Chapter 3 Prenatal Development and Birth 3.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1. When one sperm cell unites with one egg cell, this is called A) ovulation B) differentiation C) conception D) implantation Answer: C) conception 2. During a woman’s reproductive years, one egg cell will come to maturity every _____ days. A) 7 B) 14 C) 21 D) 28 Answer: D) 28 3. The release of an ovum from the female ovary is called ________. A) prenatal development B) ovulation C) differentiation D) zygote Answer: B) ovulation 4. When more than one ovum is released, _____ twins, triplets, or other multiples can be conceived. A) dizygotic B) monozygotic C) identical D) maternal Answer: A) dizygotic When more than one ovum is released, dizygotic twins, triplets, or other multiples can be conceived. Any of these conceptions can later divide to form monozygotic (identical) twins. 5. A man may ejaculate as many as 500 million sperm cells during intercourse, but only _____will survive the journey into the fallopian tube. A) one B) about 50 C) a few hundred D) at least one million Answer: C) a few hundred 6. Fertilization occurs in the A) ovary. B) fallopian tube. C) uterus. D) vagina. Answer: B) fallopian tube. It is in the upper and wider part of the fallopian tube that conception normally occurs. 7. During the early phase of cell division, researchers refer to the organism as ________. A) an embryo B) an ovum C) a fetus D) a zygote Answer: D) a zygote 8. During cell division in a zygote, one cell divides and forms a heart cell and another cell divides and forms a brain cell. Which of the following best describes the process that is taking place? A) differentiation B) implantation C) fertilization D) ovulation Answer: A) differentiation Differentiation is the important process whereby each new cell, as it divides, forms a particular structure. 9. The three major stages of prenatal development are A) germinal, embryonic, and fetal. B) ovulation, fertilization, and differentiation. C) blastocyst, organogenesis, and trophoblast. D) ovulation, conception, and organogenesis. Answer: A) germinal, embryonic, and fetal. 10. The ________ stage of prenatal development takes place during the first two weeks after conception. A) germinal B) embryonic C) fetal D) placental Answer: A) germinal 11. Approximately _____ hours after conception, the fertilized egg cell divides for the first time, resulting in two identical cells. A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 12 Answer: D) 12 12. The zygote will take _____ to travel through the fallopian tube before reaching the uterus. A) 1-2 days B) 3-4 days C) 5-6 days D) one week Answer: B) 3-4 days 13. The zygote’s outer layer of cells divides rapidly and elongates to form an outer layer called the A) trophoblast. B) blastocyst. C) placenta. D) amniotic sac. Answer: A) trophoblast. 14. In which stage of prenatal development does implantation occur? A) germinal B) embryonic C) fetal D) placental Answer: A) germinal Implantation of the zygote in the uterine lining occurs 8-12 days after conception during the germinal stage. 15. The formation of the trophoblast and blastocyst occur during the ________ stage. A) germinal B) embryonic C) fetal D) placental Answer: A) germinal The first cell differentiation occurs during the germinal stage at 3 to 4 days. 16. The trophoblast is the ________ layer of cells of a developing zygote. A) inner B) middle C) outer D) fetal Answer: C) outer 17. The blastocyst is the ________ layer of cells of a developing zygote. A) inner B) middle C) outer D) fetal Answer: A) inner 18. Which of the following structures differentiates to become the placenta, the umbilical cord, and other support structures for the developing baby? A) blastocyst B) chorionic villi C) trophoblast D) vernix caseosa Answer: C) trophoblast The trophoblast will differentiate to become the placenta, umbilical cord, amniotic sac, and other structures that support the developing baby. 19. The embryonic stage of prenatal development has all of the following milestones EXCEPT A) implantation. B) differentiation of the blastocyst. C) organogenesis. D) beginning of brain formation. Answer: A) implantation. Implantation occurs during the germinal stage. 20. The zygote embeds itself into the inner lining of the mother's uterus in a process called A) organogenesis. B) spontaneous abortion. C) trophoblast. D) implantation. Answer: D) implantation. 21. The optimal time for implantation is _____ days after conception. A) 5 B) 9 C) 14 D) 28 Answer: B) 9 22. A zygote is referred to as an embryo after the zygote A) has its first cell division. B) implants itself in the uterine lining. C) has its first cell differentiation. D) complete organogenesis. Answer: B) implants itself in the uterine lining. After the zygote implants into the uterine lining, the organism is referred to as an embryo. 23. Which stage of prenatal development occurs during the third to eighth weeks of pregnancy? A) germinal B) embryonic C) fetal D) placental Answer: B) embryonic 24. Dana is seven weeks pregnant. In which stage of prenatal development is her baby? A) germinal B) embryonic C) fetal D) placental Answer: B) embryonic. The embryonic stage is weeks 3 through 8. 25. The outer layer of the cell mass during the embryonic stage, which gives rise to the nervous system, sensory receptors, and outer skin layers, is called the A) endoderm. B) mesoderm. C) ectoderm. D) trophoblast. Answer: C) ectoderm. 26. The circulatory system and the skeleton are ultimately formed by which embryonic layer of cells? A) endoderm B) mesoderm C) ectoderm D) trophoblast Answer: B) mesoderm 27. The endodermic layer eventually becomes the A) respiratory system. B) muscles. C) outer skin layers. D) brain and spinal cord. Answer: A) respiratory system. 28. The formation of the placenta occurs during which stage of prenatal development? A) germinal B) embryonic C) fetal D) placental Answer: B) embryonic 29. A naturally occurring termination of a pregnancy during the first 20 weeks of gestation is called A) an induced abortion. B) a spontaneous abortion. C) an implantation abortion. D) a stillbirth. Answer: B) a spontaneous abortion. 30. A general estimate is that _____ of all conceptions end in a miscarriage. A) 5-10% B) 10-20% C) 20-30% D) 30-40% Answer: D) 30-40% 31. What percentage of miscarriages occur even before women are aware of their pregnancies? A) 10% B) 20% C) 40% D) 50% Answer: D) 50% 32. The neural tube, which forms the brain and spinal cord, begins to develop during which stage? A) germinal B) embryonic C) fetal D) implantation Answer: B) embryonic The spinal cord and brain begin to form during the third week called the embryonic stage. 33. The spongy tissue that grows out of the trophoblast layer and into the uterine lining of the mother is called the A) blastocyst. B) neural tube. C) placenta. D) ectoderm. Answer: C) placenta. 34. Which of the following structures connects the placenta and allows materials to be carried to and from the developing organism? A) teratogen B) neural tube C) amniotic fluid D) umbilical cord Answer: D) umbilical cord 35. The umbilical cord contains A) two veins and one artery. B) two arteries and one vein. C) two veins and two arteries. D) one vein and three arteries. Answer: B) two arteries and one vein. The umbilical cord contains two arteries and one vein that carry materials back and forth between the mother and the developing baby. 36. By _____ weeks the eyes begin to form, the torso continues to form, and the heart tissue begins to “flutter” in a primitive heartbeat. A) 1 week B) 2 weeks C) 4 weeks D) 8 weeks Answer: C) 4 weeks 37. The first reflexes appear during which of the following prenatal stages of development? A) germinal B) embryonic C) fetal D) placental Answer: C) fetal 38. The first reflexes to appear are usually the A) startle and sucking reflexes. B) Moro and rooting reflexes. C) rooting and grasping reflexes. D) grasping and Moro reflexes. Answer: A) startle and sucking reflexes. 39. During weeks _____, the first arm and leg movements begin, although the mother cannot yet feel them. A) 1 through 3 B) 4 through 6 C) 7 through 9 D) 9 through 12 Answer: D) 9 through 12 40. During weeks _____, the sex organs develop enough that an ultrasound examination can reveal the sex of the fetus. A) 1 through 3 B) 4 through 6 C) 7 through 9 D) 9 through 12 Answer: D) 9 through 12 41. The fetal stage occurs between A) conception and 2 weeks. B) 3 weeks and 8 weeks. C) 9 weeks and birth. D) the onset of labor and delivery. Answer: C) 9 weeks and birth. 42. Betty is a pregnant woman who says that she can feel her baby's movements in utero. In which stage of prenatal development is her baby? A) germinal B) embryonic C) fetal D) cephalocaudal Answer: C) fetal During weeks 17 through 20, the mother begins to feel movements as the fetus rolls around within the amniotic sac. 43. During weeks _____, the mother begins to feel movements. A) 13-16 B) 17-20 C) 21-25 D) 25-28 Answer: B) 17-20 44. During weeks _____ the heartbeat can be heard with a stethoscope. A) 13-16 B) 17-20 C) 21-25 D) 25-28 Answer: B) 17-20 45. By week _____ fat begins to form. A) 6 B) 12 C) 18 D) 24 Answer: D) 24 46. By _____ weeks, the lungs are mature enough to allow successful breathing. A) 18-20 B) 22-24 C) 24-26 D) 26-28 Answer: D) 26-28 47. At approximately _____ pounds, the fetus may now be viable if born early. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: A) 2 48. During weeks 28 through 40, the fetus typically gains more than _____ pounds. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: D) 5 49. At its peak during the fetal stage, the brain produces more than _____ new cells per minute. A) 2,000 B) 25,000 C) 250,000 D) 2 billion Answer: C) 250,000 50. "Cephalo" and "caudal" bear the same relation as A) head to tail. B) tail to head. C) near to away. D) away to near. Answer: A) head to tail. Cephalo refers to head and caudal to tail. 51. In prenatal development, the heart tissue forms before the arms. This pattern of prenatal development is described as A) cephalocaudal. B) proximodistal. C) endodermic. D) mesodermic. Answer: B) proximodistal. Proximo refers to nearness (to the body’s midline) and distal to distance away (from the midline). 52. The times when developing structures in the embryo are most prone to damage by environmental events are called A) organogenesis. B) teratogens. C) critical periods. D) differentiation. Answer: C) critical periods. 53. The process in organ formation where each major organ and system becomes represented by its own unique cellular tissue is called A) organogenesis. B) teratogens. C) critical periods. D) differentiation. Answer: A) organogenesis. 54. When organogenesis is complete, the organism is then called A) a zygote. B) a germ cell. C) an embryo. D) a fetus. Answer: D) a fetus. The completion of organogenesis signals the end of the embryonic stage, and the organism is then called a fetus. 55. As many as _____ of all birth defects are related to environmental factors that threaten the fetus while it is still developing in the mother’s womb. A) one-fourth B) one-third C) one-half D) two-thirds Answer: B) one-third 56. The amniotic fluid buffers the developing child against all of the following EXCEPT A) temperature changes. B) infections. C) loud noises. D) the mother's sudden movements. Answer: B) infections. The amniotic fluid buffers the developing child against temperature changes, loud noises, and the mother's sudden movements. 57. Teratology is the study of teratogens, which are A) substances that might cause birth defects. B) abnormalities in the child’s chromosomes. C) premature babies. D) layers of tissues in the developing organism. Answer: A) substances that might cause birth defects. 58. Which of the following is an example of a teratogen? A) organic foods B) the common cold C) cocaine D) genetic defect Answer: C) cocaine 59. Which of the following terms refers to births that occur before 37 weeks of gestation? A) premature birth B) preterm birth C) low birth weight D) induced abortion Answer: B) preterm birth 60. A fetal alcohol syndrome newborn shows which of the following symptoms? A) blindness B) cerebral palsy C) muscle atrophy D) head and facial malformations Answer: D) head and facial malformations 61. In large national surveys, _____ of women of childbearing age report that they drink alcohol. A) 20% B) 40% C) 60% D) 80% Answer: C) 60% 62. One national survey found that _____ of women report some alcohol use during pregnancy. A) 3% B) 12% C) 15% D) 20% Answer: B) 12% 63. Women who consumed alcohol during pregnancy had a miscarriage rate that was _____ higher than the rate for nondrinkers. A) 20% B) 40% C) 60% D) 80% Answer: B) 40% 64. Women who consumed an average of five or more drinks per week during pregnancy had a miscarriage rate that was _____ higher than the rate for nondrinkers. A) 50% B) 60% C) 70% D) 80% Answer: C) 70% 65. The leading known cause of intellectual disability in the United States is A) prenatal alcohol exposure. B) environmental pollution. C) maternal diseases. D) cigarette smoking during pregnancy. Answer: A) prenatal alcohol exposure. Experts believe that prenatal alcohol exposure is the leading known cause of intellectual disability in the United States. 66. Chronic alcoholics consume at least _____ drinks per day. A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: C) 6 67. Binge drinking is the consumption of _____ or more drinks on one occasion, at least once per week. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 Answer: D) 5 68. Drinking as little as _____ alcoholic beverage(s) per week was related to increases in child aggression. A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 Answer: A) 1 69. Researchers reported that it would take _____ night(s) of binge drinking to cause serious brain damage and learning problems in the child. A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 Answer: A) 1 70. As many as _____ fetal brain cells are destroyed each time a mother consumes only one or two alcoholic drinks. A) 2 million B) 10 million C) 20 million D) 80 million Answer: C) 20 million 71. Tight eyelids, flattened midface, short nose, and thin upper lip are all associated with which of the following teratogens? A) cocaine B) alcohol C) lead D) rubella Answer: B) alcohol. Tight eyelids, flattened midface, short nose, and thin upper lip are typical head and face malformations associated with FAS. 72. Which of the following processes is a way in which alcohol can damage a fetus? A) Alcohol can increase cell division. B) Alcohol can kill fetal cells. C) Alcohol can raise IQ. D) Alcohol can deprive the fetus of oxygen. Answer: B) Alcohol can kill fetal cells. The alcohol in the mother’s bloodstream crosses the placenta; once it reaches the fetus it can disrupt cell division and kill fetal cells. 73. The range of outcomes resulting from prenatal exposure to alcohol is called_______. A) fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). B) fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD). C) fetal alcohol disorder (FAD). D) fetal alcohol syndrome and spectrum disorder (FASSD). Answer: B) fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD). 74. Researchers believe that as many as ____ out of every 1,000 live births show fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD). A) 3 B) 6 C) 12 D) 24 Answer: B) 6 75. A child with cerebral palsy, like Justin, cannot A) feed himself. B) stand. C) dress himself. D) enjoy music. Answer: B) stand. Justin cannot stand or take steps without holding someone’s arm, using his crutches, wheelchair, or walker. 76. Approximately _____ percent of women admit that they used cocaine during pregnancy. A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 Answer: A) 1 77. ________ -exposed newborns can show evidence of hemorrhage, lesions, swelling in the brain, and other brain abnormalities. A) Cocaine B) Alcohol C) Marijuana D) HIV Answer: A) Cocaine Cocaine-exposed newborns can show evidence of hemorrhage, lesions, swelling in the brain, and other brain abnormalities. 78. Monica used cocaine while she was pregnant with her baby. Which of the following symptoms would most likely be seen in her newborn? A) irritability B) blindness C) microcephaly D) jaundice Answer: A) irritability Cocaine-exposed newborns have increased irritability, muscle tremors, rigidity, and decreased spontaneous movement. 79. Which of the following statements regarding the effects of cocaine on prenatal development is FALSE? A) The fetus can experience heart failure, stroke, and brain hemorrhage. B) Babies can be born with malformations of the intestines and urinary tract. C) Cocaine affects the functioning of the brain but not its overall size or structure. D) Babies can display decreased visual attention and difficulty regulating arousal states. Answer: C) Cocaine affects the functioning of the brain but not its overall size or structure. 80. Approximately _____ percent of pregnant women report that they smoked cigarettes during their pregnancies. A) 5 B) 10 C) 16 D) 20 Answer: B) 10 81. Cigarette smoke contains more than _____different harmful chemicals. A) 1,000 B) 2,000 C) 5,000 D) 7,000 Answer: D) 7,000 82. Which of the following is a mechanism through which cigarette smoking typically impacts prenatal development? A) Chemicals in cigarettes can increase blood supply to the fetus. B) Mothers gain more weight during their pregnancy. C) Cigarette smoking reduces the supply of oxygen that is available to the fetus. D) The fetus is born addicted to nicotine and must go through a process of detoxification. Answer: C) Cigarette smoking reduces the supply of oxygen that is available to the fetus. 83. Cigarette smoking during pregnancy can damage the A) placenta. B) amniotic sac. C) umbilical cord. D) chorionic villi. Answer: A) placenta. Cigarette smoke can damage the placenta, reduce the blood supply to the placenta and uterus, and reduce the supply of oxygen and nutrients available to the fetus. 84. Which of the following is the most common problem associated with newborns of mothers who smoke? A) blindness B) low birth weight C) microcephaly D) emphysema Answer: B) low birth weight Low birth weight is the most common problem associated with newborns of mothers who smoke. 85. Children born to mothers who smoked during pregnancy tend to score lower in A) science. B) social studies. C) math. D) writing. Answer: C) math. Children born to mothers who smoked during pregnancy are more likely to be hyperactive and to have short attention spans, and they tend to score lower in reading, spelling, and math. 86. In the last 20 years, there has been a _____ percent decrease in the number of women who smoke during pregnancy. A) 12 B) 24 C) 36 D) 45 Answer: D) 45 87. A woman's chance of ________ increases threefold if she catches herpes simplex virus in early pregnancy. A) stillbirth B) miscarriage C) induced abortion D) low birth weight Answer: B) miscarriage When a woman contracts HSV in early pregnancy, her risk of miscarriage increases threefold. 88. About one in _____ of women are infected with herpes simplex virus. A) two B) five C) ten D) twenty Answer: B) five 89. If they receive antiviral medications, about _____ of HSV-infected newborns will escape permanent damage. A) 1 quarter B) 1 third C) half D) 2 thirds Answer: C) half 90. Which of the following statements regarding cytomegalovirus (CMV) is FALSE? A) CMV is carried by 50 to 75% of the current U.S. population. B) Adults usually have serious health problems as a result of the CMV. C) An embryo infected with CMV will usually die. D) Babies infected with CMV are at risk for microcephaly and cerebral palsy. Answer: B) Adults usually have serious health problems as a result of the CMV. 91. Which of the following diseases would cause a baby to almost always be born with birth defects such as deafness, facial deformities, excess fluid in the brain, and mental retardation if a mother contracts this disease while pregnant and does not get treatment? A) HIV B) emphysema C) syphilis D) lead poisoning Answer: C) syphilis 92. In _____ the laws prosecute fathers who drink alcohol with their pregnant wives or girlfriends. A) Ohio B) Nebraska C) Alaska D) New York Answer: B) Nebraska In Nebraska the laws focus on the entire family as a unit, and it is possible to prosecute fathers who drink alcohol with their pregnant wives or girlfriends. 93. Nearly _____ of women infected with HIV are not aware that they are infected. A) one-quarter B) one-third C) one-half D) two-thirds Answer: A) one-quarter 94. In the United States, approximately ________ teenagers become pregnant each year. A) 500,000 B) 750,000 C) 1,000,000 D) No reliable data is available. Answer: B) 750,000 95. Kelly is 14 and pregnant. Which of the following problems is Kelly's baby most likely to have? A) low birth weight B) Down syndrome C) HIV infection D) CMV Answer: A) low birth weight The percentage of babies born low in birth weight is highest for mothers under the age of 15 and over 44. 96. Which of the following is a factor that tends to be associated with teenage pregnancy? A) a deep desire to have children B) high income C) popularity D) drug and alcohol use Answer: D) drug and alcohol use 97. The birth rates for women over 35 hit a low in the late 1970s, but since then their birth rates have _____ A) increased slightly. B) increased considerably. C) doubled. D) tripled. Answer: C) doubled. 98. Prolonged exposure to toxins during the fetal stage tends to cause growth retardation and A) higher IQ. B) lower IQ. C) has no effect on IQ. D) the effects are unknown Answer: B) lower IQ. 99. The critical period of maximum risk to a developing organism due to toxins is A) during the first two weeks. B) during weeks three to eight. C) during weeks nine to birth. D) after organogenesis is complete. Answer: B) during weeks three to eight. 100. Which of the following is TRUE about unhealthy sperm? A) Most damaged sperm do not survive the long journey to the egg. B) Nature rarely selects out unhealthy sperm. C) Sperm is unaffected by toxic substances. D) Cocaine destroys the mobility of sperm cells. Answer: A) Most damaged sperm do not survive the long journey to the egg. In most cases, when toxic substances affect sperm cells, the damaged sperm do not survive the long journey to the egg. 101. Which of the following statements is TRUE about cocaine? A) Cocaine accumulates in the testes. B) Cocaine cannot bind to human sperm cells. C) Cocaine ingested by the father can affect the mother during intercourse. D) Cocaine has no impact on sperm cells. Answer: A) Cocaine accumulates in the testes. Cocaine accumulates in the testes and can damage sperm cells. 102. The majority of birth defects result from A) the father's exposure to toxins. B) the mother's exposure to toxins. C) disruptions to early cell divisions in the zygote. D) disturbances after organogenesis is complete. Answer: B) the mother's exposure to toxins. 103. Binge drinking is _____ as high among men as among women. A) half B) equally C) twice D) three times Answer: C) twice 104. The rate of binge drinking is defined as consuming ______ or more drinks for men on an occasion. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: C) 5 105. Vague tightening in the uterus off and on weeks or months before delivery is called A) dilation. B) false labor contractions. C) showing. D) placental contractions. Answer: B) false labor contractions. 106. Which of the following present the stages of birth in the correct order? A) dilation, delivery, afterbirth B) delivery, dilation, afterbirth C) dilation, afterbirth, delivery D) delivery, afterbirth, dilation Answer: A) dilation, delivery, afterbirth 107. The gradual opening of the cervix during the first stage of birth is called A) dilation. B) delivery. C) afterbirth. D) fetal distress. Answer: A) dilation. 108. The ________ is a tough ring of tissue that keeps the fetus inside the uterus. A) fallopian tube B) cervix C) vagina D) placenta Answer: B) cervix 109. During stage one of labor, the cervix must dilate to approximately ________ to allow for passage of the baby. A) 6 cm B) 10 cm C) 12 cm D) The cervix does not dilate in stage one. Answer: B) 10 cm 110. Which of the following statements about the first stage of birth is TRUE? A) The placenta and other membranes emerge through the birth canal. B) Contractions push the baby through the birth canal. C) The cervix dilates to about 100 times its normal diameter. D) The major organs become functional. Answer: C) The cervix dilates to about 100 times its normal diameter. During stage 1 of labor the cervix must dilate to 10 cm, which is about 100 times its normal diameter. 111. Your pregnant friend Jean calls you and reports that her contractions are regular and have been going on for about an hour. You suspect that she may be in which of the following labor stages? A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4 Answer: A) Stage 1 112. Which of the stages of birth involve the baby actually moving through the birth canal? A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4 Answer: B) Stage 2 113. The last stage of birth involves A) the delivery of the baby. B) the contraction of the cervix. C) the expulsion of the placenta. D) the Apgar test. Answer: C) the expulsion of the placenta. In stage 3, the placenta and other membranes emerge through the birth canal in a process referred to as afterbirth. 114. The process of afterbirth usually lasts A) six to fourteen hours. B) thirty minutes to two hours. C) less than an hour. D) up to a day. Answer: C) less than an hour. 115. According to Martin, et al. (2009), what percentage of babies in the United States is born in hospitals? A) 99 percent B) 85 percent C) 75 percent D) 50 percent Answer: A) 99 percent 116. The term ________ refers to the use of birthing techniques designed to reduce muscle tension, promote relaxation, and reduce pain during labor and delivery. A) midwifery B) prepared childbirth C) classical conditioning D) home birth Answer: B) prepared childbirth. In prepared childbirth, women and their partners learn about the stages of labor and what to expect during childbirth. 117. Frederick Lamaze theorized that A) birthing centers would decrease the risk of spreading contagious diseases to newborns. B) women have been classically conditioned to believe that labor contractions will be painful. C) women have a low tolerance for pain and need a general anesthetic during labor. D) the delivery room environment should offer a trauma-free experience for the newborn. Answer: B) women have been classically conditioned to believe that labor contractions will be painful. 118. "Rooming-in" refers to the practice of allowing A) women to stay in their own private hospital rooms to give birth. B) the newborn to stay in the same room with his or her mother. C) the woman's partner to stay in the labor and delivery room. D) underwater delivery to occur in the mother's private room. Answer: B) the newborn to stay in the same room with his or her mother. 119. About _____ percent of births today are attended by certified nurse-midwives either instead of or in addition to the physician. A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 C) 11 Answer: B) 7 120. Another name for prepared childbirth classes is A) the Lamaze method. B) doula. C) nurse-midwife classes. D) rooming-in. Answer: A) the Lamaze method. The Lamaze method is one prepared childbirth approach. 121. The most common position for giving birth is A) in a bath or underwater. B) kneeling. C) lying in bed. D) squatting Answer: C) lying in bed. 122. A nurse-midwife would not work with a pregnant woman who A) is a teenager. B) is over 40. C) is more than one week past her due date. D) has preeclampsia. Answer: D) has preeclampsia. A nurse-midwife does not take care of women with pregnancy-induced hypertension (preeclampsia/toxemia). 123. A labor coach or companion A) attends the childbirth preparation classes with the expectant mother. B) delivers the baby and cuts the umbilical cord. C) is responsible for monitoring the woman's pain and delivering drugs as needed. D) is usually the doctor. Answer: A) attends the childbirth preparation classes with the expectant mother. The coach attends the childbirth preparation classes with the expectant mother, helps her practice the relaxation and breathing techniques, and is on hand and ready to offer assistance throughout labor and delivery. 124. Having more choices about her birth experience may A) cause more stress for a woman during pregnancy because she has to make too many decisions. B) contribute to a less positive birth experience for her entire family. C) help women relax more during delivery and reduce their pain in childbirth. D) result in feeling overwhelmed about how to obtain alternative birthing experiences. Answer: C) help women relax more during delivery and reduce their pain in childbirth. Simply having some degree of control over the event may help women and their partners develop a more positive attitude. 125. Research shows that women who engage in prepared childbirth tend to A) need C-section deliveries. B) want more medication. C) enjoy childbirth less. D) experience less pain. Answer: D) experience less pain. Research shows that women who engage in prepared childbirth tend to experience less pain, need less pain medication, and enjoy childbirth more. 126. Partners who assist in the birth process report A) greater feelings of emotional distance from the baby. B) greater feelings of emotional distance from the mother. C) more positive feelings about the birthing process. D) more of the physical pain the mother experiences. Answer: C) more positive feelings about the birthing process. Fathers and other partners report benefits as well, expressing more positive feelings about the birth and feeling greater emotional closeness to both the baby and the mother. 127. Silver nitrate is used with newborns to A) remove remnants of vernix caseosa. B) expel excess amniotic fluid from the lungs. C) prevent visual problems. D) supply needed nutrients. Answer: C) prevent visual problems. Physicians and nurses often treat the newborn’s eyes with silver nitrate; this prevents visual problems due to diseases such as gonorrhea. 128. The white, cheesy coating that protects babies' skin before birth is called A) endoderm. B) trophoblast. C) organogenesis. D) vernix caseosa. Answer: D) vernix caseosa. 129. The breech position is a type of A) fetal distress. B) cesarean section. C) transverse position. D) malpresentation. Answer: D) malpresentation. Malpresentation includes breech or transverse positions. 130. Anoxia is a type of A) fetal distress. B) cesarean section. C) transverse position. D) malpresentation. Answer: A) fetal distress. One type of distress that can have very serious consequences is anoxia, or deprivation of oxygen. 131. Which of the following is a birthing complication that involves the position of the fetus? A) oxygen deprivation B) anoxia C) breech D) change in respiration Answer: C) breech Malpresentation includes breech or transverse positions. 132. Which of the following is a birth complication that involves fetal distress? A) malpresentation B) anoxia C) breech position D) transverse position Answer: B) anoxia One type of distress that can have very serious consequences is anoxia, or deprivation of oxygen. 133. Anoxia can occur due to A) a C-section delivery. B) a breech position. C) a head-down fetal position. D) deterioration of the placenta. Answer: D) deterioration of the placenta. 134. In which country is a woman most likely to use a local birth attendant? A) Mexico B) China C) Japan D) United States Answer: A) Mexico In rural Mexico, a mother begins to feel contractions so she goes to the home of her local birth attendant. 135. In which country is a woman most likely to have a physician intervene with surgery? A) Mexico B) China C) Japan D) United States Answer: B) China. In China, a mother goes to a local hospital that is very modern and large. 136. Most newborns are given the Apgar Test at one minute and A) five minutes. B) ten minutes. C) thirty minutes. D) one hour. Answer: A) five minutes. 137. Maria's baby has just received his second Apgar test. Maria is very pleased to hear that he received an excellent score. What score did Maria's baby most likely receive? A) 0-3 B) A-C C) 7-10 D) 90-100 Answer: C) 7-10. A score from 7 to 10 is excellent. 138. Approximately _____ percent of all babies born in the United States have five-minute Apgar scores in the “excellent” range. A) 69 B) 79 C) 89 D) 99 Answer: C) 89 139. During the middle part of the twentieth century, doctors used ________ for pain relief during childbirth. A) major tranquilizers B) antianxiety medications C) breathing techniques D) local anesthetics Answer: A) major tranquilizers During the middle part of the twentieth century, doctors used major tranquilizers and general anesthetics for pain relief. 140. The injection of a mixture of pain-relieving drugs into spaces along the spine of the mother before delivery is called ________. A) general tranquilizer B) general anesthesia C) epidural anesthesia D) epidural tranquilizer Answer: C) epidural anesthesia A popular approach is to use epidural anesthesia, the injection of a mixture of pain-relieving drugs into spaces along the spine of the mother. 141. Studies about the effects of pain-relieving drugs on the health of the newborn baby have shown A) consistent results that such pain-relieving drugs have serious long-term consequences. B) mixed results depending upon the drugs given and the amount administered. C) that the drugs have no significant short- or long-term effect on the newborn. D) uncertain results because it cannot be determined when the newborn's deficits are due to the drugs or genetics. Answer: C) that the drugs have no significant short- or long-term effect on the newborn 142. Various studies have documented that anywhere from 68 to _____ percent of all hospital-based deliveries in the United States involve some type of medication for the relief of the mother’s pain. A) 70 B) 75 C) 85 D) 95 Answer: D) 95 143. It is estimated that about ____ of the babies born in the United States are delivered by C-section. A) one-tenth B) one-fourth C) one-third D) half Answer: C) one-third 144. Which of the following statements about success in the transition to parenthood is FALSE? A) The new parents experience no stress or problems. B) The new parents are welcoming their firstborn child. C) The new parents must learn how to be more than just a married couple. D) The new parents must learn to share their time and energy with the newborn. Answer: A) The new parents experience no stress or problems. Success in this transition does not mean that the new parents experience no stress or problems—such a situation is probably impossible. 145. Jennifer and Michael just had their first baby. Which of the following issues would you tell them is unlikely that they would experience in their transition to parenthood? A) issues with their own parents B) identity issues C) transition to becoming a sibling D) attitudes towards their new role Answer: C) transition to becoming a sibling Becoming a sibling would mean that their parents had a second child. 146. Which of the following is a common characteristic of sibling transition in an older sibling? A) willingness to share B) increased whininess C) takes regular naps D) vomiting Answer: B) increased whininess 3.2 True/False Questions 1. There are three prenatal stages. Answer: True 2. Twenty days after conception, implantation occurs. Answer: False 3. The mother and her developing infant share the same bloodstream. Answer: False 4. Children of women who smoked during pregnancy tend to score low in reading, spelling, and math. Answer: True 5. Lead poisoning is the leading known cause of mental retardation. Answer: False 6. Fetal alcohol syndrome was first identified in 1988. Answer: False 7. Cocaine can bind with sperm cells and be carried to the egg. Answer: True 8. Cognitive and behavioral deficits associated with FASD may be subtle and may not even become apparent until later in childhood. Answer: True 9. The herpes simplex virus (HSV) can cause intellectual disability. Answer: True 10. Teen pregnancy rates for younger teens (ages 15 to 17) have steadily increased every year over the last fifteen years. Answer: False 11. Alcohol damages the genetic material in sperm. Answer: True 12. Researchers believe that what triggers the start of the birth process is when the fetal brain reaches a certain point of maturity and sends a signal that prompts hormonal changes in the mother, causing her uterine muscles to contract. Answer: True 13. Midwifery is illegal in the United States. Answer: False 14. Having some degree of control over her birth experience choices may help women feel more confident about going into labor. Answer: True. 15. Infants' heads are usually much smaller than their bodies. Answer: False 16. Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy coating that protects babies' skin before birth. Answer: True 17. Newborns cannot see. Answer: False 18. Fetal distress is a common form of malpresentation. Answer: False 19. An Apgar score of 7 or greater indicates that the newborn is at serious risk and that immediate attention is needed to save the baby. Answer: False 20. Most women experience significant pain and discomfort as labor contractions continue, even when they use prepared childbirth techniques. Answer: True 3.3 Short Answer Questions 1. The development of an organism that occurs before its birth is called ________. Answer: prenatal development 2. ________ is the process that occurs during cell division in which each new cell is committed to becoming a particular structure and serving a particular function. Answer: Differentiation 3. The ________ is the stage of prenatal development during which implantation occurs. Answer: germinal stage. The germinal stage begins at conception and spans the first 2 weeks of pregnancy. 4. The process through which important body structures differentiate is known as ________. Answer: organogenesis 5. The ________ pattern refers to a "head-to-tail" pattern of growth. Answer: cephalocaudal 6. The ________ pattern is the pattern of growth where areas closer to the center of the body tend to form and grow before the areas toward the extremities grow. Answer: proximodistal 7. Any substance or condition that can disrupt embryonic development is referred to as a ________. Answer: teratogen 8. The term ________ refers to babies who are born earlier or smaller than they should be. Answer: premature 9. In the study of teratogens, the abbreviation FASD stands for ________. Answer: fetal alcohol spectrum disorder 10. ________ are modern centers that combine the advantages of a hospital with the comforts of a home birth. Answer: Birthing centers 11. ________ is a form of malpresentation where the baby lies sideways in the uterus. Answer: Transverse position 12. The injection of a mixture of pain-relieving drugs into spaces along the spine of the mother before delivery is called ________. Answer: epidural anesthesia 3.4 Essay Questions 1. Each year, hundreds of thousands of babies are born with birth defects that threaten their lives or compromise their future development. About one-third of these defects are caused by teratogens. Define the term teratogen and then discuss three types of teratogens. Be sure to include what the teratogen is, as well as the potential effects that the teratogen might have on the developing child. Answer: Students' answers will vary depending upon which of the teratogens they choose to discuss. A teratogen is any substance or factor that can cause malformation of an embryo or fetus. Three types of teratogens and their effects are: 1. Drugs and Medications (e.g., alcohol, certain prescription drugs like isotretinoin): • Teratogen: Alcohol • Effects: Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS), leading to facial abnormalities, growth deficiencies, central nervous system problems. 2. Infections (e.g., Zika virus, rubella): • Teratogen: Zika virus • Effects: Microcephaly (small head size), brain damage, developmental delays. 3. Environmental Factors (e.g., radiation, pollutants): • Teratogen: Lead • Effects: Cognitive impairments, behavioral issues, delayed growth. These teratogens illustrate the variety of substances and factors that can adversely affect fetal development, potentially causing lifelong health issues or developmental challenges. 2. Juanita is 14 years old. She has been drinking, smoking, and using cocaine for the last eight months with her boyfriend, Philip. Juanita just found out that she is eight weeks pregnant. Summarize what possible risks Juanita's baby is facing due to Juanita's age and her lifestyle during her early pregnancy. Answer: Students' responses will vary but should address low-birth weight risk for maternal age, teratogenic effects of the alcohol, cigarette smoking, and cocaine use, as well as the impact that those teratogens might have had on her boyfriend's sperm. Juanita's baby faces multiple risks due to her age (14 years old) and her lifestyle choices (drinking, smoking, using cocaine) during early pregnancy: • Increased risk of miscarriage or stillbirth: Teenage mothers have higher rates of pregnancy complications. • Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs): Alcohol consumption can lead to physical, behavioral, and cognitive issues in the baby. • Low birth weight and premature birth: Smoking and drug use increase the chances of these outcomes. • Developmental delays and neurological issues: Cocaine use can affect brain development and function. • Long-term behavioral problems: Children of young mothers and those exposed to substances may face behavioral challenges later in life. 3. Describe three social, psychological, or biological factors known to be correlated with teen pregnancy. Then, discuss how these factors may interrelate with one another in influencing prenatal care. Answer: Students' responses to this essay could focus on a number of factors, including low income, poor education, social isolation, drug and alcohol use, and lack of early prenatal care. Students may also include the concern that young women may not be biologically ready to carry a pregnancy to full term because they have only recently started menstruating. After identifying three factors that are correlated with teen pregnancy, the students should briefly discuss examples of how these factors may interrelate. One example may include how a lack of education may influence both the level of poverty and a teenager's understanding of the need for good prenatal care. A second example could include how social isolation may be related to drug and alcohol abuse, which may be related to employment. Three factors correlated with teen pregnancy: 1. Social Factors: • Poverty: Teens from low-income families may lack access to education and healthcare services, increasing the likelihood of early pregnancy. • Peer Influence: Pressure from peers and societal norms regarding sexuality and relationships can contribute to early sexual activity and pregnancy. 2. Psychological Factors: • Low Self-Esteem: Teens with low self-esteem may seek validation through relationships, leading to early sexual activity and pregnancy. • Mental Health Issues: Conditions like depression or anxiety can affect decision-making and increase vulnerability to risky behaviors. 3. Biological Factors: • Early Puberty: Girls who experience early puberty may be more susceptible to engaging in sexual activity at a younger age. • Lack of Contraceptive Use: Limited knowledge about contraception or barriers to accessing contraceptives can increase the likelihood of unintended pregnancy. These factors interrelate in influencing prenatal care by affecting a teen's readiness and ability to seek and receive appropriate healthcare: Access to Care: Socioeconomic status and social support influence access to prenatal services. Health Behaviors: Psychological factors like self-esteem and mental health can impact a teen's motivation and ability to seek regular prenatal care. Risk Awareness: Biological factors such as early puberty may mean teens are less prepared for pregnancy and less likely to seek timely prenatal care. Addressing these factors comprehensively is crucial for promoting better prenatal care outcomes among teen mothers. 4. Michelle is pregnant and getting ready to give birth. She has read a number of birthing books and feels totally prepared for what will happen to her during delivery, but she doesn't know what her partner, Thomas, should do during her labor and delivery. Describe at least two of the four tasks outlined in your text that partners typically perform during the birthing process. Answer: Students' answers will vary depending upon which of the tasks they choose to discuss. Two tasks partners typically perform during the birthing process include: 1. Emotional Support: Partners play a crucial role in providing emotional support to the laboring mother. This involves reassuring her, offering encouragement, and maintaining a calm presence. They can help alleviate anxiety and stress by being attentive to her needs and providing comfort through physical touch, words of affirmation, and active listening. 2. Advocacy and Communication: Partners act as advocates for the mother, ensuring her preferences and birth plan are communicated to healthcare providers. They can convey her wishes regarding pain management, interventions, and other aspects of the birth process. Partners also facilitate communication between the mother and medical staff, ensuring that she is informed about procedures and choices throughout labor and delivery. 5. Barry, a proud, expecting father, imagines his soon-to-be first daughter in glowing terms: "She'll be gorgeous, I just know it. Glowing skin, pretty brown eyes, beautifully shaped head, well-proportioned body." It's your job to tell Barry what a newborn is really like. What do you say? Answer: Students' answers will vary, but their descriptions should include the facts that newborns' heads are usually very large in relation to their bodies and their skulls are frequently misshapen as a result of being squeezed during the birth process. Their skin may still have remnants of vernix caseosa, which is the white, cheesy coating that protects the skin before birth, so their skin may not, in fact, be "glowing." Newborns can turn their heads and eyes toward voices, and they can see to some extent, so Barry might be able to observe the "pretty brown eyes." Barry, newborn babies are typically born with soft, wrinkled skin that may be covered in vernix, a white, waxy substance. Their heads may appear slightly misshapen from the birth process, and their eyes might be puffy or swollen. Their features are delicate and may change as they grow. It's important to embrace and love your baby for who they are, as their appearance will evolve in the coming weeks and months. 6. No expectant parent likes to think about it, but birthing complications do occur. Your text discusses the birthing problems of malpresentation and fetal distress. Define each of those terms and then give at least two examples of complications that could occur in each category. Answer: Malpresentation is the improper positioning of the fetus in the mother's uterus. One malpresentation complication is breech position, where the buttocks or the feet are the lowest in the uterus. Another malpresentation complication is transverse position, where the baby lies sideways inside the uterus. Fetal distress is a condition that indicates that the fetus is at risk. Examples of fetal distress can include: anoxia (sudden lack of oxygen), change in heart rate, or change in respiration. 7. Transitioning to parenthood is not always an easy thing. Discuss at least three aspects of a successful transition to this new phase of life. Answer: Students' answers will vary depending upon which aspects they choose to discuss. Three aspects of a successful transition to parenthood include: 1. Supportive Relationships: Having strong emotional and practical support from a partner, family, and friends can ease the transition. It's crucial to communicate openly, share responsibilities, and lean on each other during challenging times. 2. Parental Self-Efficacy: Building confidence in one's ability to care for and nurture a child is essential. This involves learning about child development, seeking information and advice, and adapting to the needs of the baby while also taking care of oneself. 3. Flexibility and Adaptability: Being able to adjust to the unpredictable nature of parenting is key. This includes being open to change, managing stress effectively, and being willing to revise expectations as the family dynamic evolves. These aspects contribute to a smoother transition to parenthood, fostering a positive environment for both parents and the newborn. 8. An older sibling, who was originally an only child, may have a difficult time dealing with the arrival of a new baby. Discuss at least three behavioral, cognitive, or emotional changes that may be seen in an older sibling during the first few months after the newborn's arrival. Answer: Students' answers will vary depending upon which aspects they choose to discuss. Three behavioral, cognitive, or emotional changes that may be seen in an older sibling after the arrival of a new baby: 1. Regression: The older sibling may revert to behaviors they had outgrown, such as bed-wetting, thumb-sucking, or seeking more attention from parents like a younger child. 2. Jealousy or Resentment: The older sibling may feel displaced or jealous of the attention given to the new baby. They might exhibit signs of frustration, act out, or withdraw emotionally. 3. Increased Dependence or Independence: Depending on their temperament, the older sibling may either seek more reassurance and support from adults due to feelings of insecurity, or they may assert their independence by trying to do things on their own to gain attention or approval. These changes are common reactions as the older sibling adjusts to the new family dynamic and the attention demands of a newborn sibling. 3.5 MyDevelopmentLab Questions 1. An embryo measuring an inch or less in length is recognizably human at _____ weeks. A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 Answer: D) 7 2. Another name for the birth canal is A) fallopian tube. B) vagina. C) cervix. D) uterus. Answer: B) vagina. The formal name for the birth canal is the vagina. Test Bank for The World of Children Joan Littlefield Cook, Greg Cook 9780205953738
Download
Close
Close
