CH-5-6 Physical Development and Healthy, Birth to Age – Child M-Series: From Birth to Adolescence : Exam Guide

This Document Contains Chapters 5 to 6 Chapter 05 Physical Development and Healthy, Birth to Age True / False Questions 1. Toddlerhood lasts for a small period between 12 and 18 months of age of the baby. FALSE 2. The American Academy of Pediatrics [AAP] Section on Breastfeeding recommends that babies cannot exclusively be breast-fed for 6 months as additional nutritional food supplements are also required during this period. FALSE 3. Breast-feeding is inadvisable if a mother has been exposed to radiation. TRUE 4. Pediatric experts recommend that iron-enriched solid foods—usually beginning with cereal—should be introduced gradually from the age of 3 months. FALSE 5. The cerebellum, which controls the senses, grows the slowest during the 1st year of life. FALSE 6. Most of the early reflexes disappear after 2 years of age. FALSE 7. Early experiences can have lasting effects on the capacity of the brain to learn and store information due to plasticity. TRUE 8. Long-term institutional care in severely deprived settings has a profound negative effect on many areas of development, including physical growth. TRUE 9. The senses of smell and taste also begin to develop in the womb, and some taste preferences may be largely innate. TRUE 10. Auditory discrimination develops rapidly after 2 years of age. FALSE 11. Vision is the most developed sense at birth. FALSE 12. Binocular vision that enables us to perceive depth and distance usually does not develop until 4 or 5 months. TRUE 13. The Denver Developmental Screening Test measures the baby's motor development on the sole criterion of gross motor skills. FALSE 14. The pace of motor development does not respond to cultural factors. FALSE 15. By 2 months, almost all infants can keep their heads erect while being held or supported in a sitting position. FALSE 16. Haptic perception centered on the mouth occurs immediately after birth; however, haptic information that involves grasping objects comes only after babies develop enough eye-hand coordination to reach for objects and grasp them. TRUE 17. According to dynamic systems theory, typical babies develop the same skills in the same order because they are built approximately the same way and have similar physical challenges and needs. TRUE 18. Shaken baby syndrome is also known as crib death. FALSE 19. Foster care is the safest option for children as it is devoid of any harmful impacts on the child. FALSE 20. Childhood abuse or neglect can delay or alter brain development and undermine emotion regulation. TRUE Multiple Choice Questions 21. A child's rate of growth is most rapid during A. middle childhood. B. infancy. C. late childhood. D. adolescence. 22. According to the cephalocaudal principle A. upper and lower body parts develop simultaneously. B. lower body parts develop before upper parts. C. upper body parts develop before lower parts. D. the order of development depends on environmental influences. 23. Baby Arnold first learned to hold up his head, then to raise his shoulders, and then to push with his feet. Which principle of development does this sequence demonstrate? A. Proximodistal principle B. Rostroventral principle C. Reverse principle D. Cephalocaudal principle 24. A baby's brain during the first year reaches _____ percent of the weight of an adult's brain. A. 40 B. 50 C. 70 D. 80 25. Why are babies' heads so large in proportion to their body size? A. The head widens the birth canal so the rest of the body can pass easily. B. At one year, the brain is 70 percent of its adult weight. C. The brain is surrounded by a large volume of fluid that gradually subsides after birth. D. The head has excess fat at birth to protect it during passage through the birth canal. 26. The _____ principle states that growth and motor development proceed from the center of the body outward. A. lateral B. cephalocaudal C. neurological D. proximodistal 27. Babies first move their arms, then move their hands toward objects, and finally use their fingers. This sequence demonstrates the _____ principle of development. A. lateral B. rostro dorsal C. proximodistal D. neurological 28. Which of the following is an environmental influence that affects the physical development in the early years of life? A. The genotype of the child B. The nutrition provided by the mother C. The chromosomal abnormalities inherited from the mother D. The inherent disposition of the baby 29. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that infants receive breast milk rather than cow's milk until they are over _____ months old. A. 6 B. 9 C. 10 D. 18 30. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that infants be given A. cow's milk at least for first three months. B. skimmed milk rather than whole milk, to prevent obesity. C. breast milk exclusively for the first six months. D. iron-enriched solid foods, usually cereals from 3 months of age. 31. Which of the following is true regarding breast-feeding? A. Such factors as short postpartum maternity leave, lack of flexible scheduling, and a lack of privacy make it difficult to sustain breast-feeding. B. Breast-feeding should begin immediately after a week of birth and continue for at least 2 years. C. Despite United Nations' initiative encouraging institutional support of breast-feeding, the U.S. hospitals still did not witness an increase in breast-feeding. D. Babies cannot exclusively be breast-fed for 6 months as additional nutritional food supplements are also required. 32. Which of the following women would be advised NOT to breast-feed? A. Carol, who is overweight B. Ellen, who drinks 2 cups of coffee per day C. Cindy, who has maternity leave only for three-weeks D. Alison, who has been on heavy medications following an infection 33. Which of the following statements about obesity is true? A. Lack of iron-enriched solid foods, usually cereals, in the initial 6 months leads to obesity among infants. B. Obesity has increased in infancy as it has in all age groups in the United States. C. An overweight child having obese parents is not likely to become obese later in life. D. Infants in the United States eat an average of 20% less than normal daily food intake requirements. 34. Which of the following statements reflects the pattern of brain development in infancy and toddlerhood? A. The brain reaches its complete adult size by the end of gestation. B. The cerebellum experiences least development in the first two years of life. C. The brain growth occurs in fits and starts called brain growth spurts. D. The spinal cord lacks the ability to coordinate reflex behaviors in the first two years of life. 35. Which of the following brain structures has its major growth period before birth and is responsible for basic bodily functions, such as breathing and heart rate? A. Brain stem B. Limbic system C. Cerebrum D. Frontal lobe 36. Scientists have concluded that the cerebellum grows most rapidly A. during the first year of life. B. between 2 and 5 years of age. C. during middle childhood. D. during adolescence. 37. The brain A. represents the least developed organ of the nervous system at birth. B. develops at even pace, rather than in fits and starts. C. begins to develop only after the brain stem and spinal cord have developed completely. D. develops from a long hollow tube into a spherical mass of cells. 38. Which part of the brain is divided into two cerebral hemispheres? A. Cerebellum B. Brain stem C. Cerebrum D. Medulla oblongata 39. Which of the following is the primary function of the left hemisphere of the brain? A. Visual and spatial functions B. Language and logical thinking C. Respiration and metabolism D. Balance coordination 40. Which of the following is the primary function of the right hemisphere of the brain? A. Balance coordination B. Language C. Logical thinking D. Visual and spatial functions 41. The function of the corpus callosum is to A. join the two hemispheres of the cerebrum. B. control breathing in newborns. C. maintain balance and motor coordination. D. maintain body temperature in infants. 42. The cerebral cortex plays an important role in A. executing the primitive reflexes. B. controlling postural reflexes. C. regulating locomotor reflexes. D. coordinating sensory information. 43. Which of the following statements regarding the cerebral cortex is true? A. The cerebral cortex primarily maintains balance and motor coordination. B. The parts of the cerebral cortex that govern mental associations and remembering are mature by 5 years of age. C. The parts of the cerebral cortex that are responsible for vision, hearing, and other sensory information are mature by 6 months of age. D. The cerebral cortex is like a giant switchboard of fibers connecting the hemispheres and allowing them to share information and coordinate commands. 44. An automatic, innate reaction to stimulation is known as a(n) A. unconditioned response. B. reflex. C. mental set. D. conditioned response. 45. By examining an infant's reflex behaviors, we can assess the _____ of the infant. A. neurological development B. language development C. handedness D. cognitive development 46. Reflex behaviors that gradually disappear during the early months of infancy are called _____ reflexes. A. voluntary B. primitive C. locomotor D. planned 47. Which of the following characterizes the Moro reflex in infants? A. Well-coordinated swimming movements B. Sucking and rooting for the nipple C. Extending arms and drawing back head D. Grasping any object placed in their palm 48. As the higher brain centers become active during the first 2 to 4 months, babies begin to show _____ reflexes which are reactions to changes in position or balance. A. locomotor B. primitive C. postural D. planned 49. Although many of an infant's reflexes disappear during the first year, three reflexes that remain are the _____ reflexes. A. blinking, gagging, and sneezing B. swimming, blinking, and Moro C. grasping, rooting, and sucking D. rooting, swimming, and placing 50. Which of the following is a locomotor reflex? A. Blinking B. Walking C. Rooting D. Shivering 51. Although the brain's early development is in large part genetically directed, its structure is continually modified by environmental experiences and this modifiability is called _____. A. brevity B. transitivity C. sensitivity D. plasticity 52. In brain development, normal elimination of excess cells to achieve more efficient functioning is known as _____. A. meiosis B. cell death C. mitosis D. cell organization 53. Based on experiments done with animals, which of the following statements about environmental influences on brain development is correct? A. Positive experiences or an enriched environment can spur brain development. B. Early experiences can affect cognitive and social functioning but cannot bring about actual physical changes. C. Negative experiences have been shown to have little or no effect on brain development. D. Negative experiences have been shown to have an adverse impact on development only when the infant is born with a genetic vulnerability. 54. Typically, the first sense to develop in the infants is the sense of A. smell. B. touch. C. sight. D. hearing. 55. Which of the following statements best characterizes the ability to feel touch and pain in newborns? A. Newborns lack the receptors for pain till about one year of age. B. Sensitivity to touch develops only once the child has been delivered. C. By about 32 weeks, all parts of the body of the fetus are sensitive to touch. D. Typically, anesthesia is the safest pain management measure used for newborns. 56. Jenna's doctor recommends that she provide her newborn son with more sensory stimulation focusing on touch. Which of the following techniques should Jenna use? A. Test his locomotor reflexes B. Rub the infant's back C. Turn the lights on and off D. Show the infant complex pictures 57. When taking blood samples from infants, physicians typically A. utilize epidural anesthesia to numb the part of the body from which blood is being drawn. B. play soothing music to divert the baby's attention from the pain. C. utilize general anesthesia to eliminate any chances of pain. D. administer a sweet solution for the baby to suck on in order to manage the pain. 58. Newborns have an innate preference for _____ tastes. A. bitter B. sour C. sweet D. salty 59. Which of the following tastes would a newborn most likely prefer? A. Water B. Honey C. Tangy lemonade D. Broccoli chunks 60. A study of infants' hearing suggests that infants identify new speech sounds from those they've heard A. as early as 3 days after birth. B. at about 6 weeks after birth. C. at about a month after birth. D. as early as 15 days after birth. 61. Which of the following sensory systems is least developed at the time of birth? A. Touch B. Vision C. Smell D. Taste 62. A baby's visual powers during the first two months of life include all of the following except A. blinking at bright lights. B. 20/20 visual acuity. C. focusing on the mother's face. D. having narrow peripheral vision. 63. Vision becomes more acute during the first year, reaching the 20/20 level by about the __________ month. A. second B. fourth C. sixth D. eighth 64. Binocular vision usually develops A. in the first week of life. B. after the fourth or fifth month of life. C. before the first month of life. D. in the first two weeks of life. 65. The Denver Developmental Screening Test assesses A. the gross motor skills of the baby. B. the temperament of the baby. C. the innate traits of the baby. D. the level of arousal at birth. 66. Physical skills that involve the large muscles are called __________ motor skills. A. gross B. latent C. fine D. soft 67. Physical skills that involve the small muscles and eye-hand coordination are called _____ motor skills. A. mass B. fine C. lateral D. gross 68. To observe the development of a child's fine motor skills, a psychologist asks the child to A. draw with a crayon. B. read a children's book. C. sing a song. D. narrate a story. 69. Which of the following motor skills is present at birth? A. The ability of infants to turn their heads from side to side B. The ability of infants to hold the head erect while being held C. The ability of infants to sit up unassisted D. The ability of infants to roll over purposefully 70. Barbara is delighted that her 4-month-old son Matt is developing normally. He is now able to A. stand with support. B. pick up small objects. C. roll over. D. sit unsupported. 71. At the age of about _____ months, Branda could assume a sitting position without help while her father took her picture. A. 4 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10 72. Most babies begin using a variety of forms of self-locomotion like creeping or crawling between the ages of _____ months. A. 3 to 5 B. 6 to 10 C. 9 to 12 D. 12 to 15 73. Which of the following milestones of motor development has the greatest impact on the infant's ability to explore? A. The ability to hold the head erect B. The ability to sit without support C. The achievement of self-locomotion D. The development of the precision grip 74. Tina has just begun to walk regularly and steadily without assistance. If Tina is an "average" child, she is approximately ___ months old. A. 8 B. 12 C. 18 D. 15 75. _____ perception is the ability to perceive objects and surfaces in three dimensions and it depends on cues that affect the image of an object on the retina of the eye. A. Haptic B. Depth C. Subliminal D. Kinesthetic 76. Which of the following is necessary for proper depth perception? A. Binocular coordination B. Monocular cues C. Chromatic vision D. 20/20 visual acuity 77. When toy designers develop toys for infants, it is helpful for them to be aware that haptic perception is A. the ability to acquire information about different tastes through the taste buds. B. the ability to accurately see items that are far away. C. the ability to accurately see items that are in close proximity. D. the ability to acquire information by handling objects, rather than by just looking at them. 78. The visual cliff is an apparatus for testing an infant's _____. A. monocular cues B. depth perception C. reflex behaviors D. fine motor skills 79. According to the Gibsons's ecological theory of perception A. babies continually gauge their abilities and their surroundings and adapt their movements accordingly. B. locomotion develops in functionally related stages. C. the development of motor and perceptual abilities is independent of one another. D. locomotion develops solely as a function of a child's own physical development, E. rather than a function of the environment he finds himself in. 80. According to Thelen A. maturation is the sole force behind motor development. B. a largely automatic, preordained series of steps directed by the brain determine motor C. development. D. motor development is a continuous process of interaction between baby and environment. E. nature or one's genetic material is adequate to explain one's motor development and F. growth. 81. The infant mortality rate is defined as the proportion of babies who die _____ for every 1,000 live births. A. during birth B. within the first year of birth C. after 2 years of age D. between 1to 3 years of age 82. Eighty-six percent of all neonatal deaths are the result of _____ at birth in the United States. A. asphyxia B. cancer C. automobile accidents D. severe infections 83. Which of the following is/are the leading cause of infant deaths in the United States? A. Asphyxia B. Obesity C. Birth defects D. Anoxia 84. The overall improvement in U.S. infant mortality rates since 1990, even at a time when more babies are born dangerously small, is attributable largely to the A. prevention of toxoplasmosis. B. reduction of preterm births. C. prevention of SIDS. D. reduction of cesarean births. 85. The infant mortality rate for African-American babies in the United States is __________ than the rate for white babies. A. two times higher B. 0.5 times lesser C. about ten times higher D. 1.5 times lesser 86. Certain behavioral factors can help account for racial and ethnic disparities in infant mortality rates. Which of the following is NOT such a factor? A. Mother's obesity during pregnancy B. Maternal smoking C. Maternal alcohol consumption D. Mother's neurotic illness 87. _____ is the sudden and unexplained death of an infant under one year. A. Crib death B. Down syndrome C. Hyaline membrane disease D. Shaken baby syndrome 88. Mr. Lewis, a pediatrician in Seattle City Hospital, is giving young parents advice on how they can reduce the likelihood of SIDS. What is he most likely to be telling them? A. Babies should be encouraged to sleep on their backs. B. Infants should sleep in adult beds with one or more adults. C. Infants should not be given pacifiers at this age. D. Infants should sleep on soft surfaces, such as pillows or quilts. 89. Which of the following children is at the greatest risk of SIDS? A. Alexandria, a 10-month-old girl has frequent cold. B. Barry, a 2-weeks-old boy who has irregular sleep patterns and has an overweight mother. C. Curt, a month-old boy, whose mother is unmarried and addicted to alcohol D. Samantha, a 6-months-old girl who had a difficult birth. 90. _____ accounts for about two-thirds of injury deaths in the 1st year of life in the United States. A. Suffocation B. Toxoplasmosis C. Burn injury D. Traffic accident 91. Which of the following statements regarding immunizations and young children is true? A. In the United States, polio and pertussis largely still persist due to the limited access to vaccinations for these infections. B. The scientific community has widely supported the belief that infants receive far more vaccinations than their immune system can handle. C. Vaccines only work if a high enough proportion of the population is inoculated. D. Infants from all regions and economic backgrounds receive vaccinations as the health care system is the United States provides universal coverage. 92. In infancy, lack of appropriate growth for no known medical cause that is accompanied by poor developmental and emotional functioning is known as _____. A. nonorganic failure to thrive B. sudden infant death syndrome C. crib death syndrome D. child maltreatment 93. Which of the following results from child maltreatment? A. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome B. Down syndrome C. Turner syndrome D. Shaken baby syndrome 94. When authorities remove a child from his/her home, the usual alternative placement is A. foster care. B. a cooperative. C. with relatives. D. assisted living facilities. 95. An estimated ___ of adults who were maltreated during childhood victimize their own children. A. one-third B. half C. two-third D. three-third Essay Questions 96. Pediatricians encourage new mothers to consider breast-feeding their babies. Explain the physiological and psychological advantages of breast-feeding. Answer: With regard to nutrition, breast-feeding is almost always best for infants. It should begin immediately after birth and continue for at least 1 year. The American Academy of Pediatrics [AAP] Section on Breastfeeding recommends that babies be exclusively breast-fed for 6 months. A recent study calculating the benefits of breast-feeding determined that if 90 percent of the U.S. mothers in the study complied with the AAP's recommendation to breast-feed for 6 months, potentially 911 infant deaths could be prevented and the United States could save $13 billion annually. Breast-fed babies are less likely to contract infectious illness like diarrhea, respiratory infections, and so on. They are less likely to need braces and would have fewer cavities. They are less likely to show language and motor delays. Breast-feeding mothers enjoy quicker recovery from childbirth with less risk of postpartum bleeding. They report feeling more confident and less anxious. They are more likely to return to their prepregnancy weight and less likely to develop long-term obesity. 97. Technological advances have allowed researchers to observe brain activity in infants at the cell level. Describe how the development of neurological synaptic networks and cell death contribute to the optimization of development. Answer: Technological advances have allowed researchers to observe brain activity in infants at the cell level. When a brain is malnourished, it cannot form new connections or add appropriate amounts of myelin to the axons of nerve cells because it lacks the required substances to do so. In addition, exposure to hazardous drugs, environmental toxins, or maternal stress can threaten the developing brain. For example, early abuse or sensory impoverishment can delay neural development or negatively affect brain structure. The lack of enriching experiences may inhibit the normal process of cell death and the streamlining of neural connections, resulting in smaller head size and reduced brain activity. If certain neural connections are not made early in life, these brain circuits may shut down forever. For example, children with a "lazy eye" who are not treated when young will forever lose the ability to process visual input through the affected eye, even if their muscle control is later corrected. However, just as negative experiences can affect the brain adversely, positive experiences or an enriched environment can spur brain development and even make up for past deprivation. 98. List the senses that are the most and least functional at birth. Answer: The regions of the developing brain that control sensory information grow rapidly during the first few months of life, enabling newborn infants to make fairly good sense of what they touch, see, smell, taste, and hear. Touch is the first sense to develop; for the first several months it is the most mature sensory system. By 32 weeks of gestation, all body parts are sensitive to touch, and this sensitivity increases during the first 5 days of life. When a newborn's cheek is stroked near the mouth, the baby responds by trying to find a nipple, a reflex that is probably an evolved survival mechanism. Vision is the least developed sense at birth. From an evolutionary developmental perspective, the other senses are more directly related to a newborn's survival. Visual perception and the ability to use visual information—identifying caregivers, finding food, and avoiding dangers—become more important as infants become more alert and active. 99. Explain how the development of self-locomotion affects cognitive, psychosocial, and physical attributes. Answer: Between 6 and 10 months, most babies begin to get around by creeping or crawling. This achievement of self-locomotion has striking cognitive and psychosocial benefits. Crawling infants become more sensitive to where objects are, how big they are, whether they can be moved, and how they look. Crawling helps babies learn to better judge distances and perceive depth. Crawling is not technically a motor milestone. Some babies move directly from sitting to walking, sometimes scooting on their bottoms in place of crawling. By holding on to a helping hand or a piece of furniture, the average baby can stand at a little past 7 months. The average baby can let go and stand well alone at about 11 months. At this point, the baby is ready to learn how to walk. Babies often practice standing and walking more than 6 hours a day, on and off, and may take enough steps to cover the length of 29 football fields! Within a few weeks the baby is walking fairly well and thus achieves the status of toddler. 100. Describe the various forms of childhood maltreatment. What are some possible long-term effects of maltreatment? Answer: Maltreatment can take several forms. These include physical abuse, neglect, sexual abuse, and Emotional maltreatment. Physical abuse is injury to the body through punching, beating, kicking, or burning. Neglect is the failure to meet a child's basic needs, such as food, clothing, medical care, protection, and supervision. Sexual abuse is any sexual activity involving a child and an older person. Emotional maltreatment includes rejection; terrorization; isolation; exploitation; degradation; ridicule; or failure to provide emotional support, love, and affection. Without help, maltreated children often grow up with serious problems and may continue the cycle of maltreatment when they have children of their own. An estimated one-third of adults who were abused and neglected in childhood victimize their own children. Childhood abuse or neglect can delay or alter brain development and undermine emotion regulation. Long-term effects of maltreatment include poor physical, mental, and emotional health; impaired brain development; cognitive, language, and academic difficulties; memory problems; emotional instability; problems in attachment and social relationships; and attention and behavioral problems. As adolescents, children who have been abused or neglected are at heightened risk of poor academic achievement, delinquency, pregnancy, alcohol and drug use, and suicide. As adults, they tend to be in poor health and to develop fatal illnesses, such as stroke, cancer, and heart disease. Adults who were maltreated early in life tend to be anxious or depressed; those who were older when maltreated are more likely to show aggression and to engage in substance abuse. Sexually abused children tend to show disturbed behavior; to have low self-esteem; and to be depressed, anxious, or unhappy, or develop certain eating disorders, and they may become sexually active at an early age. Adults who were sexually abused as children tend to be anxious, depressed, angry, or hostile; to mistrust people; to feel isolated and stigmatized; to be sexually maladjusted; and to abuse alcohol or drugs. One study found that adults who were victims of severe childhood sexual abuse were more likely to engage in violence in their relationships. However, many maltreated children show remarkable resilience. Optimism, self-esteem, intelligence, creativity, humor, and independence are protective factors, as is the social support of a caring adult. Chapter 06 Cognitive Development, 0 to 3 True / False Questions 1. Classically conditioned learning becomes extinct if it is not reinforced by repeated association. TRUE 2. Operant conditioning enables infants to anticipate an event before it happens by forming associations between stimuli that regularly occur together. FALSE 3. The Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development uses separate scores called intelligence quotients for each scale. FALSE 4. The Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development is helpful in understanding sensory and neurological deficits but cannot determine emotional disturbances in infants. FALSE 5. Using the HOME assessment requires the primary caregiver to provide open-ended and descriptive responses related to the child's development. FALSE 6. The HOME factors are associated with high intelligence and achievement. TRUE 7. According to the Piagetian approach, during the sixth substage of the sensorimotor stage, babies begin to learn how to coordinate input from their senses and organize their activities in relation to their environment. FALSE 8. According to Piaget, the journey from reflex behavior to the beginnings of thought is a short one because children make the breakthrough to conceptual thought during the second half of the 1st year. FALSE 9. Once the infant has become habituated to a type of stimulation, increasing or decreasing the intensity of that stimulus will not elicit a reaction. FALSE 10. The information processing approach explains that babies have individual differences in efficiency of information processing. TRUE 11. Piaget maintained that the understanding of causality develops slowly during the 3rd year of life. FALSE 12. In early infancy, when the structures responsible for memory storage are not fully formed, memories are relatively fleeting. TRUE 13. The prefrontal cortex develops faster than any other part in the brain as it is believed to control many aspects of cognition. FALSE 14. According to learning theory, children learn language through classical conditioning. FALSE 15. Crying is a newborn's first means of communication. TRUE 16. When infants become familiar with the sounds of words and phrases, they begin to attach meanings to them. TRUE 17. At first, infants do not have their sensitivity to sounds that are not part of the language or languages they usually hear. FALSE 18. A word that expresses a complete thought is called a holophrase. TRUE 19. Symbolic gestures often emerge around the same time as babies say their first words, and they function much like words. TRUE 20. Repetitive babbling may emerge with the maturation of parts of the prefrontal cortex. FALSE Multiple Choice Questions 21. In classical conditioning, the subject exhibits a(n) _____ response to what at one time was a _____ stimuli. A. automatic; neutral B. voluntary; neutral C. automatic; biological D. programmed; biological 22. Two-year-old Monica was playing with a balloon when it accidentally burst in her hands and frightened her. Now, whenever she sees a balloon, she starts to cry. This type of learning is called A. habituation. B. operant conditioning. C. classical conditioning. D. latent learning. 23. Two-year-old Rhonda received an injection from a doctor who had a beard and wore glasses. Now she fears any man who has a beard and wears glasses. Rhonda's fear is a result of A. operant conditioning. B. classical conditioning. C. maturation. D. habituation. 24. Amy knows that when she runs over and stands quietly by her grandfather's chair, he will reach over and tickle her under her chin. _____ enables Amy to behave in this specific way to obtain a specific result. A. Habituation B. Aversive conditioning C. Operant conditioning D. Maturation 25. In operant conditioning A. the learner acts on the environment. B. the learner remains passive in the learning process. C. the learner fails to respond to a stimulus. D. the person learns to make an involuntary response to a stimulus that originally did not provoke the response. 26. Linda has learned that if she sits on the floor and cries, sooner or later, an adult will give her a piece of candy. This is an example of A. extinction. B. classical conditioning. C. operant conditioning. D. latent learning. 27. Which of the following involves learning based on reinforcement and punishment? A. Mental set B. Cognitive dissonance C. Information-processing D. Operant conditioning 28. The _____ approach to cognitive development attempts to measure intelligence quantitatively. A. psychometric B. Piagetian C. information-processing D. behaviorist 29. The psychometric study of intelligence involves all the following functions except A. identifying the different abilities that make up intelligence. B. measuring the relative amounts of different intellectual abilities that individuals possess. C. predicting the future academic performance of individuals. D. assessing qualitative differences in intellectual functioning over the life span. 30. Dr. Leon, a college professor, is explaining to students why it is difficult to assess the intelligence of infants. Which of the following is the reason for this difficulty? A. All infants seem to show the same level of ability. B. There are difficulties in the ability to understand and interpret their failure to respond in a test. C. Intelligence does not develop until after infancy. D. There are no tests to assess an infant's intelligence and developmental functioning. 31. The Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development assesses children from 1 month to 3 1/2 years and produces a(n) A. intelligence quotient score. B. report of mental, motor, and behavioral development. C. developmental assessment that accounts for internal deficits but fails to evaluate environmental deficits. D. single measure of reflex development. 32. Which of the following is not a developmental area assessed by the Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development? A. Language development B. Cognitive development C. Logical skills development D. Motor skills development 33. HOME is an instrument for evaluating the effect of a child's home environment on A. physical development. B. emotional health. C. cognitive development. D. future career success. 34. Which of the following is true of the HOME measure? A. The HOME instrument for infants and toddlers requires one day to be administered to the subject. B. HOME scores are significantly correlated with measures of cognitive development. C. HOME items are unable to assess the environmental deficits a toddler may experience. D. The HOME instrument avoids the use of a rating on a yes-or-no basis. 35. Based on research using the HOME measure A. socioeconomic status is proven to be the cause of poor cognitive development. B. ethnicity is established as a causal factor in cognitive deficits of children. C. developmental problems in infancy are diagnosed. D. parental responsiveness is firmly associated with better cognitive functioning. 36. _____ is a systematic process of planning and providing therapeutic and educational services for families that need help in meeting infants', toddlers', and preschool children's developmental needs. A. Dishabituation B. Early intervention C. Guided participation D. Operant conditioning 37. The most effective early education interventions include those that A. end during the preschool years. B. involve the minimum use of time. C. focus on individual differences and needs. D. utilize parental training without the interference of child development centers. 38. The _____ approach to cognitive development focuses on the quality of cognitive functioning at different stages of infancy and toddlerhood. A. psychometric B. Piagetian C. information-processing D. behaviorist 39. Alfred has a mathematics background and believes strongly in quantitative measures of variables. Jeanne insists that many important developmental outcomes are more qualitative than numerical. It would appear that Alfred supports the ______ approach to studying cognitive development, whereas Jeanne believes in the ______ approach. A. Piagetian; psychometric B. psychometric; Piagetian C. behaviorist; psychometric D. Piagetian; behaviorist 40. Dr. Kelly examines how children think and how their cognition changes in stages from infancy. She is using the ______ approach here. A. behaviorist B. Piagetian C. psychometric D. quantitative 41. The Piagetian approach focuses on A. qualitative changes in cognition. B. quantitative differences in intelligence. C. establishing norms for intelligence tests. D. the relationship of brain development to sensorimotor function. 42. Polly spends her day discovering the world by putting almost everything she touches in her mouth. This implies that she is in Piaget's first cognitive stage known as the A. sensorimotor stage. B. preoperational stage. C. concrete operational stage. D. formal operational stage. 43. The sensorimotor stage A. ends at 6 months of age. B. consists of the period from birth to about 2 years. C. continues throughout the first four years of life. D. lasts from birth until six years of age. 44. Which of the following is true of the Piagetian approach? A. It focuses on how the mind structures its activities and adapts to the environment. B. The sensorimotor stage of the Piagetian approach consists of ten substages. C. The sensorimotor stage of the Piagetian approach ranges from the ages of 2 to 5 years. D. The Piagetian approach measures quantitative differences in abilities that comprise intelligence by using tests that indicate or predict these abilities. 45. One-year-old Jonathan has a snack of cookies every afternoon. During snack time, whenever his dog, Abby, approaches him, Jonathan quickly puts his cookie into his mouth. We may conclude that Jonathan has developed an organized pattern of behavior that Piaget referred to as a(n) A. operation. B. scheme. C. gestalt. D. meme. 46. Emma loves to place her cheek on the window because she likes the sensation of the cool breeze against her face when she touches the window. She learns to repeat this action to get a pleasurable sensation. According to Piaget, she has learned a(n) A. reflex action. B. circular reaction. C. unconditioned response. D. symbolic representation. 47. According to Piaget, a baby who habitually chews on the satin lining of her blanket is experiencing a A. primary circular reaction. B. secondary circular reaction. C. tertiary circular reaction. D. coordination of secondary schemes. 48. Infants who repeat actions to get results beyond their own bodies are engaging in A. primary circular reactions. B. secondary circular reactions. C. deferred imitations. D. sensorimotor conditioning. 49. Eight-month-old Gina finds that when she pulls on the cord at the side of her playpen, her jumping jack goes up and down and so she pulls the cord repeatedly. Gina's action in scenario is characteristic of the substage of A. primary circular reactions. B. secondary circular reactions. C. coordination of secondary schemes. D. tertiary circular reactions. 50. Sandra has learned to squeeze her stuffed bear to make it squeak. When her father gives her a new stuffed toy, she squeezes it the same way she squeezes the bear. Here, Sandra's action is an example of A. primary reflexes. B. primary circular reactions. C. secondary circular reactions. D. coordination of secondary schemes. 51. Baby Lydia likes to play with small pots and pans as they make noise. She enjoys the sound, but often gets tired after a short time. She then puts a container in front of her and beats that with a large spoon. It is much easier and the noise is even louder this way. This is an example of which of the following concepts? A. Primary circular reactions B. Secondary circular reactions C. Tertiary circular reactions D. Reflex behaviors 52. Adam tries to get his bunny off the top of his toy box. After several failed attempts with his arm, he brings the toy down using a toy sword. This example of a tertiary circular reaction involves A. focusing on pleasant bodily sensations first achieved by chance. B. trying out different ways of attaining the goal. C. repeating the identical action whether successful or not. D. manipulating symbols to store concepts and schemes. 53. The substage of sensorimotor development in which the child uses trial and error to find which one of his or her physical skills works best for a particular task is referred to as A. primary circular reactions. B. secondary circular reactions. C. coordination of secondary schemes. D. tertiary circular reactions. 54. Which of the following substages of the sensorimotor stage marks a transition into the preoperational stage of early childhood? A. Tertiary circular reactions B. Primary reflexes C. Primary circular reactions D. Mental combinations 55. Which of the following abilities in the sensorimotor stage frees toddlers from immediate experience? A. Adaptational ability B. Use of causality C. Representational ability D. Use of schemes 56. Alex watches his mother play tennis in the morning. Later, when he is alone, Alex picks up a stick and swings it like a tennis racquet, imitating his mother's actions from earlier in the day. According to Piaget's stages of cognitive development, Alex is in the _____ substage of the sensorimotor stage. A. 3rd B. 4th C. 5th D. 6th 57. Piaget's observation that infants under the age of about 8 months act as if an object no longer exists once it is out of their line of sight, led to his theorizing that A. toddlers below the age of two years have the ability to mentally represent objects and actions. B. objects have independent existence, characteristics, and locations in space for infants and toddlers. C. children do not understand the concept of numbers before the age of 2. D. object permanence is an innate feature of cognition and is present at birth. 58. Penny loves to play peek-a-boo with her baby brother. The realization that an object or person continues to exist even when out of sight is known as A. habituation. B. object permanence. C. joint symbolism. D. object fixation. 59. Leo cries loudly every time his mother leaves the room and cannot bear being separated from her. He seems to believe that she is never coming back. Leo has not yet developed the sense of A. anticipatory insight. B. emotional attachment. C. transitivity. D. object permanence. 60. Research on object permanence suggests that A. a baby's failure to search for hidden objects is a result of his/her inability to perform the sequence of actions necessary for solving a problem. B. the violation-of-expectations technique cannot be used to study object permanence. C. infants as young as 4 months typically remember an object that they can no longer see. D. babies gaze longer at possible events than at impossible events. 61. Macy, who is one-year old, becomes curious and looks around for her father when he hides himself behind the closet. This is an example of what Piaget referred to as A. classical conditioning. B. object permanence. C. operant conditioning. D. transitivity. 62. The ______ approach to cognitive development focuses on perception, learning, memory, and problem solving. A. information-processing B. behaviorist C. contextual D. social 63. Virginia has noticed that her baby no longer looks at the picture of the dinosaur on his bedroom wall due to repeated exposure to it. A baby's gradual loss of interest in a particular picture is evidence of A. habituation. B. classical conditioning. C. operant conditioning. D. joint recognition. 64. Baby Stephanie stops sucking her thumb to listen to a tone. She resumes sucking and stops again when the tone sounds again. Later, after the tone has been repeated a number of times, she ignores it. This is an example of A. operant conditioning. B. classical conditioning. C. habituation. D. reflex action. 65. Researchers study habituation in infants by A. pairing a neutral stimulus with a conditioned stimulus to produce a conditioned response. B. reinforcing infants' responses to stimuli so that the infants will continue to make these responses. C. testing infants for development of object permanence. D. repeatedly presenting the same stimulus to see if an infant loses interest in it. 66. A baby who experiences 100 presentations of a high-pitched tone no longer reacts to the sound by stopping the sucking response. When a low-pitched tone is presented, the baby does stop sucking. This cessation of sucking caused by the new tone is called A. dishabituation. B. habituation. C. extinction. D. circular reaction. 67. Doris noticed that her infant son Alex had become bored with the mobile hanging above his crib. When Doris hung new pictures on the mobile, Alex's responsiveness increased. This is referred to as A. a circular reaction. B. violation of expectations. C. habituation. D. dishabituation. 68. The tendency of infants to spend more time looking at one sight than another is called A. habituation. B. visual-recognition. C. visual preference. D. divided attention. 69. Research with babies less than 2 days old suggests that they seem to prefer all of the following except A. curved lines. B. complex patterns. C. three-dimensional objects. D. familiar sights. 70. Research on visual recognition memory demonstrates that very young infants A. pay more attention to familiar patterns than to new ones. B. pay more attention to new patterns than to familiar ones. C. cannot discriminate between new patterns and familiar patterns. D. attend to new and familiar patterns with the same amount of time and attention. 71. _____ increases rapidly in the first three years of life and greatly impacts visual preference and visual recognition. A. Habituation B. Subliminal perception C. Speed of processing D. Reflex behaviors 72. Which of the following is true of the research conducted on visual processing abilities of babies? A. Researchers suggest that babies have consistent differences in efficiency of information processing. B. Studies show that babies look longer at familiar stimuli than novel ones. C. Research suggests that babies less than 2 days old prefer straight lines to curved lines and two-dimensional objects to three-dimensional objects. D. Studies suggest that babies are able to represent objects in memory, even before achieving object permanence. 73. The capacity for joint attention develops by about _____ months. A. 6 B. 12 C. 18 D. 24 74. _____ is a research method in which dishabituation to a stimulus that conflicts with experience is taken as evidence that an infant recognizes the new stimulus as surprising. A. Still-face paradigm B. Violation of expectations C. Visual preference D. Strange Situation 75. The research method that is based on an infant's tendency to look longer at surprising phenomena rather than at familiar phenomena is known as A. guided participation. B. violation of expectations. C. grounded research. D. still-face paradigm. 76. Baillargeon's studies of babies' understanding found that A. object permanence occurs in infants as young as 3½ months. B. infants in the sensorimotor period are unaware of causality. C. vision is particularly important in the development of joint attention. D. the more time a baby spends looking at something, the more the baby must like it. 77. Baillargeon and DeVos used the violence-of-expectations method and showed that A. babies searched for a lost object where they thought it was hidden. B. babies looked longer at the impossible events. C. babies looked longer at unfamiliar objects. D. babies searched for a lost object where they had last seen it. 78. Wynn's study using Mickey Mouse dolls indicated that 5-month-old children A. are able to assimilate two contradictory results. B. are functioning at Piaget's sixth sensorimotor stage. C. are unable to subtract small numbers of objects. D. are able to add small numbers of objects. 79. Leah has been amusing her parents with her ability to remember new words, peoples' names, and the names of her dolls. This type of intentional memory that allows children to recall and declare facts, names, and events is known as _____ memory. A. explicit B. latent C. procedural D. non-declarative 80. _____ memory refers to remembering that occurs without effort or even conscious awareness. A. Implicit B. Declarative C. Episodic D. Semantic 81. The _____ approach examines the hardware of the central nervous system to identify what brain structures are involved in functions like thinking, remembering, and reasoning. A. psychoanalytic B. behaviorist C. cognitive neuroscience D. social-contextual 82. The short-term storage of information that the brain actively processes is referred to as _____ memory. A. episodic B. semantic C. implicit D. working 83. Which of the following statements about memory is likely to be true about Isabelle, a 10-month-old infant? A. She is able to understand the principles of reversibility. B. She has not yet developed the capacity for implicit memory. C. She has begun to develop the capacity for working memory. D. She has a fully functional prefrontal cortex that enables her to perform complex tasks. 84. The _____ approach to cognitive development primarily examines the impact of the environment on learning processes. A. information-processing B. psychometric C. neuroscience D. social-contextual 85. _____ considered guided participation important and thought of learning as a collaborative process. A. Piaget B. Vygotsky C. Bronfenbrenner D. Chomsky 86. Amos is trying to teach his son Timothy to tie his shoes. He demonstrates the procedure and then talks his son through the steps until Timothy can perform the task on his own. Vygotsky referred to these activities that help bridge the gap between the child's understanding and the adult's understanding as A. interaction effects. B. symbolic interaction. C. guided participation. D. reciprocal interaction. 87. _____ suggests that human beings have an inborn capacity or mechanism for acquiring language. A. Learning theory B. Nativism C. Behaviorist theory D. Social-learning theory 88. The concept of a language acquisition device in the human brain is part of which of the following theory of language development? A. Behaviorist theory B. Social-learning theory C. Piagetian theory D. Nativism 89. An early form of sentence use consisting of only a few essential words is called A. holophrase. B. transformational grammar. C. telegraphic speech D. motherese. 90. Helen spends all day listening to her baby babbling and cooing. She believes that she and her baby are having conversations. The baby is practicing A. motherese. B. prelinguistic speech. C. linguistic speech. D. nonsymbolic speech. 91. Seven-month-old Benjamin babbles and coos but has not spoken a single word. The sounds he makes constitute _____ speech. A. parentese B. holophrase C. circular D. prelinguistic 92. The first types of gestures to emerge in an infant's repertoire are _____ gestures. A. conventional social B. representational C. semantic D. symbolic 93. Ozzy is celebrating his first birthday. After he blows out the candles, he blows a kiss to his grandmother. Ozzy's attempt to communicate with his grandmother in this manner is an example of a A. conventional social gesture. B. representational gesture. C. verbal gesture. D. telegraphic gesture. 94. Wendy, who is 15 months old, is asked by her father if she is tired. Wendy lies down and acts as if she is sleeping to communicate her desire to be put to bed. This type of nonverbal message is referred to as a A. conventional social gesture. B. symbolic gesture. C. verbal gesture. D. presymbolic gesture. 95. Which of the following is true with regard to child-directed speech? A. It typically uses holophrases exclusively. B. It essentially involves speaking in a low-pitched voice. C. It primarily uses gestures and vocalizations are avoided. D. It employs simplified speech and exaggerated vowel sounds. Essay Questions 96. Compare and contrast classical conditioning and operant conditioning. Answer: Classical conditioning enables infants to anticipate an event before it happens by forming associations between stimuli that regularly occur together. Classically conditioned learning becomes extinct, or fades, if it is not reinforced by repeated association. In contrast, in operant conditioning the learner operates, or acts, on the environment. The infant learns to make a certain response to an environmental stimulus to produce a particular effect. Operant conditioning can either involve reinforcements, which increase behaviors, or punishments, which decrease behaviors. Conditioning can be positive (adding a stimulus to the environment) or negative (removing a stimulus from the environment). 97. Explain infant development in the context of circular reactions. A significant part of early cognitive growth comes about through circular reactions in which an infant learns to reproduce pleasurable or interesting events originally discovered by chance. The original chance behavior eventually becomes consolidated into a new scheme of behavior. Answer: (i) In the first substage (birth to about 1 month), neonates practice reflex behaviors. In the second substage (about 1 to 4 months), babies learn to repeat a pleasant bodily sensation first achieved by chance. Piaget called this a primary circular reaction. (ii) The third substage (about 4 to 8 months) coincides with a new interest in manipulating objects and learning about their properties. Babies engage in secondary circular reactions: pleasurable intentional actions that have results beyond the infant's own body. By the time infants reach the fourth substage, coordination of secondary schemes (about 8 to 12 months), they have built on the few schemes they were born with. They have learned to generalize from past experience to solve new problems. (iii) In the fifth substage (about 12 to 18 months), babies begin to experiment with new behavior to see what the consequences will be. They now engage in tertiary circular reactions, varying an action to test out the result. 98. Define Piaget's concept of object permanence and describe the connection between object permanence and deferred imitation. Answer: Piaget noted that infants under the age of about 8 months act as if an object no longer exists once it is out of their line of sight. This led to his theorizing about the object concept—the understanding that objects have independent existence, characteristics, and locations in space. One aspect of the object concept is object permanence, the realization that something continues to exist when out of sight. At first, infants appear to have no such concept. However, by 18 to 24 months, almost all babies understand that objects have independent existences and will reliably search for hidden objects. According to Piaget, object permanence develops gradually during the sensorimotor stage as children develop the ability to symbolically represent objects. 99. Discuss the research pertaining to violation of expectations. How is it related to babies' thinking about characteristics of the real world? Answer: Violation-of-expectations research begins with a familiarization phase in which infants see an event or series of events happen normally. After the infant is habituated to this procedure, the event is changed in a way that violates (conflicts with) normal expectations. An infant's tendency to look longer at the changed event is interpreted as evidence that the infant recognizes it as surprising. Using the violation-of-expectations method, Renée Baillargeon found evidence of object permanence in infants as young as 3½ months. The babies watched as a tall carrot moved behind a screen of the same height but failed to appear in a large notch in the upper part of the screen before reappearing again on the other side. The infants showed surprise by looking longer at this "impossible event" than at a "possible event" involving a short carrot. Because they remembered the carrot existed (otherwise, they could not have been surprised), this illustrates object permanence. 100. Explain how social interaction with adults contributes to advanced cognitive competence. In your explanation, address both guided participation and the cultural context in which families interact with their children. Answer: The social-contextual approach examines the environment's effects on the learning process. Researchers influenced by Vygotsky's sociocultural theory study how the cultural context affects early social interactions that may promote cognitive ability, sometimes through the process of guided participation. Guided participation refers to interactions with adults that help structure children's activities and bridge the gap between a child's understanding and an adult's. It often occurs in shared play and in everyday activities in which children learn informally the skills, knowledge, and values important in their culture, much as an apprentice would. Test Bank for Child M-Series: From Birth to Adolescence Gabriela Martorell 9780078035517