This Document Contains Chapters 5 to 8 Chapter 5—Research and Campaign Planning 5.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1. Public relations professionals use research for which of the following reasons? A) achieving credibility with management B) defining audiences and segmenting publics C) formulating strategy D) testing messages E) all of the above Answer: E 2. The use of existing information in books, articles, and electronic databases is known as: A) primary research B) qualitative research C) summative research D) secondary research E) professional research Answer: D 3. Which of the following is NOT an example of qualitative research? A) mail surveys B) focus groups C) in-depth interviews D) observation E) role-playing studies Answer: A 4. As a research technique, focus groups are widely used: A) For randomly selected subjects. B) to help identify attitudes and motivations of important publics. C) to carefully select participants based on expertise or influence. D) To formulate or pretest message themes. E) Both B and D. Answer: E 5. When everyone in the target audience has an equal chance of being selected for the survey, this is known as a: A) nonprobability sample. B) benchmark survey. C) random sample. D) quota sample. E) composite sample. Answer: C 6. The most precise random sampling is usually done from: A) lists that give the name of everyone in the targeted audience. B) specialized public relations firms. C) federal government agencies. D) impetus from exploratory focus groups. E) precision content analysis. Answer: A 7. The first element in a public relations plan is a: A) calendar/timetable B) development of strategies and tactics C) setting of objectives D) situation analysis E) crafting of news releases Answer: D 8. Which of the following questions should one ask when establishing a program objective? A) Does it really address the situation? B) Will management approve of it? C) Is it realistic and achievable? D) Can its success be measured in meaningful terms? E) All but B. Answer: E 9. Which is NOT an element of Ketchum’s Strategic Planning Model? A) facts B) goals C) audience D) outcomes E) key message Answer: D 10. A budget is usually divided into two categories, which are: A) staff time and legislative windfalls. B) staff time and out-of-pocket expenses. C) debits and expenses. D) internal and external. E) strategic and ordinary. Answer: B 11. As practitioners move away from “seat-of-the-pants” practices, they must: A) abandon the notion that communication is an end in itself. B) consider realistically the kinds of affects programs can achieve. C) also move away from consulting top management frequently. D) Both A and B. E) All of the above. Answer: D 12. Analysis of key messages, number of brochures distributed, or market share increase are all examples of what stage in the public relations planning process? A) Objectives B) Strategy C) Tactics D) Budget E) Measurement Answer: E 13. Public relations programs should be directed to what kinds of audiences or publics? A) celebrities B) anyone who will listen C) specific and defined D) the politically aware E) none of the above Answer: C 14. Which of the following is not true about public relations objectives? A) They should be defined as the “means” rather than the “ends.” B) They can be motivational or informational. C) They should complement and reinforce organizational objectives. D) They should be measureable. E) all of the above are true. Answer: A 15. Considering the nine Management By Objectives (MBO) steps, media channel objectives refer to: A) the media channels recommended by your client. B) what media gatekeepers are looking for in a news angle. C) the optimal media channels for your target audience. D) an increasing emphasis on social media. E) sources and questions that interest the journalist. Answer: B 16. Public relations firms use online databases for all of the following purposes EXCEPT: A) to research facts to support a proposed project. B) to keep up-to-date with news about clients. C) to track an organization’s media campaigns. D) to confirm proper news release format. E) to keep management apprised of current business trends. Answer: D 17. Public relations professional Lisa Eggerton of RSCG Magnet says, “Research gives a context in which to talk about a product.” What does this quote mean? A) Research findings can be used to substantiate hunches about a product. B) In the minds of consumers, research adds credibility to a product. C) Armed with research findings, a company can claim whatever it wants. D) Both A and B. E) None of the above. Answer: D 18. The systematic and objective categorizing of content is known as: A) intercept surveys. B) focus groups. C) content analysis. D) marketing research. E) none of the above. Answer: C 19. Which of the following situations do not prompt the need for a public relations program? A) Management believes a program is needed. B) Loss of market share and declining sales. C) Specific one-time events. D) The need to preserve and develop public support. E) Research identifies a need for a program. Answer: A 20. Public relations research should be conducted A) before a campaign begins. B) once a campaign is under way. C) periodically throughout the campaign. D) after the campaign ends. E) All of the above. Answer: E 5.2 True/False Questions 1. Planning is the first step in the four-step public relations process. Answer: False 2. Public relations practitioners use research to achieve credibility with management. Answer: True 3. Qualitative research usually produces “hard” data. Answer: False 4. Copy testing can help an organization to better understand whether its material is targeted to the correct audience. Answer: True 5. Mail questionnaires typically have low response rates. Answer: True 6. Using a “piggyback survey,” an organization might place one or two questions into a national poll sponsored by someone else. Answer: True 7. All public relations objectives are “motivational.” Answer: False 8. Public relations campaigns should be mostly targeted to the general public. Answer: False 9. Tactics use the tools of communication to reach audiences with key messages. Answer: True 10. The evaluation element of a plan relates directly back to the objectives of the plan. Answer: True 5.3 Essay Questions 1. List five measureable informational and/or motivational objectives you have for yourself. They can include college, career, personal goals, etc. Cite specific tactics you plan to use to achieve those objectives. How will success be measured? Answer: Answers will vary. Student answers should draw upon the Chapter 5 section on public relations planning, with emphasis on objectives, tactics, and measurement. Because students often confuse goals, objectives and strategies, their answers should clearly discern the difference between them. Certainly! Here are five measurable informational and/or motivational objectives with specific tactics and measures of success: 1. Career Advancement Objective: • Objective: Obtain a leadership position within my current company within the next 2 years. • Tactics: Complete leadership training courses, take on additional responsibilities, network with senior management. • Measurement: Success measured by promotion to a managerial role or higher within the specified timeframe. 2. Educational Objective: • Objective: Achieve a GPA of 3.8 or higher in my college courses this academic year. • Tactics: Allocate dedicated study hours daily, participate actively in class discussions, seek help from professors and peers as needed. • Measurement: GPA calculation at the end of each semester; track progress through regular self-assessment and feedback from professors. 3. Personal Development Objective: • Objective: Improve proficiency in public speaking and presentations. • Tactics: Join a public speaking club (such as Toastmasters), practice speeches regularly, seek feedback from peers and mentors. • Measurement: Evaluate improvement through increased confidence, audience engagement, and positive feedback from evaluations and competitions. 4. Health and Wellness Objective: • Objective: Achieve a healthier lifestyle by losing 10 pounds in the next 6 months. • Tactics: Follow a balanced diet plan, exercise regularly (3-4 times a week), track calorie intake and physical activity. • Measurement: Success measured by achieving weight loss goal, improved energy levels, and overall well-being assessed through regular health check-ups and self-assessment. 5. Financial Objective: • Objective: Save $5,000 for an emergency fund within the next 12 months. • Tactics: Set up automatic savings transfer each month, reduce unnecessary expenses, explore additional income opportunities. • Measurement: Success measured by reaching the savings target within the specified timeframe, tracked through monthly budget reviews and account statements. Each objective includes specific actions (tactics) to achieve them and clear measures of success, ensuring progress can be tracked and adjustments made as necessary to stay on course. 2. Why is an accurate situation analysis critical for a successful public relations campaign? Describe the relationship between the situation analysis and the other seven elements of a public relations plan. Answer: Public relations professionals cannot set valid objectives without a clear understanding of the situation that led to the conclusion there was a need for a public relations program. Once the situation is understood, the objectives can be set. An understanding of the audience, flowed with appropriate strategies and tactics should flow from the situation analysis. Similarly the situation analysis will dictate the calendar/timetable and budget. In the end, the campaign is evaluated against original objectives and the situation analysis that prompted it. Chapter 6—Communication and Measurement 6.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which are the following is not a legitimate goal of communication? A) To inform B) To persuade C) To motivate D) To deflect negative public opinion E) To build mutual understanding Answer: D 2. Into which media category do publicity, advertising, and product placements fall? A) Public B) Controlled C) Interactive D) Events E) One-on one Answer: A 3. All of the following are examples of “controlled media” EXCEPT: A) newspaper placements. B) brochures. C) newsletters. D) annual reports. E) direct mail. Answer: A 4. Which of the following is a key objective for communicating a message? A) message exposure B) accurate dissemination of the message C) acceptance of the message D) attitude change E) all of the above Answer: E 5. Reviewing Schramm’s communication models, one can safely conclude that: A) More accurate models have since been developed. B) shared experience is key to communication. C) Continuous feedback must take place. D) Both B and C. E) The encoder bears most responsibility for managing the signal. Answer: B 6. The theory that says people use the mass media for a variety of purposes in known as: A) two-way symmetrical communication. B) two-step flow. C) management by objective. D) uses and gratifications. E) spiral of silence. Answer: D 7. The kind of audience that may initially pay attention to a message only because it’s entertaining is known as a A) passive audience. B) active audience. C) opinion leaders. D) strategic linkages. E) none of the above. Answer: A 8. Effective tools for delivering information to an active audience include all of the following EXCEPT: A) websites. B) brochures. C) billboards. D) slide presentations. E) speeches. Answer: C 9. How might a public relations professional successfully increase audience understanding and comprehension of a message? A) Use symbols and slogans. B) Rely on jargon. C) avoid simple language. D) Stress discriminatory language. E) use clichés. Answer: A 10. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of repeating a message? A) Improved sales B) reminds the audience C) can lead to improved learning D) offsets the “noise” E) contributes to credibility Answer: A 11. Regarding the Five-Stage Adoption Process, which of the following is not true? A) Every person does not go through all five stages. B) The process may end after any step. C) At Stage 5, many people are likely to adopt a given product. D) The process is like a large funnel. E) It can be applied to both ideas or products. Answer: C 12. At what stage in the adoption process do people seek more information about the idea or product? A) trial B) adoption C) interest D) awareness E) evaluation Answer: C 13. According to communication researchers Everett Rogers, people who are eager to try new ideas are called A) laggards. B) enthusiastic. C) late adopters. D) innovators. E) mavericks. Answer: D 14. The key conclusion to be drawn from the “Facebook Friends = Brain Power” case is that: A) Facebook “mavericks” lead the pack in new friend requests. B) Too many friends can begin to diminish brain power. C) having lots of Facebook friends may affect your brain. D) friends with lots of friends may positively affect your organization’s communication strategy. E) Both C and D. Answer: E 15. All of the following are considered to be an “intermediate” level of measurement EXCEPT: A) behavior. B) retention. C) comprehension. D) awareness. E) reception. Answer: A 16. According to a recent survey of public relations practitioners, which tool is the most effective measure of message exposure? A) clippings. B) advertising equivalency. C) benchmarking. D) reputation index. E) information requests. Answer: A 17. The potential audience reached by a periodical or broadcast program is known as A) potentials. B) media impressions. C) systematic random sample. D) measurement of production. E) none of the above. Answer: B 18. Tracking media coverage and comparing it over time is known as A) intercept surveys. B) focus groups. C) benchmarking. D) marketing research. E) none of the above. Answer: C 19. As a form of evaluation, measurement of production is A) the most precise of all the tools. B) not regarded as very meaningful by professionals. C) centered on quality rather than quantity. D) easy to guarantee. E) based on a highly complex formula. Answer: A 20. Advertising equivalency may is not always a reliable measurement tool because A) management limits available advertising dollars. B) Publicity and advertising are very different things. C) News stories carry greater credibility than advertisements. D) Both B and C. E) none of the above. Answer: D 6.2 True/False Questions 1. The ultimate objective of any public relations effort is to achieve organizational objectives. Answer: True 2. Advertising equivalency as a means to measure the value of publicity is controversial. Answer: True 3. Media impressions as a measurement tool are the collective opinions of reporters and editors. Answer: False 4. On the Public Relations Effectiveness Yardstick, level 2-intermediate provides the truest measure of campaign success. Answer: False 5. Before a public relations program can be properly evaluated, it is important to establish clear objectives. Answer: True 6. “Relative advantage” is the degree to which an innovation is perceived as difficult to understand and use. Answer: False 7. “Laggards” are traditionalists who are the last to adopt anything. Answer: True 8. Correspondence and telephone calls are considered to be “interactive” media. Answer: False 9. To be an effective communicator, you must understand how people process information and change their perceptions. Answer: True 10. According to mass media researcher Wilbur Schramm, effective communication takes place within a sphere of shared experience. Answer: True 6.3 Essay Questions 1. According to communication researcher Everett Rogers, at least five factors will influence a person’s decision to adopt a new idea or product. Name and define three of them. Answer: • Relative advantage: the degree to which an innovation is perceived as better than the idea it replaces. • Compatibility: the degree to which an innovation is perceived as being consistent with the existing values, experiences, and needs of potential adopters. • Complexity: the degree to which an innovation is perceived as difficulty to understand and use. • Trialability: the degree to which an innovation may be experienced on a limited basis. • Observability: the degree to which the results of an innovation are visible to others. 2. Advertising equivalency (AVE) is still used by many practitioners to measure the value of publicity efforts. Discuss the problems with this technique. Be sure to address in your answer the differences between publicity and advertising. Answer: Although this technique may impress top management, calculating AVE is really comparing apples with oranges. Publicity and advertising are fundamentally different. Advertising is considered controlled media. The organization controls the content, size, placement and timing of the advertisement. News coverage, by contrast, is considered uncontrolled media. Story placement, timing, length and angle are all determined by media gatekeepers. In addition, the story can be negative, neutral, or positive. Finally, the use of AVE reinforces the opinions of media gatekeepers that all news releases are just attempts to get free advertising. Chapter 7—Public Opinion and Persuasion 7.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1. According to Roper Reports, ____________ percent of the population drive public opinion and consumer trends. A) 1–3 B) 10–12 C) 27–29 D) 40–42 E) 55–57 Answer: B 2. People who take the time to sift information, evaluate it, and form an opinion that is expressed to others are known as A) scientists. B) evaluators. C) opinion leaders. D) celebrities. E) citizen journalists. Answer: C 3. Gandy estimates that as much as ____________ percent of what the media carry comes from public relations sources. A) 10 B) 30 C) 50 D) 70 E) 90 Answer: C 4. The theory that describes how journalists use facts, themes and treatments to shape a story is known as A) framing theory. B) agenda setting. C) two-step flow theory. D) uses and gratifications. E) fact-based storytelling. Answer: A 5. Regarding the role of conflict and controversy, which of the following is not true? A) It is central to public discourse. B) It tends to destabilize key publics. C) It offers insight into differences among individuals and groups. D) It explains conflicting interests, goals, values or desires. E) It creates a constructive process that builds toward consensus. Answer: B 6. Persuasion can be used to A) change hostile opinions. B) neutralize hostile opinions. C) crystallize latent opinions. D) maintain favorable opinions. E) all of the above. Answer: E 7. Researchers by behaviorists suggests that public relations messages should A) be simple. B) be subliminal. C) be authoritarian. D) relay the impression that “everyone is doing it.” E) Both A and D. Answer: E 8. All of the following are factors in persuasive communication EXCEPT: A) audience analysis. B) source authority. C) appeals to self-interest. D) audience participation. E) suggestions for action. Answer: B 9. What is most important for public relations professionals to remember when considering the role of propaganda? A) To never intentionally use it to deceive the public. B) To use it selectively, only with the “transfer” approach. C) Ethics and law are completely different from one another. D) It is already used extensively, so why fight it? E) It should never be used under any circumstances. Answer: C 10. ____________ is the propaganda technique of associating the person, product, or organization with something that has high status, visibility, or credibility. A) Transfer B) Glittering generalities C) Bandwagon D) Card stacking E) Plain folks Answer: A 11. All of the following are levels in Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs EXCEPT: A) Basic needs. B) love. C) belonging. D) domination. E) self-actualization. Answer: D 12. You have been placed in charge of a public relations campaign to stop teenagers from texting while driving. To make your message more persuasive, you decide to shoot series of social media videos that follow the life of a famous teenage musician through a texting-related car crash and his painful recovery. You are mostly using the following technique(s): A) drama and stories. B) surveys and polls. C) endorsements. D) Both A and C E) emotional appeals. Answer: D 13. All of the following factors limit the effectiveness of persuasive efforts EXCEPT: A) lack of message penetration. B) competing or conflicting messages. C) lack of time to listen. D) self-selection. E) self-perception. Answer: C 14. ____________ theory states that internal factors such as beliefs, attitudes, and values limit the extent to which an individual accepts or rejects a persuasive message. A) Hierarchy of needs B) Social judgment C) Two-step flow D) Framing E) Cognitive dissonance Answer: B 15. Which medium is most effective for conveying in-depth information? A) radio B) television C) newspaper D) video news releases E) none of the above Answer: C 16. Demographics and psychographics differ mainly because: A) demographics refer to factors including age, gender, and ethnicity. B) psychographic information is more difficult to gather. C) demographic information tends to be less reliable. D) psychographics are based on lifestyle, attitudes, beliefs and values. E) Both A and D. Answer: B 17. ____________ theory says that individuals are seldom influenced by only one opinion leader but actually interact with different leaders. A) N-step B) Framing C) Diffusion D) Agenda setting E) None of the above Answer: A 18. Which theory states that media content is influenced by a broad array of forces, all of which attempt to shape a media story? A) Limited effects B) Diffusion C) Framing. D) Media dependency E) Self-perception Answer: C 19. The most difficult persuasive task is to A) sell people on a new product. B) raise awareness about a cause. C) turn hostile opinions into favorable ones. D) get people to sign petitions. E) reinforce existing opinions. Answer: C 20. As a persuader, which factors are most important to remember when it comes to negotiation? A) As a strategy, negotiation is not effective unless you first try persuasion. B) Most states require negotiation among parties before lawsuits are initiated. C) Negotiation can be used in lieu of a lawsuit. D) How parties positions themselves beforehand will impact how the process unfolds. E) Both C and D. Answer: E 7.2 True/False Questions 1. Don’t advocate something in which you do not believe yourself. Answer: True 2. No message is received in a vacuum. Answer: True 3. Using modern communication techniques, the diffusion of messages is usually pervasive. Answer: False 4. Many messages fail because the audience finds them unnecessarily complex in content or language. Answer: True 5. According to a Nielsen survey, a friend’s recommendation is the most trusted form of source credibility. Answer: True 6. Persuasion, as it is practiced in public relations today, is only a few hundred years old. Answer: False 7. Public relations professionals are major players in forming public opinion, thanks to their work in media relations. Answer: True 8. Public opinion is fickle and variable; an ever-changing commodity. Answer: True 9. Public opinion is useful to research, but it is not a tangible force that affects a great number of people. Answer: False 10. Many public relations campaigns concentrate on identifying and reaching key opinion leaders. Answer: True 7.3 Essay Questions 1. Using global warming as a case, identify some of the key national and regional opinion leaders. How have they used the media to disseminate their messages? Describe some of the public relations strategies that might be used to heighten awareness of these leaders’ respective causes. What are some of the key attributes of an opinion leader? Answer: Answers will vary. Students are likely to identify opinion leaders ranging from corporate CEOs to environmental organization presidents. Political leanings will range from far left to far right. For any of these opinion leaders, public relations strategies are likely to be media-centered. Rational appeals based on scientific research should prove to be the most successful. Campaigns aimed at highly educated individuals, with complex stories to tell, would be best carried out through print media. Although opinion leaders may not be highly visible formal leaders in their communities, they help frame and define key issues. Informal opinion leaders tend to be highly informed, articulate, and credible on particular issues. Key national and regional opinion leaders on global warming include scientists like Dr. James Hansen and Dr. Katharine Hayhoe, environmental activists like Greta Thunberg, and political figures such as Al Gore. These leaders utilize media platforms such as interviews, documentaries, social media, and public speeches to disseminate their messages on climate change. Public relations strategies to heighten awareness of these leaders' causes may include: 1. Media Relations: Facilitating interviews and opinion pieces in prominent publications and news channels. 2. Social Media Campaigns: Creating impactful content and leveraging hashtags to amplify messages and engage with a broader audience. 3. Partnerships: Collaborating with influential organizations and celebrities to reach diverse demographics and increase visibility. Attributes of an opinion leader include credibility, expertise, visibility, and the ability to inspire action. They are often seen as trustworthy sources of information and are skilled at framing complex issues in ways that resonate with their audience, thereby influencing public opinion and policy decisions. 2. Cite a celebrity that excels in all three factors of source credibility (expertise, sincerity, and charisma). Give examples of how that celebrity excels in all three areas. Answer: Answers will vary. However they answer this question, students should be able to explain that expertise means that the celebrity is perceived to be an expert on the subject. Sincerity means that the celebrity believes what he/she is saying. Finally, charisma indicates that the celebrity is attractive, self-assured and articulate. Dwayne "The Rock" Johnson is a celebrity who excels in all three factors of source credibility: expertise, sincerity, and charisma. 1. Expertise: Dwayne Johnson is a successful actor, producer, and former professional wrestler. His expertise in entertainment and business is widely recognized, with a proven track record of box office hits and entrepreneurial ventures. 2. Sincerity: Known for his genuine and down-to-earth personality, Johnson connects with his audience through sincerity in his interactions, social media presence, and philanthropic efforts. He often shares personal stories and motivates others with authenticity. 3. Charisma: Johnson's charisma is undeniable; he possesses a magnetic presence both on-screen and off-screen. His ability to engage and inspire people is evident in his roles, interviews, and public appearances, where he consistently displays charm and charisma. Overall, Dwayne Johnson's blend of expertise, sincerity, and charisma contributes to his strong credibility as a celebrity influencer and public figure. Chapter 8—Managing Competition and Conflict 8.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following factors is NOT associated with strategic conflict management? A) limited resources B) different values C) advocacy D) spin E) competition Answer: D 2. What is the first phase of the conflict management lifecycle? A) strategic B) proactive C) recovery D) reactive E) tactical Answer: B 3. What is the strategy taken in the recovery phase of strategic management of conflict? A) monitoring media B) taking preventative actions C) dealing with crisis or disaster D) repairing relations and public image E) conflict positioning Answer: D 4. According to the contingency theory of conflict management, what is the stance of public relations? A) It depends upon a number of factors. B) It is symmetrical. C) It is cooperation. D) It is advocacy. E) It is consistent. Answer: A 5. Which is not a contingency factor that public relations professionals must take into account in managing a conflict with its public? A) external threats B) top management characteristics C) emotional stance of public relations professionals D) personality characteristics of public relations professionals E) organizational-level variables Answer: C 6. After carefully assessing a threat, the public relations professional may decide to A) ignore a pressure group. B) let an issue “die on the vine.” C) disregard the evidence of danger. D) Both A and B. E) None of the above. Answer: D 7. What is the basic principle of the contingency theory of conflict management in public relations? A) A number of factors influence public relations practice. B) The same public relations solution will work every time. C) Public relations practitioners should be concerned only with the welfare of their clients. D) Public relations is always symmetrical. E) Conflicts are always solved through effective communication. Answer: A 8. The dismay and confusion following the Penn State sex abuse scandal resulted from: A) the lack of a crisis communication plan. B) failure to employ proactive conflict management steps. C) a longstanding love for Joe Paterno. D) inaction on the part of the PSU Board of Trustees. E) A and B only. Answer: B 9. Managed correctly, the proactive phase of the conflict management life cycle can A) replace the proactive phase. B) build favorable management attitudes. C) become a strategy all its own. D) work as its own two-way communication channel. E) prevent a conflict from arising. Answer: E 10. In dealing with the public in a conflict, public relations professionals should A) recognize them as a legitimate partner in the process. B) stamp out negative opinion before it gets started. C) do nothing; public opinion has already been formed. D) Remember that the news media comes first. E) minimize risk above all. Answer: A 11. When the public relations professional practices strategic positioning, he/she attempts to A) increase risk for a given public, if necessary. B) position the organization favorably. C) influence organizational behavior. D) Both B and C. E) avoid the impending conflict, regardless of the cost. Answer: D 12. In issues management, if the company decides the emerging issue is potentially damaging, what is the next step? A) issue identification B) issue analysis C) create strategic plan D) begin litigation E) launch image repair Answer: C 13. In crisis communication, is it safe to say that because nothing has gone wrong, then nothing will go wrong? A) No, because there is noise in every system and every design. B) Yes, because the past is the best predictor of the future. C) It depends on the system and the design itself. D) Probably, so based on management decision-making. E) It is impossible to tell. Answer: A 14. According to Suzanne Zoda, all of the following are recommended in risk communication EXCEPT: A) begin early and initiate dialogue with publics. B) hide your concerns until later. C) understand the needs of the news media. D) anticipate and prepare for hostility. E) always be honest. Answer: B 15. ____________ are defined as a “major occurrence with a potentially negative outcome affecting the organization, company, or industry, as well as its publics, products, services, or good names.” A) Conflicts B) Risks C) Threats D) Crises E) Emergencies Answer: D 16. Regarding business crises, it is safe to say that: A) the great majority are expected. B) the great majority are unexpected. C) most are “smoldering” crises. D) with a plan, the business can deal with nearly any crisis. E) Both A and C. Answer: E 17. Recalling the BP oil spill crisis, what was the biggest shortcoming in the company’s social media efforts? A) Company “tweets” put the organization first. B) BP failed to make use of multiple social media channels. C) They designated only one single spokesperson. D) The company appeared to be defensive and negative. E) BP’s social media outreach did not gain enough attention to go viral. Answer: E 18. What is the most accommodative response in an image restoration strategy? A) shift the blame B) attack the accuser C) profuse apology D) denial E) justification Answer: C 19. Coombs says all of the following are crisis communication strategies EXCEPT: A) avoid the media. B) attack the accuser. C) denial. D) excuse. E) justification. Answer: A 20. What does “déjà vu all over again” mean to public relations professionals in the life cycle of strategic conflict management? A) It is ongoing. B) It is reactive. C) It is strategic. D) It is difficult. E) It is impossible to learn from. Answer: A 8.2 True/False Questions 1. Risk communication is the first step in the proactive phase of conflict management. Answer: False 2. The contingency theory of strategic conflict management considers public relations as a continuum process between an organization and its public. Answer: True 3. In the reactive phase of conflict management, an organization should employ strategies either to bolster or repair its reputation in the eyes of key publics. Answer: False 4. The first step of issues management is the analysis of issues after they have become crises. Answer: False 5. The more complex a situation, the higher perception of risk. Answer: True 6. Ingratiation is a crisis communication strategy whereby the organization acts to appease the public involved. Answer: True 7. In the “Free Silva” case, Edelman used a defensive strategy toward Iranian leadership to secure the release of activist Silva Harotonian. Answer: False 8. The three foundations of reputation include economic performance, social responsiveness, and the ability to deliver valuable outcomes to stakeholders. Answer: True 9. In certain situations, the best crisis communication response strategy is a profuse apology. Answer: True 10. Risk communication attempts to convey information regarding risks to public health and safety and the environment. Answer: True 8.3 Essay Questions 1. The life cycle of conflict depicts the four phases in conflict management experienced by public relations professionals. The cycle also includes a few of the numerous public relations strategies that professionals employ to deal with conflict. Explain the four phases of the conflict management cycle. Cite examples for each phase. Answer: Proactive phase: Activities and thought processes that can prevent a conflict from getting out of hand. Strategies include environmental scanning, issues tracking, issues management, and development of a crisis plan. Strategic phase: An emerging conflict is identified as meriting public relations action. Strategies include risk communication, conflict positioning, and development of a crisis management plan. Reactive phase: Here, the public relations professional must react to events as they unfold in the external communication environment. Strategies include crisis communication, conflict resolution techniques, and at times, litigation public relations. Recovery phase: In the aftermath of a crisis, the organization employs strategies to bolster or repair its reputation. Strategies include reputation management and image restoration. 2. Define competition and conflict, and discuss the role of public relations in managing them. Provide an example to illustrate each one. Answer: Competition is inevitable and omnipresent. It occurs when two or more groups or organizations vie for the same resources. Conflict, by contrast, occurs when two groups direct their efforts against each other, devising communication and actions that attack. Public relations can be defined as the strategic management of conflict and competition in the best interests of an organization, and when possible, also in the interests of key publics. The paramount concern of public relations professionals is managing communication in the interests of their employers and clients to enhance their competitive position and handle conflict effectively. Test Bank for Think Public Relations Dennis L. Wilcox, Glen T. Cameron, Bryan H. Reber, Jae-Hwa Shin 9780205916788, 9780205857258
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