Chapter 4 Physical Development in Infants and Toddlers 4.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Jess is 6 months into her first pregnancy. What change did she make to improve her strength and stamina? A) enrolled in baby exercise classes B) started going to the gym 2 or 3 times per week C) modified her diet D) decorated the baby’s area with bright colors Answer: B) started going to the gym 2 or 3 times per week Jess walks and goes to the gym two or three times per week for exercise; she wants to improve her strength and stamina to help her through labor and delivery. 2. In the United States, what percentage of infants is born earlier than 32 weeks of gestation? A) less than 1% B) 2% C) 5% D) more than 10% Answer: B) 2% 3. At birth the average newborn weighs A) 6 pounds. B) 7 ½ pounds. C) 8 pounds. D) 9 ½ pounds. Answer: B) seven and one-half pounds. 4. Sammy is born at 35 weeks gestation. Which of the following terms best characterizes his birth? A) preterm birth B) premature birth C) full-term D) incomplete term Answer: A) preterm birth Preterm birth is birth before 37 weeks gestation. 5. Although the United States ranks first in the world in health technology, it ranks _____ among industrialized countries in the rate of low-birth-weight births. A) fifth B) twelfth C) seventeenth D) twenty-first Answer: D) twenty-first 6. The incidence of preterm births in the United States is now at _____ . A) 10% B) 12% C) 14% D) 16% Answer: B) 12% 7. Practicing reflexes in an exercise class for infants speeds the emergence of motor skills A) slightly. B) somewhat. C) significantly D) tremendously Answer: A) slightly. Practicing reflexes speed the emergence of motor skills only slightly, so such classes probably do more for fun and social interaction than for the motor skills. 8. Motor skills will develop well if typical sources of stimulation are on hand. Which of these types of stimulation will develop motor skills? A) impartial caregivers B) a safe, flat environment C) an environment with familiar objects D) objects to manipulate Answer: D) objects to manipulate Typical sources of stimulation are objects to manipulate, friendly voices and faces, hugs, things to climb on, and encouragement to explore a varied environment. 9. Which baby is considered full term? A) the baby born at 35 weeks gestation B) the baby born at 36 weeks gestation C) the baby born at 36 weeks and 6 days gestation D) the baby born within 2 weeks of the expected due date Answer: D) the baby born within 2 weeks of the expected due date A baby is full term within the window of two weeks early to two weeks late. 10. Infants who have experienced intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) are below the____ percentile of birth weight for gestational age. A) fifth B) tenth C) fifteenth D) twentieth Answer: B) tenth 11. Newborns who weigh less than 31/2 pounds at birth are best classified as being A) a preterm birth. B) at average birth weight. C) at low birth weight.. D) at very low birth weight. Answer: D) at very low birth weight. 12. One possible factor in small for gestational age is A) the mother is Hispanic. B) the mother has high blood pressure. C) poor prenatal nutrition of the fetus. D) the baby was conceived just 9 months after the previous baby was born. Answer: C) poor prenatal nutrition of the fetus. Maternal diet was poor, there were problems in the placenta, or problems in the fetus prevented it from being able to utilize nutrients. 13. Small for gestational age babies are A) less than 31/2 pounds at birth. B) born before 37 weeks gestation. C) below the tenth percentile for head circumference. D) below the tenth percentile of birth weight for their gestational age. Answer: D) below the tenth percentile of birth weight for their gestational age. 14. Which of the following conditions is the most likely to mean serious health risks for a child? A) preterm birth B) low birth weight C) very low birth weight D) small for gestational age Answer: D) small for gestational age Something has kept them from growing as well as they should have, so they are born smaller than would be expected given their length of gestation. 15. Premature infants have increased risk of difficulties in respiration. What are the three main respiration problems? A) regulating sleep, awake, alert cycles B) anoxia, apnea, and respiratory distress syndrome C) brain hemorrhage, cerebral palsy, and perceptual difficulties D) poor sucking ability, circulation, and ambiguous interpersonal signals Answer: B) anoxia, apnea, and respiratory distress syndrome 16. Infants who experience intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) are sometimes called A) premature infants. B) small for gestational age with IUGR. C) breech babies. D) small for chronological age with IUGR. Answer: B) small for gestational age with IUGR. 17. Lack of prenatal care consistently correlates with A) microcephaly. B) preterm birth and low birth weight. C) difficult labor and delivery. D) higher IQ. Answer: B) preterm birth and low birth weight. Lack of prenatal care is a risk factor for premature births. 18. Which of the following risk factors of premature birth is controllable? A) maternal age B) membership in certain ethnic groups C) genetic background D) cigarette smoking Answer: D) cigarette smoking 19. The country with the lowest infant mortality rates for the selected nations in Figure 4.2 is A) Mexico B) Iceland C) Hungary D) Spain Answer: B) Iceland Iceland has the lowest infant mortality rate per 1,000 live births. 20. The term infant mortality refers to deaths that occur A) before delivery. B) before leaving the hospital after delivery. C) before 1 year of age. D) between 1 years and 3 years. Answer: C) before 1 year of age. 21. Which of the following ethnic groups has an infant mortality rate of 13 deaths per 1,000 live births? A) Caucasians B) African Americans C) Asian Americans D) Native Americans Answer: B) African Americans 22. Which of the following factors is related to infant mortality? A) poor nutrition B) older mother C) hospital delivery D) Caucasian father Answer: A) poor nutrition 23. Which of the following statements about infant mortality in America is TRUE? A) The rates of infant mortality are roughly the same for Caucasian and Hispanic populations. B) Hispanic populations have the highest rate of infant mortality. C) The African American population has an infant mortality rate that is three times the national average. D) The national average rate for infant mortality is 10 deaths per 1,000 live births. Answer: A) The rates of infant mortality are roughly the same for Caucasian and Hispanic populations. The rate for Caucasians and Hispanics in 2007 was about 5.5 deaths per 1,000 live births. 24. One cause of prematurity is the HELLP syndrome. The symptoms of the HELLP syndrome are A) Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low blood platelets. B) Elevated liver enzymes, low blood platelets, and pulse rate. C) Headache, energy loss and low pulse rate. D) Hemolysis, energy loss, and low blood platelets. Answer: A) Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low blood platelets. 25. The Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (2011) reported that the United States ranked ________ for overall infant mortality rates. A) above Poland B) below Japan C) below Hungary D) equal with the United Kingdom Answer: A) above Poland 26. From 1990 to 2007 the percentage of women receiving prenatal care increased by A) 2%. B) 4%. C) 8%. D) 6%. Answer: D) 6%. 27. Which of the following statements best represents the evidence of the cephalocaudal principle in newborns? A) The head represents one-fourth of a newborn's total length but only one-eighth of an adult's height. B) Exposure to PCBs in breast milk has been linked to a variety of neurological impairments. C) Toward the end of the first year of life, infants enjoy finger foods, such as cheese and sliced fruit. D) Babies who are breastfed are at a lower risk for a variety of infant diseases and illnesses. Answer: A) The head represents one-fourth of a newborn's total length but only one-eighth of an adult's height. In Figure 4.3, you can see that the head represents one fourth of the newborn’s total length but only one eighth of the adult’s height. 28. The _____ and nervous system are the structures that give rise to all our thoughts, emotions, and behavior. A) heart B) liver C) kidneys D) Brain Answer: D) brain 29. The central nervous system is comprised of A) the brain. B) the spinal cord. C) the brain and the spinal cord. D) nerve cells that innervate the major organs. Answer: C) the brain and the spinal cord. 30. Which structure does your text refer to as the "information superhighway" of the body? A) the cerebellum B) the brainstem C) the cerebral cortex D) the spinal cord Answer: D) the spinal cord 31. The spinal cord A) allows vast amounts of information to be exchanged between the body and the brain. B) controls automatic functions and regulates the general level of alertness. C) controls posture, body orientation, and complex muscle movements. D) is involved in organizing and planning. Answer: A) allows vast amounts of information to be exchanged between the body and the brain. 32. Which of the following structures controls breathing and heart rate? A) the spinal cord B) the cerebrum C) the brain stem D) the cerebellum Answer: C) the brain stem 33. The cerebellum A) allows vast amounts of information to be exchanged between the body and the brain. B) controls automatic functions and regulates the general level of alertness. C) controls posture, body orientation, and complex muscle movements. D) is used in higher-order thinking, creativity, and executive functions. Answer: C) controls posture, body orientation, and complex muscle movements. 34. What structure is described in your text as the "gray matter" that forms the top portion of the brain? A) cerebellum B) cerebral cortex C) brain stem D) frontal lobe Answer: B) cerebral cortex 35. Which of the following correctly identifies the lobes of the cerebral cortex? A) frontal, temporal, parietal, occipital B) spinal cord, brain stem, cerebellum, cerebrum C) cephalo, caudal, proximo, distal D) Broca's area, Wernicke's area, motor area, somatosensory area Answer: A) frontal, temporal, parietal, occipital 36. Why is the cerebral cortex folded in so many convolutions? A) During prenatal development, the neural tube continues to fold over and over on itself, creating a hollow, convoluted structure. B) The cerebral cortex is very thick, so the folds allow for blood and other fluids to penetrate to the inside of the brain. C) The many folds allow a greater amount of surface area to fit within the skull. D) The electrical impulses of the neurons burn away sections of the brain as they start to make their connections, making the brain look like it has folds. Answer: C) The many folds allow a greater amount of surface area to fit within the skull. 37. The area of the cortex that processes speech input is called A) the motor area. B) Wernicke's area. C) Broca's area. D) the frontal lobe. Answer: B) Wernicke's area. Wernicke’s area, a small region on the temporal lobe, processes speech input. 38. Higher-level thinking, problem solving, and creativity occur in A) the motor area. B) Wernicke's area. C) Broca's area. D) the frontal lobe. Answer: D) the frontal lobe. The large frontal lobe is involved in organizing, planning, higher-level thinking, problem solving, and creativity. 39. Broca's area organizes A) speech output. B) speech input. C) visual input. D) memory. Answer: A) speech output. Broca’s area, at the bottom of the frontal lobe, organizes articulation for speech output. 40. Communication throughout the nervous system is controlled by A) neurons. B) the neural tube. C) the frontal lobes. D) the brain stem. Answer: A) neurons. Neurons are specialized cells that process information and allow communication in the nervous system. 41. The chemical messengers that transmit the impulses from one neuron to another are called A) dendrites. B) synapses. C) neurotransmitters. D) colostrum. Answer: C) neurotransmitters. 42. The branchlike structures that receive input from other neurons are called A) dendrites. B) synapses. C) neurotransmitters. D) colostrum. Answer: A) dendrites. 43. Shannon is a year old, and she is blind. Her doctors have checked her eyes and have said that the problem is in her brain. Which part of Shannon's brain is probably damaged? A) the frontal lobe B) the temporal lobe C) the parietal lobe D) the occipital lobe Answer: D) the occipital lobe The visual area in the back of the occipital lobe receives messages from the eyes for visual processing. 44. The motor area of the brain is responsible for A) involuntary muscle movements. B) voluntary muscle movements. C) articulation for speech output. D) processing of speech input. Answer: B) voluntary muscle movements. 45. The frontal lobes are responsible for A) correct posture. B) problem solving. C) body orientation. D) complex muscle movements. Answer: B) problem solving. 46. ________ carry electrical impulses that send messages to other cells. A) Dendrites B) Axons C) The colostrum D) Neurotransmitters Answer: B) Axons 47. The myelin sheath is responsible for A) receiving input from other neurons. B) carrying electrical impulses that send messages to other cells. C) insulating the axon. D) releasing the chemical neurotransmitters. Answer: C) insulating the axon. 48. The embryo folds over to form the neural tube A) once it has six layers of neurons. B) approximately 4 weeks after conception. C) approximately 10 weeks after conception. D) right after synaptogenesis is completed. Answer: B) approximately 4 weeks after conception. 49. By 20 weeks of gestation, the cerebral cortex has approximately ________ neurons, and this is the approximate number with which infants are born. A) 80 thousand B) 80 million C) 80 billion D) 80 trillion Answer: C) 80 billion 50. One form of neuron maturation in which dendrites and axons branch out to form an enormously large number of connections with neighboring neurons is called A) myelination. B) organogenesis. C) synaptogenesis. D) programmed cell death. Answer: C) synaptogenesis. 51. The cortex will eventually have _____ layers. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: D) 6 52. Myelination is when A) dendrites and axons branch out and form connections with neighboring neurons. B) the fatty insulation grows around the axons. C) many neurons die during periods of migration. D) specialized cells allow communication in the nervous system. Answer: B) the fatty insulation grows around the axons. 53. A type of neuron maturation in which the fatty insulation grows around the axon is called A) myelination. B) organogenesis. C) synaptogenesis. D) programmed cell death. Answer: A) myelination. 54. The cerebral cortex is made up of 4 major lobes and _____ other areas of the brain. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C) 3 The cerebral cortex also contains the motor, somatosensory and visual areas of the brain. 55. _____ study the growth and development of the brain and nervous system. A) Pediatricians B) Neuroscientists C) Physical therapists D) Researchers Answer: B) Neuroscientists 56. Which of the following statements about the physical growth of newborns is FALSE? A) Newborns' weight nearly doubles in the first month. B) Newborns spend most of their time sleeping. C) It takes time for newborns to adjust to the process of feeding. D) It takes time for newborns to adjust to life outside the womb. Answer: A) Newborns' weight nearly doubles in the first month. 57. At birth, the average newborn weighs 7½ pounds. How long does it take for the average newborn to double their birth weight? A) 3 months B) 4 months C) 5 months D) 7 months Answer: C) 5 months 58. If you want to make an educated guess about your child’s adult height, at what age is the child at the 50% mark? A) by 2 years of age B) by 4 years of age C) by 8 years of age D) by 16 years of age Answer: A) by 2 years of age By 2 years of age, children have already attained about half of their adult height. 59. During the first month, newborns spend how much time asleep? A) nearly one-fourth of their time B) nearly one-third of their time C) nearly one-half of their time D) nearly two-thirds of their time Answer: D) nearly two-thirds of their time 60. Most infants are sleeping through the night by the time they are A) 3 months old. B) 6 months old. C) 9 months old. D) 12 months old. Answer: B) 6 months old. 61. A child of what age sleeps a total of 12 to 14 hours per day? A) a newborn infant B) a six-month old infant C) a 12- month old infant D) a toddler Answer: D) a toddler Toddlers are still sleeping a total of 12 to 14 hours per day, and by this age have spent more of their life asleep than awake. 62. Research has indicated that the possible cause for SIDS is A) co-sleeping. B) low birth weight. C) poor prenatal care. D) The results are controversial. Answer: D) The results are controversial. 63. Which of these countries avoids co-sleeping? A) China B) Guatemala C) Sweden D) United States Answer: D) United States. In the United States and many other Western nations, co-sleeping is usually avoided. 64. In the United States, co-sleeping tends to occur more often in families with parents who are A) upper class. B) African American. C) both employed outside the home. D) Caucasian. Answer: B) African American. Compared to other families, co-sleeping tends to occur more often in families with parents who are African American, Hispanic, or Asian American. 65. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is defined as the sudden death of _____ in which the death cannot be explained. A) an infant during the first week of life B) an infant during the first month of life C) an infant under 1 year of age D) a toddler Answer: C) an infant under 1 year of age. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is defined as the sudden death of an infant less than 1 year of age in which the death cannot be explained after an autopsy, review of medical history, and thorough investigation of the death scene. 66. The risk of SIDS increases when infants sleep A) on a hard mattress. B) in a cold room. C) on their bellies. D) on their backs. Answer: C) on their bellies. In 1992, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommended that all infants be positioned on their backs for sleep. 67. SIDS rates are higher for A) female infants. B) male infants. C) Caucasian infants. D) Hispanic infants. Answer: B) male infants. 68. SIDS rates are highest for children of which nationality? A) Native American B) Caucasian C) European D) Hispanic Answer: A) Native American. SIDS rates are higher for male infants and infants who are African American or Native American. 69. Most SIDS deaths occur A) during the first week of life. B) during the first month of life. C) between 1 month and 3 months of age. D) between 3 months and 12 months of age. Answer: C) between 1 month and 3 months of age. Although SIDS is the leading cause of death for infants between 1 month and 1 year of age, most SIDS deaths occur between 1 and 3 months of age. 70. The American Academy of Pediatrics suggests that infants should A) sleep on their bellies. B) co-sleep with one or both parents. C) co-sleep with one or more siblings. D) sleep in their own crib placed near to the parents. Answer: D) sleep in their own crib placed near to the parents. The American Academy of Pediatrics suggests that infants should sleep on their backs and in their own crib placed near to the parents. 71. Before babies are born, neurons proliferate at a tremendous rate, and these cells migrate to their final locations. Which of the following occurs during neuronal migration? A) programmed cell death B) organogenesis C) the creation of cell bodies D) the formation of the neural tube Answer: A) programmed cell death. During migration and during periodical heavy synaptogenesis, about half of our neurons die in a process called programmed cell death. 72. The process by which many neurons die during periods of migration is called A) myelination. B) organogenesis. C) synaptogenesis. D) programmed cell death. Answer: D) programmed cell death. 73. The _____ is probably one of the last areas in the brain to be completely myelinated. A) parietal lobe B) occipital lobe C) temporal lobe D) frontal lobe Answer: D) frontal lobe. Some areas in the frontal lobe are still forming myelin all the way into our early 20s. 74. Researchers found that listening to a Mozart Sonata improved college students’ spatial-reasoning IQ scores by 8 to 9 points for A) 10 to 15 minutes. B) 1 hour. C) 1 day. D) the rest of the students’ lives. Answer: A) 10 to 15 minutes. 75. The main benefit of initial breastfeeding is to A) increase the baby's weight after birth. B) pass antibodies from the mother to the baby. C) increase the attachment between mother and baby. D) decrease the milk production for the mother. Answer: B) pass antibodies from the mother to the baby. Colostrum contains important antibodies that are passed to the newborn. 76. Which of the following conclusions about infant feeding and nutrition did the American Academy of Pediatrics (2005) make? A) Infants should not be given breast milk because of its high fat content. B) Infants should only be fed twice daily to reduce the American obesity problem. C) Formula is the best form of nutrition, as it contains added nutrients that babies need. D) Human breast milk provides the best form of nutrition for most infants. Answer: D) Human breast milk provides the best form of nutrition for most infants. 77. The thick yellowish substance in breast milk that contains important antibodies that are passed on to the newborn is called A) weaning milk. B) colostrum. C) organogenesis. D) synaptogenesis. Answer: B) colostrum. 78. Which of the following statements about the first few days of breastfeeding is TRUE? A) After about three days, mothers produce a higher volume of milk. B) Breast milk is thicker than colostrum. C) Mothers produce the highest amount of milk on the day of their delivery. D) Breastfeeding should not begin until after the first week after delivery. Answer: A) After about three days, mothers produce a higher volume of milk. 79. Babies who are breastfed are at lower risk for A) blood clots. B) diarrhea. C) jaundice. D) toothache. Answer: B) diarrhea. Babies who are breastfed are at lower risk for a variety of conditions including diarrhea, respiratory infections, ear infections, diabetes, lymphoma, and SIDS. 80. One health benefit for the mother who breastfeeds is A) slower recovery of the uterus. B) slower return to prepregnancy weight. C) reduced risks of ovarian and breast cancers. D) regular ovulation occurs sooner. Answer: C) reduced risks of ovarian and breast cancers. There are also important health benefits for the mother: faster recovery of the uterus, less blood loss after delivery, earlier return to prepregnancy weight, reduced risks of ovarian and breast cancer, and a delay in the next ovulation. 81. Which of the following statements about infant nutrition is FALSE? A) During the first six months after birth, infants need nutritional supplements for optimal growth. B) From 6 months to 12 months of age, iron-rich solid foods should be introduced gradually. C) Breastfeeding should begin preferably within the first hour after birth. D) Breastfeeding should continue at least until the infant is 12 months of age. Answer: A) During the first six months after birth, infants need nutritional supplements for optimal growth. 82. In the United States, how many mothers have breastfed their babies at some point? A) more than 75% B) 75% C) 50% D) less than 50% Answer: B) 75% 83. Which of the following populations are the least likely to breastfeed? A) married women B) younger mothers C) upper-income mothers D) highly educated mothers Answer: B) younger mothers 84. The World Health Organization (2011) reported that in Sri Lanka, ________ of infants are exclusively breastfed until 6 months of age. A) 5% B) 30% C) 58% D) 76% Answer: D) about 76% 85. Infant formula is recommended instead of breastfeeding if the mother has A) hepatitis B. B) a cold. C) a tension headache. D) low blood pressure. Answer: A) hepatitis B. Mothers with conditions such as tuberculosis, hepatitis B, and chicken pox should consult their doctors before breastfeeding. 86. Sammy is eight months old. Which of the following best describes what his eating habits should look like? A) exclusively breast milk B) some breast milk and some baby cereal, fruits, and mild-flavored vegetables C) no breast milk, some baby cereal, fruits and vegetables, and some solid finger foods D) exclusively solid finger foods, such as cheese, plain crackers, sliced fruits, and cooked vegetables Answer: B) some breast milk and some baby cereal, fruits, and mild-flavored vegetables. After 6 months, baby cereals, mild-flavored vegetables, and fruits are good choices for first solid foods that can be added to the diet. 87. By _______ of age, children are able to have meals at the table, eating most of the same foods as the rest of the family. A) 6 months B) 1 year C) 18 months D) 2 years Answer: D) 2 years 88. The ability to see fine detail is called A) myelination. B) visual acuity. C) synaptogenesis. D) organogenesis. Answer: B) visual acuity. 89. Connor's parents took him to visit the eye doctor. They were told that he has fairly poor vision. His optometrist said that Connor needs to be 20 feet away to read what someone with normal vision could read from 120 feet away. Which of the following summarizes Connor's vision? A) 20/120 B) 120/20 C) 20/100 D) 100/20 Answer: A) 20/120. A person with 20/40 vision would need to be 20 feet away to read what someone with normal vision could read from 40 feet away. 90. It is estimated that the visual acuity of newborns is between A) 20/20 and 20/150. B) 20/40 and 1/64. C) 20/150 and 20/600. D) 20/600 and 20/800. Answer: C) 20/150 and 20/600. 91. Researchers believe that infants have 20/20 vision A) at birth. B) by 3 months. C) by 3 months to 6 months. D) by 6 to 12 months. Answer: D) by 6 to 12 months. 92. In visual acuity tasks, infants prefer to look at A) the stripes more than the gray square. B) the gray square more than the stripes. C) the circles rather than the squares. D) the squares rather than the circles. Answer: A) the stripes more than the gray square. When infants can see the stripes, they tend to prefer to look at the stripes over the gray square. 93. It is safe to say that color vision is relatively mature by A) 2 months of age. B) 6 months of age. C) 12 months of age. D) 18 months of age. Answer: B) 6 months of age. 94. Research has indicated that color vision is relatively mature in infants by the age of________. A) 3 months B) 6 months C) 9 months D) 12 months Answer: B) 6 months 95. Which of the following statements is a conclusion that can be drawn from the research on young infants' auditory capabilities? A) The auditory system is not functional before birth. B) By 2 months of age, infants are capable of responding to a broad range of sounds. C) By 6 months of age, infants easily distinguish among rattles, voices, and other environmental noises. D) Newborns are able to detect a 0.5 percent frequency change, easily hearing the softest whisper. Answer: C) By 6 months of age, infants easily distinguish among rattles, voices, and other environmental noises. By 6 months of age, infants respond to a broad range of sounds including rattles, voices, songs, and many other environmental noises. 96. In infants, heart rate deceleration indicates A) sleepiness. B) boredom. C) engrossed attention. D) heightened alarm. Answer: C) engrossed attention. 97. At what age can infants recognize their own names being spoken amid other names but only if their name is spoken more loudly than the other words? A) 1 month of age B) 2 months of age C) 3 months of age D) 5 months of age Answer: D) 5 months of age 98. Researchers have devoted extensive study to infant reactions to smell. Their research has shown that breastfed infants A) prefer the smell of their mothers more than other women. B) prefer the smell of their fathers over other men. C) prefer the smell of their fathers over their mothers. D) are unable to show a preference for smell. Answer: A) prefer the smell of their mothers more than other women. At the age of 2 weeks, breastfed infants turned their heads toward the smell of their mothers more than to the smell of unfamiliar females. 99. Infants as young as 3 or 4 days prefer the smell of A) formula milk over breast milk. B) breast milk over formula milk. C) cow's milk over formula milk. D) cow's milk over breast milk. Answer: B) breast milk over formula milk. Infants as young as 3 to 4 days of age prefer the smell of breast milk to that of formula milk, regardless of whether they are breastfed or bottle-fed. 100. Which of the following tastes causes babies to spit? A) sweet B) sour C) bitter D) salty Answer: C) bitter. A bitter taste causes newborns to spit and make a face that indicates disgust and rejection. 101. Which of the following tastes causes babies to purse their lips and wrinkle their nose? A) sweet B) sour C) bitter D) salty Answer: B) sour. With a sour taste, they purse their lips and wrinkle their noses. 102. Newborns show some rejection in response to the aroma of A) bananas. B) vanilla. C) butter. D) fishy odors. Answer: D) fishy odors. Newborns show positive responses to bananas and butter, positive or indifference to vanilla, some rejection to fishy odors and complete disgust to rotten eggs. 103. Which taste preference does not usually develop until 4 months of age? A) sweet B) sour C) salty D) bitter Answer: C) salty Reaction to salty flavors develops later, usually by 4 months of age. 104. The "visual cliff" is used to assess ________ in infants. A) visual acuity B) color vision C) depth perception D) photo pigmentation Answer: C) depth perception. A “visual cliff” was used in the classic study of depth perception by Gibson and Wack (1960). 105. Researchers demonstrated that infants just under _____ months of age could see the difference between the deep and solid sides of a visual cliff. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: A) 2 A decade later, researchers demonstrated that infants just under 2 months of age could see the difference between the deep and solid sides. 106. ________ are involuntary movements that are elicited by environmental stimuli. A) Motor cortex B) Reflexes C) Gross motor skill D) Fine motor skills Answer: B) Reflexes 107. Nia just gave birth to her son, Kevin. As Nia gets ready to breastfeed her son, her nipple grazes Kevin's cheek. Kevin instantly turns toward the nipple. This is an example of A) the rooting reflex. B) the sucking reflex. C) the feeding reflex. D) the postural reflex. Answer: A) the rooting reflex. If you touch a newborn’s cheek, the infant’s head will turn in the direction of the touch. 108. Which of the following is a function of reflexes? A) Reflexes are voluntary movements. B) Reflexes are elicited by external stimuli. C) Reflexes serve as protective mechanisms. D) Reflexes allow the spinal cord to communicate with the brain. Answer: B) Reflexes are elicited by external stimuli. 109. The sucking reflex occurs whenever A) an infant is hungry. B) the brain is mature enough to have control over this reflex. C) something touches an infant's lips. D) liquid enters an infant's mouth. Answer: C) something touches an infant's lips. 110. The Moro reflex is also known as the A) parachute reflex. B) startle reflex. C) environmental factor. D) perimeter response. Answer: B) startle reflex. 111. Curtis is frightened by a loud noise in his crib. He extends his arms and legs outward and spreads his fingers and toes. What reflex is Curtis demonstrating? A) the rooting reflex B) the grasping reflex C) the Moro reflex D) the swimming reflex Answer: C) the Moro reflex. When startled, the newborn extends her arms and legs and spreads her fingers. The newborn is demonstrating the Moro reflex. 112. Which of the following assessment measures, designed to assess the health of infants, measures some 20 different reflexes? A) the Apgar Test B) the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale C) the Reflex Aptitude Assessment Scale D) the Primitive, Postural, Locomotor Test Answer: B) the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale 113. Anthony's grandfather puts his index finger in Anthony's hand; Anthony curls his whole hand around his grandfather's finger. What reflex is Anthony demonstrating? A) the Moro reflex B) the rooting reflex C) the holding reflex D) the grasping reflex Answer: D) the grasping reflex. Put your finger in the palm of a newborn’s hand, and the strength of the infant’s grip will surprise you. 114. The involuntary reflexes tend to disappear around A) birth. B) 4 months. C) 8 months. D) 1 year. Answer: B) 4 months. 115. Charles was given a measure of "reflex irritability" when he was born. Which of the following tests was he most likely given? A) the Apgar Test B) the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale C) the Reflex Aptitude Assessment Scale D) the Primitive, Postural, Locomotor Test Answer: A) the Apgar Test The Apgar Test is given at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth. 116. ________ is the process of coordinating movements with the large muscles in the body. A) Primitive reflexes B) Fine motor development C) Locomotor reflexes D) Gross motor development Answer: D) Gross motor development 117. Twelve-month-old Karen is taking her first steps. The muscles that control her legs are coordinated by A) primitive reflexes. B) fine motor development. C) locomotor reflexes. D) gross motor development. Answer: D) gross motor development. Gross motor development is the process of coordinating movements with the large muscles in the body. 118. ________ is the process of coordinating intricate movements with smaller muscles. A) Primitive reflexes B) Fine motor development C) Locomotor reflexes D) Gross motor development Answer: B) Fine motor development 119. Lily picks up a Cheerio from table on her high chair. The muscles that control her fingers are coordinated by A) primitive reflexes. B) fine motor development. C) locomotor reflexes. D) gross motor development. Answer: B) fine motor development. Fine motor development is the process of coordinating intricate movements with smaller muscles. 120. By 1 month of age, infants are able to A) hold their head up. B) roll over from front to back. C) sit up without support. D) crawl. Answer: A) hold their head up. 121. Most infants are able to sit upright without support by A) 1 month. B) 3 months. C) 6 months. D) 7 months. Answer: C) 6 months. 122. Which of the following places gross motor development tasks in their proper order? A) hold head up, sit upright, roll over, crawl B) hold head up, roll over, sit upright, crawl C) roll over, hold head up, sit upright, crawl D) hold head up, roll over, crawl, sit upright Answer: B) hold head up, roll over, sit upright, crawl 123. Most infants take their first unaided steps around A) 7 months. B) 9 months. C) 12 months. D) 15 months. Answer: C) 12 months. 124. Which of the following best explains the effects of the cephalocaudal principle on gross motor development? A) At first, infants reach with their arms, then they grasp with their fingers. B) First, infants can hold their heads upright, and then they can roll over. C) Infants can put their foot in their own mouth. D) Infants exhibit a number of reflexes, including Moro, stepping, and parachute reflexes. Answer: B) First, infants can hold their heads upright, and then they can roll over. By 1 month of age, the muscles in infants’ necks are strong enough to allow the infants to hold their heads upright. Infants can roll over by 3 months of age. 125. Which of the following is an example of the effects of the proximodistal principle on fine motor development? A) At first, infants reach with their arms, then they grasp with their fingers. B) First, infants can hold their heads upright, and then they can roll over. C) Infants can put their foot in their own mouth. D) Infants exhibit a number of reflexes, including Moro, stepping, and parachute reflexes. Answer: A) At first, infants reach with their arms, then they grasp with their fingers. At first, they reach with their arms, next come the fine motor skills of grasping with the hands and fingers. 126. Voluntary control over the upper arm is shown by A) birth. B) 4 to 5 months. C) 6 to 9 months. D) approximately 1 year. Answer: B) 4 to 5 months. 127. The palmar grasp occurs when A) infants use the thumb and opposite forefinger to pick up an object. B) infants pull an object to themselves using their open palm. C) infants wrap all four fingers and the thumb around an object to pick it up. D) infants extend their arms and legs outward and spread their fingers and toes. Answer: C) infants wrap all four fingers and the thumb around an object to pick it up. 128. Cameron, who is 11 months old, sees a bug on the ground outside. He picks it up using his thumb and forefinger. Which type of grasp is he using? A) palmar grasp B) pincer grasp C) tripod grasp D) grasping reflex Answer: B) pincer grasp. By 10 months, infants show the more advanced pincer grasp, using the thumb and the opposite forefinger. 129. A child who holds a writing tool between the forefinger and thumb and steadies their hand on the writing surface is demonstrating the A) palmar grasp. B) pincer grasp. C) tripod grasp. D) grasping reflex. Answer: C) tripod grasp. Later, children begin using the more precise tripod grasp for holding pencils and other writing implements: They hold the writing tool between the forefinger and thumb, and steady the bottom of their hand on the writing surface. 130. What percentage of infants will not walk proficiently until 15 months of age? A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 25% Answer: A) 10% 131. The process of coordinating movements with the large muscles of the body is referred to as A) gross motor development. B) fine motor development. C) cephalocaudal development. D) proximidistal development Answer: A) gross motor development. 132. The dynamic systems theory attributes motor development to A) neurological development and maturation of cognitive systems. B) parental encouragement. C) opportunities to exercise. D) an interplay of all of the above. Answer: D) an interplay of all of the above. 133. The youngest children a physical therapist would treat are A) fetuses B) premature infants C) full-term infants D) toddlers Answer: B) premature infants. The youngest children I treat are premature infants, and the oldest may be up to 16 or 17 years old. 134. _____ motivates infants to raise their heads. A) Neurological development B) Parental encouragement C) Opportunities to exercise D) Maturation of cognitive systems Answer: B) Parental encouragement 135. _____ gives babies the muscle strength they need to lift and control their growing limbs. A) Neurological development B) Parental encouragement C) Opportunities to exercise D) Maturation of cognitive systems Answer: C) Opportunities to exercise 136. _____ helps babies figure out how to coordinate their movements. A) Neurological development B) Parental encouragement C) Opportunities to exercise D) Maturation of cognitive systems Answer: D) Maturation of cognitive systems 137. _____ gives infants the ability to exert voluntary control over their muscles. A) Neurological development B) Parental encouragement C) Opportunities to exercise D) Maturation of cognitive systems Answer: A) Neurological development 138. In _____ ,mothers often stretch their infant’s muscles by suspending them by their arms or legs. A) Brazil B) Chile C) Mali D) North America Answer: C) Mali. In Mali mothers often stretch their infant’s muscles by suspending them by their arms or legs and they encourage infants to sit and stand at an early age. 139. Some _____ cultures emphasize physical stimulation, and infants who are raised in these cultures are typically ahead of North American infants in major milestones such as sitting up and walking. A) South American B) Brazilian C) African D) Hopi Indian Answer: C) African. 140. _____ mothers reportedly believe that sitting and standing positions can cause damage to the legs and spines of young infants. A) South American B) Brazilian C) African D) Hopi Indian Answer: B) Brazilian. Many Brazilian mothers reportedly believe that sitting and standing positions can cause damage to the legs and spines of young infants, so they rarely allow their infants to sit or play on the floor by themselves. 141. In some _____ cultures, mothers are more protective of young infants and tend to limit their infants’ opportunities to explore and exercise their motor skills. A) South American B) Brazilian C) African D) Hopi Indian Answer: A) South American. In some South American cultures, mothers are more protective of young infants and tend to limit their infants’ opportunities to explore and exercise their motor skills. 142. Dennis & Dennis' (1939/1991) research on the Hopi Indian tribe found that the use of cradle boards ________ compared to infants who had not been confined by a cradle board. A) delayed the onset of walking by two or more months B) caused a higher rate of mild to moderate deformities in the lower extremities C) resulted in an increased rapidity of the onset of walking by two or more months D) showed very little difference in the onset of walking Answer: D) showed very little difference in the onset of walking 143. According to _____, motor skills emerge from complex interactions among neurological development, physical growth, learning, and motivation. A) cephalocaudal theory B) proximodistal theory C) dynamic systems theory D) reflexes theory Answer: C) dynamic systems theory 144. Which of the following statements about Schum et al.'s (2002) study on potty training is FALSE? A) It found that boys achieve an interest in using the toilet and staying dry through the night an average of two months earlier than girls. B) It found that at least half of girls showed an interest in using the toilet by 24 months of age. C) It noted that the average age of daytime dryness was about 24 months during the 1950s. D) It showed that many of the African American toddlers in their sample began potty training before 15 months. Answer: A) It found that boys achieve an interest in using the toilet and staying dry through the night an average of two months earlier than girls. Boys achieved these milestones about 2 months later than girls. 145. A child is ready to begin toilet training if the child is able to stay dry A) 2 or 3 hours during the day. B) 4 hours during the day. C) during naptime, no matter how long it lasts. D) all night. Answer: A) 2 or 3 hours during the day. It helps if the child is able to follow simple instructions and can stay dry for at least 2 or 3 hours during the day. 146. Toilet training develops from an interaction of physical maturity, cognitive understanding, cues and feedback from the environment and A) bribing. B) spanking. C) motivation. D) punishing. Answer: C) motivation. 147. A 2-year-old is not ready to be toilet trained if they A) ask to wear underwear. B) request to be changed. C) show awareness of having soiled diapers. D) show fear of bodily functions. Answer: D) show fear of bodily functions. This is not the time to engage in a major power struggle with a testy two-year-old, and children are not ready if they show fear of the potty or fear of bodily functions. 148. At least half of girls stayed dry during the day and night by _____ months. A) 24 B) 30 C) 34 D) 36 Answer: C) 34 149. At least half of boys stayed dry during the day and night by _____ months. A) 24 B) 30 C) 34 D) 36 Answer: D) 36 4.2 True/False Questions 1. Prematurity is one of the biggest threats faced by infants in our country. Answer: True 2. The rates of both preterm and low-birth-weight births are decreasing in the United States. Answer: False 3. The United States has the lowest rate of infant mortality in the industrialized countries. Answer: False 4. Experts agree that the steps that would reduce rates of prematurity and low birth weight would have no effect on the rates of infant mortality. Answer: False 5. The number of Hispanic and African American women receiving prenatal care increased between 1990 to 2005. Answer: True 6. Synaptogenesis is a form of neuron maturation in which dendrites and axons branch out to form an enormously large number of connections with neighboring neurons. Answer: True 7. At birth, the head represents about one-fourth of the newborn's total length. Answer: True 8. The cerebellum is one of the lobes of the cerebral cortex. Answer: False 9. The brain produces, on average, half a million neurons per minutes after neurons begin to form in week 7. Answer: True 10. Myelination is the process through which unused synapses are lost or "pruned." Answer: False 11. Babies lose roughly half of their neurons before they are born. Answer: True 12. Worldwide, there is a push to increase breastfeeding rates, especially in poor countries. Answer: True 13. The auditory system is functional before birth. Answer: True 14. When babies are born, they can turn their heads in the direction of interesting sounds. Answer: True 15. Control over the motor movements of the hands and fingers come much earlier than control over the gross motor movements of the elbows, arms, and shoulders. Answer: False 16. Cells and connections in the part of the brain that controls muscle movements in the head and upper body tend to mature first. Answer: True 17. Culture differences in early experiences of infants appear to have some impact on how quickly infants attain certain developmental milestones. Answer: True 18. Most toddlers gain voluntary control and coordination over the muscles that control their bladder and bowel movements by the time that they are 12 to 15 months. Answer: False 4.3 Short Answer Questions 1. Newborns who weigh less than ________ are classified as being at very low birth weight. Answer: 31/2 pounds 2. Dharma was born at the sixth percentile for her birth weight compared to her gestational age. Which term would best describe her level of prematurity? Answer: small for gestational age with IUGR 3. ________ are specialized cells that process information and allow communication in the nervous system. Answer: Neurons 4. Wernicke's area is responsible for ________. Answer: processing speech input 5. About four weeks after conception, the ________ forms and will later develop into the central nervous system. Answer: neural tube 6. Synaptogenesis is one form of neuron ________. Answer: maturation 7. The process by which many neurons die during periods of cell migration is known as ________. Answer: programmed cell death 8. The average newborn weighs ________. Answer: 71/2 pounds 9. The thick, yellowish substance in breast milk that contains important antibodies is called ________. Answer: colostrum 10. ________ is the process of coordinating intricate movements with smaller muscles. Answer: Fine motor development 4.4 Essay Questions 1. Although it is not possible to prevent all of the problems that newborns face, researchers have identified a number of options for increasing the likelihood of having a healthy baby. Discuss at least three things that pregnant women can do to increase their chances of having a healthy baby. Answer: Students' answers will vary depending upon which of the activities they wish to discuss. Three things pregnant women can do to increase their chances of having a healthy baby: 1. Maintain a balanced diet: Eating nutritious foods rich in vitamins, minerals, and protein supports fetal growth and development. 2. Attend regular prenatal care visits: Monitoring health and addressing any potential issues early can improve outcomes for both mother and baby. 3. Avoid harmful substances: Refraining from smoking, alcohol, and drugs reduces risks of birth defects, premature birth, and other complications. 2. At the microscopic level, communication through the nervous system is controlled by specialized cells called neurons. Explain the process that has to take place in order for a neuron to receive information from and send information to neighboring cells. Answer: Students' answers will vary but should demonstrate an understanding of the basic parts of the neuron, as well as the process of sending electrical impulses through the neuron and chemical messengers (neurotransmitters) between neurons. For a neuron to receive and send information to neighboring cells, the process involves: 1. Reception of Signals: Neurons receive signals through their dendrites, which are branch-like structures that extend from the cell body. These signals can be electrical or chemical in nature. 2. Integration of Signals: The received signals are then integrated at the cell body (soma) of the neuron. Here, the neuron assesses the incoming signals and determines whether to generate an electrical impulse (action potential). 3. Propagation of Action Potential: If the integrated signals reach a threshold level of stimulation, an action potential (electrical impulse) is generated. This action potential travels rapidly along the axon, which is a long, cable-like extension of the neuron. 4. Transmission of Signals: At the end of the axon, the electrical impulse triggers the release of neurotransmitters from synaptic vesicles into the synapse (gap) between the axon terminal of one neuron and the dendrites of another neuron or target cell. 5. Reception by Neighboring Cells: The neurotransmitters bind to specific receptors on the membrane of the neighboring neuron or target cell. This binding can either excite or inhibit the receiving cell, influencing whether it will generate its own action potential and continue the communication process. This process of neuronal communication allows for the transmission of information throughout the nervous system, enabling various physiological and cognitive functions. 3. Sonja is about to give birth to her child. In preparation for his arrival, Sonja has been contemplating whether or not she wants to breastfeed. Compose an essay in which you describe for Sonja the positive benefits of breastfeeding, as well as addressing any reasons or situations that may warrant a decision not to breastfeed. Answer: Babies who are breastfed are at lower risk for a variety of conditions. Breastfeeding offers numerous benefits for both mothers and babies, making it a highly recommended choice for infant nutrition. Here are some positive benefits of breastfeeding: 1. Nutritional Superiority: Breast milk is uniquely tailored to meet the nutritional needs of infants, providing the ideal balance of proteins, fats, carbohydrates, and vitamins. It contains antibodies that help protect babies from illnesses and infections. 2. Health Benefits for Baby: Breastfed babies have lower rates of respiratory infections, ear infections, gastrointestinal issues like diarrhea, and allergies. They also have a reduced risk of developing chronic conditions later in life, such as obesity and diabetes. 3. Bonding and Emotional Benefits: Breastfeeding promotes skin-to-skin contact and bonding between mother and baby, which can enhance emotional attachment and contribute to the baby's emotional development. 4. Convenience and Cost: Breast milk is readily available at the right temperature and requires no preparation. It is also cost-effective compared to formula feeding. While breastfeeding offers numerous advantages, there are situations where mothers may consider alternatives or decide not to breastfeed: 1. Medical Concerns: Certain medical conditions in the mother (e.g., certain infections, HIV, certain medications) may make breastfeeding risky or contraindicated. It's crucial to consult with healthcare providers to assess individual circumstances. 2. Personal Choice: Some mothers may face challenges with breastfeeding, such as difficulties with latch, milk supply issues, or discomfort. It's important for mothers to make a decision that aligns with their comfort level and mental well-being. 3. Logistical Challenges: Returning to work or school may pose challenges for breastfeeding mothers who may not have access to adequate facilities or time for expressing milk. In conclusion, while breastfeeding offers significant health benefits and emotional rewards for both mother and baby, each woman's decision should be respected and supported based on her unique circumstances and preferences. Seeking guidance from healthcare professionals can provide valuable support in making an informed choice about breastfeeding. 4. Research on young infants' auditory capabilities has given us the opportunity to begin to understand the development of infants' hearing capacity before and after birth. Describe what babies can hear prenatally and how that hearing continues to develop after birth. Answer: Students' answers will vary depending upon which of the characteristics of early auditory perception they choose to discuss. Babies can hear prenatally from around the 24th week of gestation. They primarily hear sounds from within the mother's body, such as her heartbeat, digestive sounds, and voice. They also hear sounds from the external environment, such as voices, music, and noises, although these are somewhat muffled due to the amniotic fluid. After birth, infants' hearing continues to develop rapidly. They can distinguish their mother's voice and other familiar sounds they heard in utero. Over the first months, their auditory system matures, allowing them to differentiate between various sounds, recognize patterns in speech, and eventually understand language cues. Continued exposure to language and auditory stimulation helps shape their auditory processing skills, laying the foundation for language acquisition and communication abilities later in life. 5. One of the fundamental questions in infant sensory research is how infants perceive depth. Explain what a "visual cliff" is and how researchers are able to use a visual cliff to explain the ways in which infants perceive depth. Answer: Students' answers will vary but should include an understanding of the fact that when infants are able to perceive depth that they will not cross the visual cliff. A "visual cliff" is an experimental apparatus used in infant sensory research to assess depth perception. It typically consists of a transparent surface that creates the illusion of a cliff edge, with a drop-off beneath it. Researchers use the visual cliff to study how infants perceive depth by observing their behavioral responses. Typically, infants who have developed depth perception will hesitate or show signs of caution when placed on the "deep" side of the visual cliff, indicating an understanding that it's unsafe to crawl or move forward. Conversely, if infants perceive the "shallow" side as safe, they will readily crawl or move towards their caregiver. This setup allows researchers to infer the developmental progression of depth perception in infants. It demonstrates that as infants mature, they become more adept at visually interpreting depth cues such as relative size, texture gradient, and motion parallax, which are crucial for navigating their environment safely. 6. Esther Thelen and her colleagues have proposed a dynamic systems theory to describe the myriad interactive processes that are involved in motor development. In this theory, coordinated movements such as reaching, crawling, walking, and throwing are dynamic actions that emerge from the complex interplay of individual muscles, nerve pathways, physical growth learning, and motivation. They have outlined four factors that all work in concert to propel the child toward increased strength and coordination. Name at least two of those factors and describe how that factor impacts the motor milestones. Answer: The four factors are neurological development, parental encouragement, opportunities to exercise and maturation of cognitive systems. Two factors outlined by Esther Thelen and her colleagues in dynamic systems theory that impact motor development: 1. Physical Growth: As children grow, their bodies undergo changes in size, proportion, and muscle strength. These physical changes provide the foundation for motor milestones like crawling, walking, and throwing. For example, increased muscle strength and bone development enable infants to support their weight and balance, facilitating the transition from crawling to walking. 2. Learning and Experience: Motor skills develop through practice, experience, and exposure to a variety of environments and opportunities. Infants learn by actively exploring and interacting with their surroundings, which stimulates neural pathways and refines motor coordination. For instance, repeated attempts at grasping objects enhance fine motor control and hand-eye coordination over time. These factors illustrate how dynamic systems theory emphasizes the multifaceted nature of motor development, where biological maturation, learning processes, and environmental influences interact dynamically to shape the acquisition of motor skills in children. 7. Watching infants and toddlers move through the motor milestones is thrilling. Parents also celebrate a much less glamorous milestone: When their toddlers become toilet trained. Discuss the process of toilet training. Be sure to include the average age that toilet training occurs, along with the physical and cognitive factors that must be in place before potty training can be successful. Answer: Students' answers will vary but should include an understanding that toddlers gain voluntary control over the muscles that control their bladder and bowel movements by the time they are 18 to 24 months old. They should also address physical readiness (such as being able to walk well enough that they can get to the potty), emotional readiness (such as not being afraid of the potty) and cognitive readiness (such as an awareness of having soiled diapers). Toilet training typically occurs between the ages of 2 and 3 years, though the exact age can vary widely among children. Several factors contribute to successful toilet training: 1. Physical Readiness: Children must have developed sufficient bladder and bowel control. This involves being able to recognize the sensation of a full bladder or rectum, hold urine or stool for a brief period, and release them voluntarily when on the toilet. 2. Cognitive Readiness: Children need to understand and follow simple instructions related to toileting, such as recognizing the need to go, understanding the concept of using a toilet, and communicating their needs to caregivers. 3. Motor Skills: Basic motor skills are necessary for toilet training, including being able to walk to the toilet, sit on it, and eventually manage clothing (like pulling down pants and underwear). 4. Social and Emotional Factors: Children need to be motivated and willing to cooperate with the toilet training process. Positive reinforcement, encouragement, and praise from caregivers play a crucial role in their success. 5. Parental Support: Parents play a vital role in providing consistent encouragement, setting routines, and being patient through accidents and setbacks. Successful toilet training involves a gradual process of teaching and reinforcing these skills, adapting to each child's pace and readiness. Understanding and responding to cues from the child, as well as creating a supportive and encouraging environment, are key elements in achieving successful toilet training. 4.5 MyDevelopmentLab Questions 1. Newborns are totally dependent, reflexive organisms. Describe the cognitive and perceptual milestones the typical 1-week-old infant would have. Answer: What they see is limited to patterns and light and dark. They can distinguish location and pitch and volume of sound and will grasp an object if they touch it accidentally. At one week old, typical cognitive and perceptual milestones of a newborn include: 1. Reflexes: Newborns exhibit reflexes such as sucking, swallowing, rooting (turning toward touch on the cheek), and grasping. These reflexes help with basic survival and interaction with the environment. 2. Limited Visual Focus: Infants at this age can see objects at a distance of about 8-12 inches from their face. They prefer to look at high-contrast patterns and shapes, which capture their attention. 3. Auditory Recognition: Newborns can recognize familiar sounds, such as their mother's voice, and may startle or turn their head toward sudden noises. 4. Tactile Sensitivity: Infants respond to touch and can differentiate between different textures and temperatures, seeking comfort through physical contact. 5. Basic State Changes: They cycle through states of alertness, sleep, and periods of drowsiness. They are not yet able to regulate their sleep patterns fully. These milestones reflect the early stages of sensory and perceptual development, laying the groundwork for more advanced cognitive and motor skills to develop over the coming weeks and months. 2. Ninety percent of all the brain neurons are developed during the prenatal period. All of the components needed for optimal fetal brain development are contained in the A) prenatal nutrition provided by the mother. B) exchange of blood through the placenta. C) amniotic fluid. D) oxygen and fetal waste as it is exchanged. Answer: A) prenatal nutrition provided by the mother. 3. Within the ends of axons of a neuron are _____ known as neurotransmitters. A) dendrites B) chemical substances C) synapses D) reflexes Answer: B) chemical substances Test Bank for The World of Children Joan Littlefield Cook, Greg Cook 9780205953738
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