This Document Contains Chapters 5 to 6 Chapter 5--Biological Concepts 1. The person who presented a similar theory of evolution to that of Darwin was: A. Charles Lyle. B. Alfred Wallace. C. Thomas Malthus. D. Alfred Wegener. E. Robert Ballard. Answer: B. Alfred Wallace. 2. The geological evidence that was incorporated by Darwin, which showed that the Earth was much older than previously thought, was compiled by: A. Charles Lyle. B. Alfred Wallace. C. Thomas Malthus. D. Alfred Wegener. E. None of the above. Answer: A. Charles Lyle. 3. Carbohydrates contain all the following elements except: A. carbon. B. nitrogen. C. hydrogen. D. oxygen. E. nitrogen and oxygen. Answer: B. nitrogen. 4. Glucose is a(n): A. octahedral carbon base. B. six-carbon sugar. C. heptahedral sugar. D. five-carbon sugar. E. strong polar ion. Answer: B. six-carbon sugar. 5. Sucrose is composed of: A. a molecule of glucose and galactose. B. two molecules of glucose. C. a molecule of glucose and a molecule of fructose. D. a molecule galactose and fructose. E. two molecules of fructose. Answer: C. a molecule of glucose and a molecule of fructose. 6. Lactose is: A. a disaccharide. B. an energy source for plants. C. a polysaccharide. D. also known as table sugar. E. a form of starch. Answer: A. a disaccharide. 7. An organic molecule comprised of linked similar units is called: A. a sugar. B. a protein. C. a polymer. D. an enzyme. E. a monomer. Answer: C. a polymer. 8. The following are all biological molecules utilized in the bodies of marine animals, except: A. chitin. B. triglycerides. C. glycogen. D. cellulose. E. enzymes. Answer: D. cellulose. 9. The hard exterior of crabs and lobsters is: A. chitin. B. triglycerides. C. glycogen. D. cellulose. E. based on glucose polymers. Answer: A. chitin. 10. Fats, oils, and waxes are called: A. sugars. B. polysaccharides. C. lipids. D. proteins. E. monomers. Answer: C. lipids. 11. Proteins are polymers whose basic chemical units are called: A. amino acids. B. polysaccharides. C. lipids. D. cellulose. E. nucleosides. Answer: A. amino acids. 12. The number of different amino acids is: A. 10. B. 20. C. 30. D. 40. E. 50. Answer: B. 20. 13. Amino acids are assembled within the cells to form: A. nucleic acids. B. triglycerides. C. phospholipids. D. polypeptides. E. DNA. Answer: D. polypeptides. 14. Genetic information is translated into __________, which direct(s) the chemical activity of an organism. A. DNA B. carbohydrates C. lipids D. proteins E. inorganic material Answer: D. proteins 15. A molecule comprised of a five-carbon sugar, a nitrogen-containing base, and a phosphate group is called: A. a nucleic acid. B. a triglyceride. C. deoxyribonucleic acid. D. a polypeptide. E. a carbohydrate. Answer: C. deoxyribonucleic acid. 16. The genetic information of an organism is coded within that organism’s: A. DNA. B. carbohydrates. C. lipids. D. proteins. E. cell membranes. Answer: A. DNA. 17. DNA’s shape is: A. a helix. B. a pentagon. C. an octahedron. D. a heptahedron. E. a scalene triangle. Answer: A. a helix. 18. DNA contains an organism’s genetic material, organized into sequences called: A. genes. B. chromosomes. C. gametes. D. nuclei. E. sperm and egg cells. Answer: A. genes. 19. Genes are composed of DNA sequences and are condensed into larger structures called: A. DNA. B. proteins. C. chromosomes. D. lipids. E. cell membranes. Answer: C. chromosomes. 20. Messenger RNA is: A. information copied or transcribed from DNA. B. comprised of rRNA. C. comprised of tRNA. D. referenced by DNA. E. used by cells to communicate with each other. Answer: A. information copied or transcribed from DNA. 21. The RNA that brings proteins to the ribosome is called: A. ribosomal RNA. B. transfer RNA. C. messenger RNA. D. RNA. E. helper RNA. Answer: B. transfer RNA. 22. All the genes that exist at a given time for a given population are collectively called: A. the gametes. B. the gene pool. C. the chromosomes. D. the nuclei. E. the population structure. Answer: B. the gene pool. 23. A population of organisms that is reproductively isolated from other populations is considered a: A. kingdom. B. phylum. C. genus. D. species. E. class. Answer: D. species. 24. The occurrence of geographic isolation between two populations will ultimately lead to: A. sexual dimorphism. B. allopatric speciation. C. morphological similarity. D. sympatric speciation. E. None of the above. Answer: B. allopatric speciation. 25. The basic living unit of all living organisms is called: A. tissue. B. germ plasma. C. cells. D. organs. E. DNA. Answer: C. cells. 26. All cells are capable of all of the following except: A. metabolism. B. movement. C. growth. D. reproduction. E. energy conversion. Answer: B. movement. 27. Cytoplasm is comprised of: A. organelles and cytosol. B. gametes and organelles. C. DNA and RNA. D. gametes and DNA. E. gametes and RNA. Answer: A. organelles and cytosol. 28. A eukaryote cell has all these features except: A. membrane-bound organelles. B. it lacks a nucleus. C. cytosol. D. it is often associated with other cells to form a multi-cellular organism. E. numerous chromosomes. Answer: B. it lacks a nucleus. 29. A prokaryote cell has all these features except: A. it has a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. B. it lacks membrane-bound organelles. C. it is always within a cell wall. D. it is always single cellular. E. it lacks chromosomes. Answer: A. it has a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. 30. The organelle responsible for radiant energy conversion to chemical energy is called the: A. nucleus. B. chloroplasts. C. mitochondria. D. flagella. E. cytosol. Answer: B. chloroplasts. 31. The organelles of movement are called: A. nuclei. B. chloroplasts. C. flagella and cilia. D. mitochondria. E. cytosol. Answer: C. flagella and cilia. 32. Plants and algae contain this organelle not found in heterotrophs: A. nucleus. B. mitochondria. C. chloroplasts. D. flagella. E. cell walls. Answer: C. chloroplasts. 33. Cellular respiration occurs in the: A. nucleus. B. chloroplasts. C. flagella. D. mitochondria. E. cell membranes. Answer: D. mitochondria. 34. Reproduction in prokaryotes is known as: A. binary fission. B. meiosis. C. mitosis. D. sexual reproduction. E. spawning. Answer: A. binary fission. 35. In eukaryotes the nucleus is duplicated in a process called: A. binary fusion. B. meiosis. C. mitosis. D. fusion. E. cloning. Answer: C. mitosis. 36. A single-celled diploid eukaryote with 8 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. How many chromosomes do the resultant offspring possess? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 6 Answer: C. 8 37. Groups of the same cell type that serve a particular purpose are called: A. colonies. B. organs. C. organ systems. D. tissues. E. functional clusters. Answer: D. tissues. 38. Which is the proper order of organization? A. Cells, organs, tissues. B. Cells, tissues, organs. C. Organs, tissues, organs systems. D. Organs, cells, tissues. E. Tissues, organs, cells. Answer: B. Cells, tissues, organs. 39. Binomial nomenclature uses the following two words in naming organisms: A. genus and species. B. kingdom and phylum. C. family and genus. D. class and order. E. order and species. Answer: A. genus and species. 40. Organisms that lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles are placed within the domain: A. Archaea. B. Eubacteria. C. Prokaryotae. D. a or b. E. Eukarya. Answer: D. a or b. 41. Multicellular animals belong to the kingdom: A. Plantae. B. Animalia. C. Prokaryotae. D. Fungi. E. None of these. Answer: B. Animalia. 42. The processes of natural selection are non-random and lead to the incorporation of only favorable traits in succeeding generations. Answer: False 43. The only source of variety and diversity in sexually reproducing organisms is through mutations. Answer: False 44. Organisms classified in the same genus share similar characteristics of morphology and are believed to have a common ancestor. Answer: True 45. The salinity of the environment is a good example of a natural evolutionary selective force. Answer: True 46. Match the term with the associated items. 1. Lactose Milk sugar 2. Glucose basic fuel for living cells 3. Sucrose glucose & fructose Answer: 47. Match the description with its most closely associated term. 1. Mitosis nuclear duplication 2. Meiosis reduction division 3. Binary fission asexual reproduction Answer: 48. Match the description with its most closely associated term. 1. Sexual reproduction gametes 2. Recombination alleles switching chromosomes 3. Crossing over increase in genetic variation Answer: 49. Match the description with its most closely associated term. 1. Behavioral isolation spatially separated 2. Anatomical isolation incompatible copulatory organs 3. Habitat isolation divergent courtship methods Answer: 50. Match the phrase with the most closely associated name. 1. Carl Linnaeus speciation 2. Charles Lyle age of the Earth 3. Charles Darwin binomial nomenclature Answer: 51. Match the words with the most closely associated term. 1. Protists Archaea, Eubacteria, Eukarya 2. Kingdom Fungi, Plantae, Animalia 3. Domain Eukarya Answer: 52. Match the function with the most closely associated cell part. 1. Nucleus energy powerhouse 2. Plasma membrane selects what enters the cell 3. Flagella protects DNA 4. Mitochondrion propels cell through liquids Answer: 53. Match the words with the most closely associated term. 1. Contractile proteins biological catalysts 2. Enzymes semi-rigid body parts of animals 3. Structural proteins muscle Answer: 54. Match the words with the most closely associated term. 1. Evolution only individuals 2. Random genetic change individuals and populations 3. Natural selection only populations Answer: 55. Match the words with the most closely associated term. 1. Evolution is unique 2. Random geneticchange acts on organisms with disadvantages under existing environmental conditions 3. Natural selection affects generations that are better adapted to existing environmental conditions Answer: 56. How did the work of Charles Lyle influence Charles Darwin as he was forming his theory of evolution by natural selection? Answer: Darwin knew of recent writings by Charles Lyle in which the latter showed, by analyzing geological features, that the age of the Earth must have been much older than previously thought. Lyle also showed that slow gradual changes in the Earth’s features over time could lead to significant geological change. In addition, Darwin knew of fossil findings that showed extinct species that closely resembled modern species. 57. Briefly describe at least 4 levels of biological organization of organisms. Answer: Cells, either single or in various levels of organization, make up organisms. Multi-cellular organisms may have groups of the same cell type that serve one particular function, which are called tissues. Several tissues operate together to form more complex structures called organs. Groups of organs can combine to form organ systems. Complex organisms can have one or more organ systems. 58. What is a gene? How are genes involved in the evolutionary process? Answer: Genes are regions on chromosomes that are composed of double-stranded DNA molecules. A particular gene is determined by the sequence of DNA that composes it. Genes determine the genotypic, and hence phenotypic, characteristics of an individual. These genetically determined characteristics are not the same in all the individuals in a population. It is this variation in a population that is acted upon by natural selection, which brings about evolution. 59. What processes gave rise to the reproductive isolation between Caribbean and Pacific marine organisms on either side of Central America? Discuss both biotic and abiotic processes in your answer. Answer: After the formation of Central America by geological processes, the Caribbean and the Pacific became isolated from one another. As a result, different selective processes began to operate in the two regions resulting in populations diverged evolutionarily from one another. Different evolutionary paths led to reproductive isolation between groups that once belonged to the same species. 60. How are the processes of artificial selection and natural selection similar and how are they different? Answer: Both artificial selection and natural selection involve the selection of individuals that have favorable traits for enhanced survival and reproduction. Organisms that have certain traits survive better than others that lack these traits and therefore their reproductive output is greater. Natural selection differs from artificial selection in that it is a completely random process with no predetermined outcome of the selective process. 61. Describe the four premises of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection. Answer: All organisms produce or have the potential of producing more offspring than can survive to reproduce. This is because resources are limited in the environment, which means that offspring will compete with one another for these limited resources. Since individuals in a population are varied with respect to their traits, the outcome of the competition is dependent on the possession of certain traits that give an individual an edge over other competing individuals. If these traits are heritable, then the successful competitors will pass on these traits to their offspring with the result that more offspring will have the traits of the successful individual over the traits of the unsuccessful individuals. 62. What is meant by the term "biological fitness"? Answer: Biological fitness is a measure of the reproductive success of an individual. Individuals that possess certain favored characteristics tend to reproduce more often and produce more often and are said to be biologically fit. 63. What are the shortcomings of the typological definition of species? Answer: The typological method is based on morphological similarity between an unknown specimen and a known type specimen. This definition does not take into account diversity within any given population of organisms, nor does it account for sexual dimorphism or differences in appearance between adults and juveniles. 64. Define and briefly describe Domains. Answer: Domains are the highest level of modern classification above the kingdoms. Three Domains have been recognized. Archaea and Eubacteria contain single-cell, prokaryotic organisms that differ at the biochemical level. Those organisms with a nucleus were placed in the domain Eukaraya. 65. A marine biologist compares 2 samples of reef-building coral colonies collected from various locations on a coral reef. One colony has thick, stout branches while the other has long, thin branches. Are these different species? Discuss why or why not. How could the biologist solve this question? Answer: Under the typological definition of a species, these colonies are not members of the same species, since their morphology differs. However, these 2 colonies may not necessarily be different species, since coral is known to show great variability in appearance because of environmental differences (for example, if the species grows in rough or calm water). Under the biological species definition, if individuals are crossed and produce viable offspring, then they are members of the same species. The marine biologist might conduct experiments to determine if the 2 colonies are cross-fertile, or use DNA techniques to compare genes as a first step in answering this question. Chapter 6--Marine Microbes 1. The most abundant microbes in the marine environment are: A. bacteria. B. diatoms. C. foraminiferans. D. viruses. E. dinoflagellates. Answer: D. viruses. 2. Viruses are not considered "living" by some biologists because they: A. have no metabolism. B. do not reproduce. C. cannot move. D. contain protein. E. have no metabolism and contain protein Answer: A. have no metabolism. 3. Virus replication only occurs: A. when conditions stress the virus. B. at regular intervals. C. inside a host cell. D. outside of eukaryote cells. E. when virus particles undergo binary fission. Answer: C. inside a host cell. 4. A phage: A. can be found in all living organisms. B. is specific to a particular organism. C. is found in mammals. D. is specific for bacteria. E. is specific for vertebrates. Answer: D. is specific for bacteria. 5. Virus size is: A. 300 to 400 mm. B. 10 to 400 mm. C. 10 to 200 cm. D. 10 to 400 nm. E. 300 to 400 mm. Answer: D. 10 to 400 nm. 6. Outside a host cell a virus is called a(n): A. capsid. B. virion. C. nucleocapsid. D. envelope. E. glochidia. Answer: B. virion. 7. The protein coat covering the nucleic acid core of the virus is called the: A. capsid. B. virion. C. nucleocapsid. D. envelope. E. membrane. Answer: A. capsid. 8. The combination of a virus's genetic material and protein is called the: A. capsid. B. virion. C. nucleocapsid. D. envelope. E. transfer RNA. Answer: C. nucleocapsid. 9. You are a virologist studying a particularly pathogenic virus that infects sea turtles. In the course of your research, you discover that the virus is destroyed by a protein-digesting enzyme. The structure most vulnerable to this enzyme must be the viral: A. membrane. B. envelope. C. DNA. D. capsid. E. capsid and envelope. Answer: D. capsid. 10. A virus's nucleocapsid is sometimes covered with a(n): A. capsid. B. virion. C. organic material. D. envelope. E. membrane. Answer: D. envelope. 11. A virus with a capsid with twenty triangular faces is called: A. icosahedral. B. helical. C. binal. D. filamentous. E. dodecahedral. Answer: A. icosahedral. 12. A viral lytic cycle is characterized by: A. rapid infection and emergence. B. rapid infection, replication of nucleic acids and proteins, assembly of virions, and release by rupture. C. a virus remaining in the host cell then being released. D. a viral nucleic acid being inserted into the host genome and possibly residing through multiple cell divisions prior to lytic. E. None of these. Answer: B. rapid infection, replication of nucleic acids and proteins, assembly of virions, and release by rupture. 13. A viral lysogenic cycle is characterized by: A. rapid infection and emergence. B. rapid infection, replication of nucleic acids and proteins, assembly of virions, and release by rupture. C. a virus remaining in the host cell then being released. D. a viral nucleic acid being inserted into the host genome and possibly residing through multiple cell divisions prior to lytic. E. None of these. Answer: D. a viral nucleic acid being inserted into the host genome and possibly residing through multiple cell divisions prior to lytic. 14. The abundance and diversity of marine viruses are considered: A. low abundance with high diversity. B. high abundance and low diversity. C. low abundance and low diversity. D. high abundance and high diversity. E. None of these. Answer: D. high abundance and high diversity. 15. Some viruses can change geochemical cycles leading to: A. a change in seawater pH. B. reduction in surface oxygen. C. modification of salinity. D. an effect on global warming. E. increased geothermal activity. Answer: D. an effect on global warming. 16. Viruses can control host population: A. by reducing their numbers. B. by modifying their growth rate. C. by increasing their capacity to expand. D. by making them more attractable to predators. E. by attaching to the host membrane, causing the host cell to sink. Answer: A. by reducing their numbers. 17. Bacteria belong to the domain: A. Eubacteria. B. Eukarya. C. Archaea. D. Animalia. E. Protista. Answer: A. Eubacteria. 18. Bacteria reproduce by: A. meiosis. B. cell fusion. C. binary fission. D. cloning. E. auxospore formation. Answer: C. binary fission. 19. The process of producing high-energy foods from inorganic compounds using sunlight energy is called: A. heterotrophy. B. chemosynthesis. C. photosynthesis. D. grazing. E. solar irradiation. Answer: C. photosynthesis. 20. The process of producing food from inorganic compounds using high-energy compounds as a source of energy is called: A. photosynthesis. B. chemosynthesis. C. heterotrophy. D. grazing. E. solar irradiation. Answer: B. chemosynthesis. 21. Chemosynthetic bacteria are unique: A. in not requiring CO2. B. because they use energy derived from chemicals. C. because they can produce food with low light. D. and are very common in the twilight depths. E. because many forms are also bioluminescent. Answer: B. because they use energy derived from chemicals. 22. Facultative anaerobic bacteria: A. do not tolerate oxygen. B. respire in low oxygen. C. are chemosynthetic. D. require oxygen to perform photosynthesis. E. are common in open water samples. Answer: B. respire in low oxygen. 23. Anaerobic organisms live in ________ areas. A. nitrogen-free B. oxygen-rich C. oxygen-free D. hydrogen-free E. carbon-free Answer: C. oxygen-free 24. The process where DNA is duplicated and then the cell divides into two cells is called: A. mitosis. B. meiosis. C. binary fusion. D. auxospore. E. fusion. Answer: C. binary fusion. 25. A rod-shaped bacteria is called: A. coccus. B. auxospore. C. bacillus. D. bacteria phage. E. spirillus. Answer: C. bacillus. 26. A spherical shaped bacteria is called: A. coccus. B. auxospore. C. bacillus. D. bacteria phage. E. spirillus. Answer: A. coccus. 27. Which primary producer listed below is considered the most abundant life form in the sea? A. Dunaliella. B. Synechoccus. C. Methanococcus. D. Pryolobus. E. Prochlorococcus. Answer: E. Prochlorococcus. 28. The pigment ______________ is commonly found in bacteria but not land plants. A. chlorophyll a B. chlorophyll b C. xanthophyll D. phycocyanin E. carotene Answer: D. phycocyanin 29. Accessory photosynthetic pigments are important because: A. they can capture different light wavelengths. B. they enable chromatic adaptation with depth and seasons. C. they shield the cell against damaging wavelengths. D. All of these. E. None of these. Answer: D. All of these. 30. A structure formed from the combination of cyanobacterial microbes and sediments is called: A. a coral reef. B. a bacteria reef. C. a stromatolite. D. a stalactite. E. a stalagmite. Answer: C. a stromatolite. 31. The absorption of external organic matter by bacteria is called: A. heterotrophy. B. autotrophy. C. tertiary. D. osmotrophy. E. omnivory. Answer: D. osmotrophy. 32. Heterotrophic bacteria are able to break down large food items: A. by ingesting them with pseudopods. B. with exoenzymes. C. by breaking them up with cilia. D. by crushing with their larger relative size. E. by using their cell membranes to pinch the food into smaller pieces. Answer: B. with exoenzymes. 33. An important role of bacteria is: A. primary producers. B. decomposers. C. nitrogen fixation. D. All of these. E. None of these. Answer: D. All of these. 34. Nutrient recycling in the marine environment is performed by: A. cyanobacteria. B. heterotrophic bacteria. C. autotrophic bacteria. D. purple bacteria. E. sulfur bacteria. Answer: B. heterotrophic bacteria. 35. Nitrogen fixation is carried out by: A. nitrifying bacteria. B. prochlorophytes. C. cyanobacteria. D. all heterotrophic bacteria. E. only spirilli-shaped bacteria. Answer: C. cyanobacteria. 36. A special structure on certain cyanobacteria for nitrogen fixation is called a(n): A. ammonia cyst. B. homocyst. C. heterocyst. D. nematocyst. E. pneumatocyst. Answer: C. heterocyst. 37. Nitrogen fixation and nitrification are directly important processes for: A. heterotrophic animals. B. heterotrophic bacteria. C. autotrophic organisms. D. fungi. E. viruses. Answer: C. autotrophic organisms. 38. A bacteria sample is taken from the immediate vicinity of a hydrothermal vent. You would expect for it to most likely contain: A. diatoms. B. hyperthermophiles. C. lignicolous fungi. D. cyanobacteria. E. None of these. Answer: B. hyperthermophiles. 39. Zooxanthellae are members of the following group of Eukaryotes: A. diatoms. B. coccolithophores. C. amoebas. D. dinoflagellates. E. ciliates. Answer: D. dinoflagellates. 40. Harmful algal bloom toxins are produced by: A. diatoms. B. coccolithophores. C. amoebas. D. dinoflagellates. E. radiolarians. Answer: D. dinoflagellates. 41. Diatoms, coccolithophores, and silicoflagellates all belong to the domain: A. Eukarya. B. Eubacteria. C. Archaea. D. Anthophyta. E. Protista. Answer: A. Eukarya. 42. All of following marine microbes have hard skeletal parts that sink to the bottom, forming oceanic sediments, except: A. radiolarians. B. coccolithophores. C. foraminiferans. D. diatoms. E. fungi. Answer: E. fungi. 43. The frustule of diatoms is made of: A. cellulose. B. calcium carbonate. C. silica. D. protein. E. starch. Answer: C. silica. 44. The deposits of the following phytoplankton are used commercially in polishes and filtering devices: A. dinoflagellates. B. foraminiferans. C. coccolithophores. D. diatoms. E. radiolarians. Answer: D. diatoms. 45. Pseudopods are structures that are primarily found in: A. silicoflagellates. B. amoeboid protozoans. C. coccolithophores. D. diatoms. E. dinoflagellates. Answer: B. amoeboid protozoans. 46. You add a weak acid solution to a sample of foraminifera shells, and they bubble and fizz. This tells you that the external shells of foraminiferans are composed of: A. silica. B. protein. C. cellulose. D. calcium carbonate. E. starch. Answer: D. calcium carbonate. 47. The following amoeboid protozoans are important sources of silica deposits in some areas of the world: A. diatoms. B. silicoflagellates. C. radiolarians. D. foraminiferans. E. ciliates. Answer: C. radiolarians. 48. Tintinnids are examples of the following protozoans: A. radiolarians. B. ciliates. C. diatoms. D. foraminiferans. E. dinoflagellates. Answer: B. ciliates. 49. The ecological role of fungi is that of: A. decomposers. B. producers. C. grazers. D. predators. E. herbivores. Answer: A. decomposers. 50. A very close association with two species is called: A. adjoining. B. symbiosis. C. predator -prey. D. host-fungus. E. competition. Answer: B. symbiosis. 51. The only autotrophic bacteria are chemosynthetic bacteria. Answer: False 52. Deep-sea vent bacteria do not rely on the sun as a source of energy. Answer: True 53. Since purple and green bacteria do not use water in their autotrophic processes, they are not photosynthetic. Answer: False 54. Nitrifying bacteria are important in the conversion of nitrogen gas to usable forms of nitrogen. Answer: False 55. Chemosynthesis is less efficient than photosynthesis. Answer: True 56. Amoeboid protozoans are autotrophic. Answer: False 57. The toxins of dinoflagellates are destroyed by cooking or heating. Answer: False 58. Diatoms reproduce by binary fission. Answer: True 59. Ciliates are autotrophic members of the phytoplankton community. Answer: False 60. Fungi are surrounded by a cell wall made of chitin. Answer: True 61. Fungi are usually found in pelagic habitats. Answer: False 62. Match the description with the most closely associated term. 1. Binal capsid with twenty triangular faces 2. Icosahedral protein subunit of the capsid spiral around the central core of the nucleic acid 3. Helical icosahedral heads with helical tails Answer: 63. Match the bacteria-caused process with the most closely associated characteristic. 1. Lithification alteration of the electrical charge 2. Sedimentation alteration of the pH 3. Consolidation settling out of large particles Answer: 64. Match the words with the most closely associated words. 1. Nitrogenase can break the bonds in N2 molecules 2. Nitrogen fixation 2N2 to NH3 3. Nitrification NH4 + to NO2- and NO3- Answer: 1 65. Match the words with the most closely associated phrase. 1. Filamentous sexual reproduction budding 2. Marine yeast asexual reproduction conidiospores 3. Filamentous marine fungi asexual reproduction ascocarp Answer: 66. Match the description with the most closely associated word. 1. Thraustochytrids wasting disease 2. Labyrinthulids planktonic decomposer 3. Schizochytrium DHA fatty acid Answer: 67. Match the characteristic with its most closely associated organisms. 1. Diatoms silicon frustules 2. Coccoliths disc-shaped calcareous scales 3. Alveolates membranous sacs Answer: 68. Match the dinoflagellate characteristic with those it is most closely associated with. 1. Mixotrophic important symbionts of coral 2. "Red Tide" paralytic shellfish poisoning 3. Zooxanthellae either osmotrophy or phagotrophy Answer: 69. Match the description with the most closely associated word. 1. Scuticocilates dense and uniform distribution of cilia 2. Oligotrichs few body cilia 3. Tinitinnids have a lorica Answer: 70. Match the words with the most closely associated group. 1. Choanoflagellates reticulopods 2. Radiolarians siliceous perforated shell 3. Foraminiferans collar of microvilli traps bacteria prey Answer: 71. Match the description with the most closely associated group. 1. Archaea original inhabitants of the sea 2. Eubacteria prokaryote in some ways similar to eukaryotes 3. Eukarya nucleus and membrane-bound organelle Answer: 72. Briefly explain why viruses are not considered living organisms. Answer: Viruses lack the ability to metabolize. They rely entirely upon host cells for sources of energy, material, and organelles for duplicating themselves, a process called viral replication. 73. Briefly describe 3 ecological roles of viruses. Answer: Viruses can suppress or cause the decline in blooms as they invade and lyses host cells. Viruses can alter biogeochemical cycles by bacterial lyses. This reduces the food available and releases nutrients. The dead bacteria also sink to ocean floor providing a source of food for benthic communities. 74. What would happen if organisms that play the role of heterotrophic bacteria did not exist in the marine environment? Answer: Marine heterotrophic bacteria play an important role in breaking down and decomposing dead organic matter. The processes of decomposition release nutrients that were locked into tissues back into the marine environment where they can be taken up by marine primary producers. Without these bacteria life would cease in the seas due to a lack of nutrients. 75. Given that oxygen is toxic to anaerobic bacteria, describe how they must have adapted to survive in the present environmental conditions on Earth. Answer: These bacteria must have evolved at a time when oxygen was scarce or non-existent in the atmosphere and in the oceans. Rather than evolving mechanisms of tolerating oxygen toxicity, they have remained anaerobic by living in anaerobic environments. 76. Compare and contrast aerobic and aerobic bacterial photosynthesis in terms of a) the source of electrons used by each; b) the final products of both reactions. Answer: The processes are similar in that both create carbohydrates, but differ in whether oxygen or some other molecule is the final product released. In aerobic photosynthesis, water is used as the electron and hydrogen source to make carbohydrates and oxygen. In contrast, anaerobic photosynthesis often utilizes hydrogen sulfide as an energy source to make carbohydrates, and sulfate, not oxygen, is released. 77. What is meant by the term "paralytic shellfish poisoning"? What are the symptoms, and what organisms are responsible for this disease? Answer: Paralytic shellfish poisoning is a disease characterized by neurological damage (numbness, nausea, tingling sensations), which may be fatal. It is caused by toxic dinoflagellates that have contaminated filter-feeding shellfish. 78. What is diatomaceous Earth? How is it used commercially? Answer: Diatomaceous Earth is the fossilized remains of the siliceous tests of marine diatoms. When these die they sink and form oozes on the bottom. At some point, some of these oozes were uncovered by the sea and formed diatomaceous Earth. This material is used today as an abrasive cleaner, as filtration material, and in various other industries. 79. Describe the feeding behavior and biology of amoeboid protozoans. Answer: Amoebas use extensions of their cytoplasm called pseudopodia in their feeding behavior. Pseudopodia first surround food particles, eventually forming a membrane-bound vacuole around the food, which is then internalized and digested by enzymatic secretions. 80. You are asked to ascertain whether sulfur bacteria are active in a particular area of an estuary. What observations or tests can you perform to confirm this activity? Answer: Sulfur bacteria convert organic sulfur into H2S gas, which has a characteristic odor and causes blackening of the sediment. In addition, the H2S is converted first to sulfur and then to sulfate ion by other bacteria. When sulfate combines with water it forms sulfuric acid and lowers the pH of the water. One can look for reduced pH levels in these areas as a sign of sulfur bacteria activity. 81. What is the importance of nitrogen-fixation to autotrophic organisms? Answer: Without the process of nitrogen-fixation no new usable forms of nitrogenous nutrients would be available to autotrophic organisms. 82. Describe the symbiotic relationship between zooxanthellae and their hosts. How do both benefit from the relationship? Answer: Zooxanthellae supply their hosts with food from their photosynthetic process. In return, the host provides shelter, nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates, and carbon dioxide, which are all needed by the zooxanthellae for their photosynthesis. In addition, the hosts ensure that the zooxanthellae have access to sunlight by remaining near the surface of the ocean. 83. Toxic dinoflagellates can directly harm other organisms during bloom periods by secreting their toxins in the water or by being consumed and concentrated in the tissues of filter-feeding organisms. Can you think of ways in which blooms of non-toxic dinoflagellates may harm other organisms in the water? Answer: A bloom of non-toxic dinoflagellates can cause a serious reduction in the nutrients available for other autotrophic organisms in the area of the bloom. Once these dinoflagellates deplete the nutrients in the water, they die and are decomposed by microbes. This decomposition can lead to the depletion of oxygen in the water column, which can harm other organisms. Finally, a bloom of non-toxic dinoflagellates can reduce the clarity of the water column, leading to the reduction in the amount of available light to benthic photosynthesizers. 84. Based on your knowledge of the distribution of CO2 in the marine environment and the pattern of pressure with depth, explain why calcium carbonate deposits of coccolithophores and foraminiferans are not found below 4000 m. Answer: Both the concentration of CO2 and the water pressure increase with increasing depth. Since CO2 combines with water to form carbonic acid, the pH of the water decreases with depth, which results in the dissolution of calcium carbonate shells. In addition, calcium carbonate is sensitive to increases in pressure. Test Bank for Introduction to Marine Biology George Karleskint, Richard Turner, James Small 9780495561972, 9780534420727
Download
Close
Close
