) both NO2+ and NO2- E) none of the above Answer: B 57. What is the correct Lewis structure for CN⁻? Answer: D 58. The correct Lewis structure for BF3 would have exactly: A) 1 double bond. B) 2 double bonds. C) 1 triple bond. D) no double bonds. E) none of the above Answer: D 59. Which symbol should be used between two structures that represent resonance structures? A) → B) ← C) ↔ D) ≡ E) none of the above Answer: C 60. Which set shows the correct resonance structures for SeO2? Answer: D 61. Which of the following compounds have resonance structures? A) CH4 B) H2O C) NH3 D) O3 E) None of the compounds have resonance structures. Answer: D 62. Consider the Lewis structures for the compound SO3 and the polyatomic ions SO32- and SO42-. Which of these would exist as a set of resonance structures? A) SO3 only B) SO32- only C) SO42- only D) all of these show resonance E) none of these show resonance Answer: A 63. What is the angle between electron groups in the linear electron geometry? A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) not enough information Answer: D 64. What is the angle between electron groups in the trigonal planar electron geometry? A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) not enough information Answer: C 65. What is the angle between electron groups in the tetrahedral geometry? A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) not enough information Answer: B 66. Which of the following is considered a single electron group? A) a lone pair of electrons B) a single bond C) a double bond D) a triple bond E) all of the above Answer: E 67. What is the electron geometry if you have 4 electron groups around the center atom? A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C 68. What is the electron geometry if you have 2 electron groups around the center atom? A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) not enough information Answer: A 69. What is the electron geometry if you have 3 electron groups around the center atom? A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) not enough information Answer: B 70. What is the molecular geometry if you have 3 single bonds and 1 lone pair around the central atom? A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: D 71. What is the molecular geometry if you have 4 single bonds around the central atom? A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C 72. What is the molecular geometry if you have a double bond, a single bond and 1 lone pair around the central atom? A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: A 73. What is the molecular geometry of ozone, O3? A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: A 74. Which of the following compounds would have a linear molecular geometry? 1. N2 2. H2S 3. CO2 A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1,2 and 3 E) neither 1, 2,or 3 Answer: B 75. What is the molecular geometry of carbon dioxide, CO2? A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: B 76. What is the molecular geometry of PH3? A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: D 77. What is the molecular geometry of SiH4? A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C 78. What is the molecular geometry of CCl4? A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C 79. What is the molecular geometry of SCl2? A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: A 80. What is the molecular geometry of NH4+? A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C 81. The electron geometry and the molecular geometry of ammonia (NH3) are, respectively, A) trigonal planar, bent. B) tetrahedral, tetrahedral. C) tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal. D) tetrahedral, bent. E) none of the above Answer: C 82. The electron geometry and the molecular geometry of water are, respectively, A) trigonal planar, bent. B) tetrahedral, tetrahedral. C) tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal. D) tetrahedral, bent. E) none of the above Answer: D 83. Which of the following has a tetrahedral electron geometry and a trigonal pyramidal molecular geometry? A) Br2O B) GeH4 C) SO2 D) PF3 E) none of the above Answer: D 84. Which term matches the definition: A separation of charge within a bond. A) coulombic attraction B) dipole moment C) polar covalent D) nonpolar covalent E) electronegativity Answer: B 85. The elements with the highest electronegativity values tend to be found in the: A) upper right-side of the periodic table. B) lower right-side of the periodic table. C) upper left-side of the periodic table. D) lower left-side of the periodic table. E) center of the periodic table. Answer: A 86. Which term matches the definition: The ability of an element to attract electrons within a covalent bond? A) coulombic attraction B) dipole moment C) polar covalent D) nonpolar covalent E) electronegativity Answer: E 87. Which molecule listed below has a nonpolar covalent bond? A) NaCl B) H2O C) H2 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: C 88. Which molecule listed below has a polar covalent bond? A) NaCl B) H2O C) H2 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: B 89. Which molecule listed below is a polar molecule? A) NH3 B) H2O C) HCN D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: D 90. Which substance listed below is a polar molecule? A) NH41+ B) Cl2O C) SiCl4 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: B 91. Which molecule listed below is a nonpolar molecule? A) CCl4 B) CO2 C) BH3 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: D 92. Which compound listed below will dissolve in water? A) CCl4 B) SiO2 C) NH3 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: C 93. Which compound listed below will dissolve in NH3? A) H2S B) CO2 C) O2 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: A 94. Which compound listed below will dissolve in carbon tetrachloride, CCl4? A) NaCl B) CS2 C) NH3 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: B 95. Which of the following statements is TRUE for the covalent molecule HCl? A) Chlorine is more electronegative and the shared electron pair is likely to be found on the hydrogen atom. B) Chlorine is more electronegative and the shared electron pair is likely to be found on the chlorine atom. C) Hydrogen is more electronegative and the shared electron pair is likely to be found on the hydrogen atom. D) Hydrogen is more electronegative and the shared electron pair is likely to be found on the chlorine atom. E) none of the above Answer: B 96. Which of the following statements about the water molecule is TRUE? A) A water molecule has two dipole moments and they cancel each other. B) A water molecule is symmetrical and therefore is nonpolar. C) A water molecule is asymmetric and therefore is polar. D) The electronegativities of hydrogen and oxygen are equal and therefore a water molecule is nonpolar. E) none of the above Answer: C 97. Which of the following statements are TRUE about the BF3 molecule? A) BF3 has a trigonal planar molecular geometry. B) BF3 violates the octet rule for the central atom. C) BF3 is nonpolar. D) All of the above statements are true. E) None of the above are true. Answer: D 98. The electronegativity value for N is 3.0 and that for O is 3.5. Based on these values, which of the following statements is TRUE about the compound NO? A) NO is an ionic compound. B) NO is a pure covalent compound. C) NO is a polar covalent compound. D) There is not enough enough information to determine the nature of NO. E) None of the above statements is true. Answer: C 99. The electronegativity value for Mg is 1.2 and the value for O is 3.5. Based on these values, what type of bond is expected for a compound formed between Mg and O? A) Ionic B) Pure covalent C) Polar covalent D) not enough information E) none of the above Answer: A 100. How does soap work? A) Soap works by breaking grease molecules into smaller molecules that dissolve in water. B) Soap works by making water into a nonpolar liquid which grease can dissolve in. C) Soap works by having a polar end and a nonpolar end which allows the water and oil to interact indirectly. D) Soap works by by having a polar end which attaches to the grease molecule and polarizes it and turns the grease molecule into another soap molecule. This is a chain reaction. E) none of the above Answer: C Test Bank for Introductory Chemistry Nivaldo J. Tro 9780321741028, 9780321687937, 9781256112938, 9781256161066, 9780134302386, 9780321910073

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