This Document Contains Chapters 3 to 4 Chapter 03 The Food Supply Multiple Choice Questions 1. Food insecurity is ________. A. the inability to meet food needs all of the time B. more common in developing countries than in developed countries C. associated with impaired physical and mental health in children in the U.S. D. All of these choices are accurate. 2. The percentage of U.S. households considered food insecure is ________. A. 2 B. 25 C. 15 D. 80 3. The U.S. government assistance program that provides vouchers for food purchases to low-income pregnant women, infants, and children is ________. A. the Food Stamp Program B. the WIC program C. the food distribution program D. America's Second Harvest 4. The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) benefits ________. A. only low-income women, infants, and children B. poor households that meet eligibility guidelines C. food banks and pantries in communities across the country D. seniors in adult day-care settings 5. The U.S. government agency that administers most food and nutrition assistance programs is the ________. A. Food and Drug Administration B. United States Department of Agriculture C. Department of Health and Human Services D. Environmental Protection Agency 6. The most common micronutrient deficiencies seen in developing countries are ________. A. vitamin C, vitamin A, and iron B. iron, vitamin D, and calcium C. vitamin C, calcium, and iron D. vitamin A, iron, and iodine 7. Undernutrition results in stunted growth in about _______ of the world's children. A. 50% B. 10% C. 25% D. 8% 8. Populations disproportionately affected by food insecurity, hunger, and malnutrition include ________. A. young children and women B. working adults C. teenagers D. All of the responses are correct. 9. Which of the following food production methods is not allowed with organic foods? A. Use of synthetic fertilizers B. Use of hormones for animals C. Use of genetic engineering D. All of these choices are accurate. 10. A breakfast cereal labeled as organic must ________. A. have at least 70% of its ingredients meet organic standards B. have at least 95% of its ingredients meet organic standards C. be made from all natural ingredients D. contain no food additives 11. Common genetically engineered crops in the U.S. include ________. A. soybeans, corn, and cotton B. green beans, peas, and tomatoes C. rice, wheat, and carrots D. legumes, wheat, and corn 12. Recombinant bovine somatotropin is used by some farmers to ________. A. prevent skin infections in cattle B. increase milk production in dairy cows C. prevent mastitis (inflammation of cow udders) D. increase the amount of protein found in milk 13. Bt corn contains a protein produced by a bacterial gene. This protein ________. A. increases the vitamin A content of the corn B. increases the protein content of the corn C. is a pesticide that kills caterpillars, a major threat to corn D. allows the corn to be tolerant to weed killers 14. The most common application of genetic engineering of foods is to ________. A. produce meat with a lower fat content B. confer resistance to pesticides applied to kill weeds and insects C. improve vitamin A content of foods D. reduce the need for irrigation of crops 15. Which of the following statements about food irradiation is true? A. Irradiated food is radioactive. B. Irradiation can be used to destroy pathogens in foods. C. All foods in the U.S. can be legally irradiated. D. Labels that identify a food as irradiated are not required. 16. The food additives that inhibit the growth of the pathogen Clostridium botulinum are ________. A. sodium nitrate and sodium nitrite B. monosodium glutamate and guanosine monophosphate C. pectin and guar gum D. calcium silicate and magnesium stearate 17. An example of an incidental food additive in our food supply is ________. A. any additive that is a synthetic additive B. any color additive because their use is not for purposes of food safety C. bisphenol A (BPA), used to increase durability of some food and beverage containers D. monosodium glutamate, because it can also be found naturally in foods 18. Food additives are regulated by the ________. A. United States Department of Agriculture B. Food and Drug Administration C. Environmental Protection Agency D. All of these choices are accurate. 19. Food additives, such as calcium propionate, sodium nitrate, and acetic acid, act to ________. A. inhibit the growth of molds, fungi, and bacteria in foods B. keep foods, especially powdered mixes, free flowing C. contribute leavening gases to improve texture in baked products D. add savory flavor to foods such as soup, rice, and noodle mixes 20. FDA has limited the use of sulfites on raw vegetables and in salad bars because they ________. A. impart an unpleasant taste to the food B. cause adverse reactions such as shortness of breath or gastrointestinal symptoms in some individuals C. are known to promote cancer D. are used to mask the flavor of spoiled produce 21. Cross-contamination of food occurs when ________. A. two or more microorganisms grow in the same food B. two or more food handlers work on the same food C. a utensil contaminated with a microorganism from a previously handled food contacts a second food D. perishable foods are kept at room temperature for more than 2 hours 22. __________ and _________ are among the most common bacterial pathogens in the U.S. A. Shigella species, Staphylococcus aureus B. Campylobacter jejuni, Salmonella species C. Clostridium botulinum, Escherichia coli D. Vibrio vulnificus, Vibrio cholerae 23. Perishable foods should be held either below _______ F or above ______ F. A. 32, 98 B. 51, 75 C. 181, 212 D. 41, 135 24. The temperature danger zone for growth of pathogenic bacteria is ________. A. 32-165F B. 60-165F C. 41-135F D. 135-212F 25. Coughing and sneezing on foods can allow __________ to contaminate the food. A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Vibrio cholerae C. Clostridium botulinum D. hepatitis A 26. Foods commonly contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus include ________. A. ham and poultry B. cream-filled pastries C. egg and chicken salads D. All of these choices are accurate. 27. Improper canning of foods can result in serious foodborne illness caused by the ___________ bacterium. A. Escherichia coli B. Salmonella C. Clostridium botulinum D. Listeria monocytogenes 28. The bacterium ___________ grows only in anaerobic environments. A. Escherichia coli B. Vibrio parahemolyticus C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Clostridium botulinum 29. __________ can grow at refrigeration temperatures. A. Escherichia coli B. Salmonella C. Clostridium botulinum D. Listeria monocytogenes 30. Foods that are most likely to be contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes include ________. A. soft cheeses and deli meats B. undercooked shellfish and water C. gravy and beef D. raw produce and eggs 31. This virus, often transmitted by infected food handlers, causes anorexia, diarrhea, fever, and liver damage. A. Norwalk virus B. Salmonella C. Hepatitis A D. Trichinella spiralis 32. Typical food sources for this parasite are wild game and pork. A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Trichinella spiralis C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Aflatoxin 33. The parasite ___________ can be spread in water supplies, water parks, and community swimming pools. A. hepatitis A B. Yersinia enterocolitica C. Toxoplasma gondii D. Cryptosporidium 34. Prions are ________. A. bacteria that can cause seizures and brain damage B. naturally occurring toxins formed in damaged grains and nuts C. infectious proteins associated with mad cow disease D. toxins produced in a variety of seafood 35. Mad cow disease ________. A. causes a fatal brain disease in cows B. is very common in the U.S. and Canada C. is caused by a parasite found in animal feed D. is easily transmitted to humans 36. Ingesting moldy food can cause disease because the mold ________. A. invades the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract, causing diarrhea B. produces toxins that can cause kidney and liver damage C. prevents the food from being properly digested and absorbed D. produces proteins that destroy vitamins before they are absorbed 37. The dangerous aflatoxin is most likely to be found in ________. A. moldy cheese and bread B. spoiled fruits and vegetables C. moldy peanuts and corn D. All of the responses are correct. 38. Fish and shellfish most likely to be contaminated with toxins include ________. A. salmon and trout B. cod and haddock C. mussels and clams D. prawns and shrimp E. All of the answers are correct. 39. Sources of the ciguatera toxin that can cause gastrointestinal and neurological symptoms include ________. A. nutmeg, sassafras, and mace B. mushrooms and some herbal teas C. shellfish, such as mussels and clams D. tropical and subtropical fish, such as snapper and amberjack 40. In the U.S., the _________ mandates that public water supplies be monitored regularly for microorganisms, chemicals, and various metals. A. local health department B. Environmental Protection Agency C. Food and Drug Administration D. United States Department of Agriculture 41. The last food(s) to buy when shopping in the supermarket should be ________. A. fresh fruits and vegetables B. bread C. frozen foods D. raw poultry and eggs 42. Which of the following foods is least likely to cause a foodborne illness? A. Eggs, poultry, unpasteurized milk B. Raw sprouts and produce C. Bread, pasteurized milk, butter D. Deli meats, shellfish, and other seafood 43. Wash hands for at least _______ in warm, soapy water before starting any food preparation. A. 60 seconds B. 2 minutes C. 10 seconds D. 20 seconds 44. Which of the following is a current food safety recommendation? A. Scrub firm produce, such as melons, under running water with a brush before slicing it. B. Clean all produce with specialized antibacterial washing products. C. Discard any food with mold on it. D. Avoid using wooden cutting boards. 45. To prevent foodborne illness, cooked food should be consumed right away or refrigerated or frozen within _____ hour(s). A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 46. In general, cooking poultry and ground meat to ______ F is sufficient to kill pathogenic organisms. A. 125 B. 135 C. 165 D. 85 47. Most traveler's diarrhea is caused by ________. A. ingesting unfamiliar spices B. parasites, especially Cryptosporidium, in the water supply C. viruses, such as hepatitis A, spread by food handlers D. bacterial infections, especially Shigella dysenteriae, from contaminated food and water 48. Sources of the heavy metal lead include ________. A. water pipes and paint in older homes B. certain pottery and crystal food containers C. mineral and herbal supplements D. All of the answers are correct. 49. A healthy diet with plenty of _____ may reduce lead absorption in children. A. protein B. vitamin C C. iron D. potassium 50. The food most likely to be contaminated with dioxins, mercury, and/or polychlorinated biphenyls is ________. A. imported candy B. milk and other dairy products C. grain that has been stored for several months D. fish 51. Fish most likely to contain methylmercury are ________. A. large fish, such as shark and swordfish B. shellfish C. farm-raised fish D. freshwater fish 52. Current guidelines for limiting fish to reduce methylmercury ingestion pertain to ________. A. all persons B. pregnant, breastfeeding women, and young children C. immunosuppressed individuals only D. the elderly 53. Foods most likely to include pesticide residues are ________. A. fruits and vegetables B. meats C. fish and shellfish D. grain products 54. Individuals who are most susceptible to adverse effects from pesticides are ________. A. the elderly B. those who have chronic diseases C. infants and young children D. adolescents and young adults 55. A pesticide tolerance is the ________. A. toxicity of the pesticide in the laboratory B. number of pests that are killed by a selected dose of the pesticide C. amount of a pesticide that can be applied to a food and how much of the pesticide that is permitted to remain on the food in the marketplace D. ability of the liver to detoxify a pesticide True / False Questions 56. According to the Centers for Disease Control, in the U.S., the consumption of beef is a major risk factor for developing variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. FALSE 57. Public water supplies in the U.S. are a major source of infection and disease. FALSE 58. All food additives in the U.S. food supply have been thoroughly tested for safety. FALSE 59. Foodborne illnesses are relatively rare occurrences, affecting only about 5% of the world's population annually. FALSE 60. In the U.S., food labels must indicate the presence of irradiated ingredients, except for dried seasonings. TRUE 61. In the U.S., food labels must indicate the presence of genetically modified ingredients. FALSE 62. Bottled water is generally safer than tap water in the U.S. FALSE 63. Thawing foods, such as chicken, on the counter overnight is a safe food handling practice. FALSE 64. Although pesticides cannot be applied to organic foods, pesticide residues may still occasionally be found on these foods. TRUE 65. Antibiotics to promote growth or prevent diseases are allowed in organically produced animals. FALSE 66. The majority of antibiotics used in the U.S. are for food animals. TRUE 67. Compared to conventionally grown fruits and vegetables, those grown with organic farming methods contain significantly higher amounts of vitamins and minerals. FALSE 68. Fully meeting vitamin and mineral requirements is best done by consuming only organic foods. FALSE Matching Questions 69. Match the term with its definition.
1. Listeria monocytogenes Anaerobic bacterium that produces a neurotoxin that causes muscle weakness and paralysis. Can be fatal
2. Clostridium botulinum Bacterium that can cause premature birth and stillbirth
3. Campylobacter jejuni Bacterium that lives in intestines of animals and humans; the consumption of undercooked eggs causes about 20% of cases
4. Salmonella species Undercooked poultry and unpasteurized milk are sources of these bacterium. One of the leading causes of foodborne illness in the U.S
5. Clostridium perfringens Anaerobic bacterium that usually causes abdominal pain and diarrhea lasting 1 day or less
1. Listeria monocytogenes Anaerobic bacterium that produces a neurotoxin that causes muscle weakness and paralysis. Can be fatal 2
2. Clostridium botulinum Bacterium that can cause premature birth and stillbirth 1
3. Campylobacter jejuni Bacterium that lives in intestines of animals and humans; the consumption of undercooked eggs causes about 20% of cases 4
4. Salmonella species Undercooked poultry and unpasteurized milk are sources of these bacterium. One of the leading causes of foodborne illness in the U.S 3
5. Clostridium perfringens Anaerobic bacterium that usually causes abdominal pain and diarrhea lasting 1 day or less 5
70. Match the term with its description.
1.Methylmercury Causes nerve damage, poor learning, and birth defects. To limit ingestion of this compound, children and pregnant and breastfeeding women are advised to avoid or limit their consumption of certain types of fish.
2. Lead Products applied to agricultural products to eliminate insects, weeds, fungus, molds, and rodents
3. Pesticides Used to promote growth in food animals
4. Antibiotics A major source is from paint dust in older homes but mineral supplements and some imported foods may also be contaminated
5. Dioxins By-product of various industrial processes; fish from contaminated waterways are a major source
1.Methylmercury Causes nerve damage, poor learning, and birth defects. To limit ingestion of this compound, children and pregnant and breastfeeding women are advised to avoid or limit their consumption of certain types of fish. 1
2. Lead Products applied to agricultural products to eliminate insects, weeds, fungus, molds, and rodents 3
3. Pesticides Used to promote growth in food animals 4
4. Antibiotics A major source is from paint dust in older homes but mineral supplements and some imported foods may also be contaminated 2
5. Dioxins By-product of various industrial processes; fish from contaminated waterways are a major source 5
71. Match the term with its description.
1. Mycotoxin A toxin found in improperly prepared pufferfish
2. Tetrodotoxin Parasite found in water or contaminated food
3. Trichinella spiralis Parasite found in raw or undercooked fish
4. Cyclospora cayetanensis A parasite that causes illness lasting weeks to months. Wild game is a source.
5. Anisakis A toxin produced by a mold
1. Mycotoxin A toxin found in improperly prepared pufferfish 2
2. Tetrodotoxin Parasite found in water or contaminated food 4
3. Trichinella spiralis Parasite found in raw or undercooked fish 5
4. Cyclospora cayetanensis A parasite that causes illness lasting weeks to months. Wild game is a source. 3
5. Anisakis A toxin produced by a mold 1
Essay Questions 72. List and briefly describe 5 steps consumers can take in their homes to prevent foodborne illness. Answer: 1. Clean: Wash hands, utensils, and surfaces often. Properly cleaning these can help prevent the spread of pathogens from contaminated food to other areas in the kitchen. 2. Separate: Keep raw meat, poultry, seafood, and eggs separate from ready-to-eat foods. This helps prevent cross-contamination, where harmful bacteria from raw foods transfer to other foods. 3. Cook: Cook foods to the right temperature. Using a food thermometer ensures that foods are cooked to a safe internal temperature, killing harmful bacteria. 4. Chill: Refrigerate promptly. Perishable foods should be refrigerated within two hours to slow the growth of bacteria. The refrigerator should be kept at or below 40°F (4°C). 5. Avoid: Avoid consuming high-risk foods such as raw or undercooked eggs, meat, poultry, and unpasteurized dairy products. These foods are more likely to be contaminated with harmful pathogens. 73. List 4 steps that travelers to developing countries can take to prevent traveler's diarrhea. Answer: Preventing Traveler's Diarrhea in Developing Countries 1. Drink Safe Water: Use bottled water for drinking and brushing teeth. Avoid ice cubes unless made from bottled or disinfected water. 2. Eat Cooked Food: Ensure food is cooked thoroughly and served hot. Avoid raw or undercooked meats, seafood, and eggs. 3. Avoid Raw Produce: Do not consume raw fruits and vegetables unless they can be peeled and you peel them yourself. This reduces the risk of contamination from local water or soil. 4. Hand Hygiene: Wash hands frequently with soap and water, especially before eating. If soap and water are not available, use an alcohol-based hand sanitizer. 74. Describe why inadequate food and nutrients can lead to disease and death, particularly in children. Answer: Impact of Inadequate Food and Nutrients on Children Inadequate food and nutrients can have devastating effects on children, leading to disease and death due to several factors: • Growth and Development: Proper nutrition is crucial for the growth and development of children. Malnutrition can lead to stunted growth, wasting, and underweight, affecting their physical and cognitive development. • Immune System: Nutrient deficiencies weaken the immune system, making children more susceptible to infections and illnesses. A weakened immune system can result in more severe and prolonged illnesses. • Mortality: Severe malnutrition, particularly in young children, can lead to life-threatening conditions such as severe acute malnutrition (SAM), which requires immediate medical attention. Without proper intervention, malnutrition can result in death. • Long-term Consequences: Even if children survive malnutrition, the long-term effects can include impaired intellectual performance, reduced productivity, and increased risk of chronic diseases later in life. Overall, ensuring adequate nutrition for children is essential for their survival, health, and development. It is important to address food insecurity and malnutrition through various interventions, including food aid, nutrition education, and policies that support food availability and accessibility. 75. Compare a food secure household to one with very low food security. Answer: Comparing Food Secure and Very Low Food Security Households A food secure household has reliable access to enough affordable, nutritious food to meet the dietary needs and preferences of all its members for an active, healthy life. In such households: • Meals are regular, nutritious, and adequate in quantity and quality. • There is less stress and anxiety about where the next meal will come from. • Members of the household maintain good health, stable energy levels, and productivity. A household with very low food security, on the other hand, has disrupted eating patterns and reduced food intake due to lack of money and other resources for food. Characteristics of such households include: • Meals are skipped or portion sizes are reduced because of insufficient food. • There is frequent worry or stress about running out of food. • Adults may reduce their food intake to ensure children have enough to eat, leading to malnutrition and associated health issues. 76. List 3 programs that may help a low-income family with children remain food secure. Answer: Programs to Help Low-Income Families with Children Remain Food Secure 1. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP): Provides monthly benefits to eligible low-income individuals and families to purchase food at authorized retailers. SNAP aims to alleviate hunger and improve nutrition and health. 2. Women, Infants, and Children (WIC): A federal assistance program that provides nutrition education, supplemental foods, and health care referrals for pregnant, postpartum, and breastfeeding women, as well as infants and children up to age five who are at nutritional risk. 3. National School Lunch Program (NSLP): Provides free or reduced-price lunches to children from low-income families during the school year. This ensures that children receive at least one nutritious meal per day. 77. Describe 3 physical signs or symptoms of chronic food insecurity in children. Answer: Physical Signs or Symptoms of Chronic Food Insecurity in Children 1. Stunted Growth: Chronic food insecurity often leads to insufficient intake of essential nutrients, resulting in stunted growth. Children may be significantly shorter than their peers and fail to reach their full growth potential. 2. Wasting and Underweight: Children experiencing chronic food insecurity may show signs of wasting, characterized by a low weight for their height, or they may be underweight for their age. This is due to prolonged inadequate caloric and nutrient intake. 3. Frequent Illness and Fatigue: Malnutrition weakens the immune system, making children more susceptible to infections and illnesses. They may frequently be sick, take longer to recover, and exhibit persistent fatigue and low energy levels, affecting their ability to participate in school and daily activities. In summary, addressing food insecurity through targeted programs and interventions is essential to ensure that children grow and develop healthily, with fewer risks of long-term adverse effects on their health and well-being. 78. Compare and contrast a genetically modified food and a conventional food. Answer: Genetically Modified Food (GM Food) • Definition: GM foods are produced from organisms that have had changes introduced into their DNA using genetic engineering techniques. • Traits: Often modified for traits such as pest resistance, herbicide tolerance, improved nutritional content, or enhanced shelf life. • Examples: GM foods might include Bt corn (which produces a toxin to deter pests) and Golden Rice (engineered to produce beta-carotene, a precursor of vitamin A). Conventional Food • Definition: Conventional foods are produced through traditional breeding methods, which involve selecting plants or animals with desirable traits and breeding them over several generations. • Traits: Traits are developed through natural variations and traditional crossbreeding practices without direct genetic manipulation. • Examples: Conventional foods might include heirloom tomatoes and organically grown produce. Comparison • Genetic Changes: GM foods have specific genes introduced or modified, while conventional foods rely on the natural genetic variations and selective breeding over generations. • Development Time: GM foods can be developed more quickly because specific traits are directly inserted, whereas conventional breeding can take many years to achieve desired results. • Regulation and Perception: GM foods often face more stringent regulatory scrutiny and public skepticism, whereas conventional foods are generally more accepted by the public. 79. Name 3 foods that are likely to be genetically modified in the U.S. Answer: 1. Corn: A significant portion of the corn grown in the U.S. is genetically modified for pest resistance and herbicide tolerance. 2. Soybeans: Most soybeans in the U.S. are genetically modified to be herbicide-tolerant. 3. Canola: A large percentage of canola crops in the U.S. are genetically modified for herbicide tolerance. 80. Describe and evaluate 3 objections to the use of genetically modified foods. Answer: 1. Health Concerns: Some people worry that GM foods may cause allergies or long-term health effects that have not yet been identified. While current research indicates that GM foods are safe for consumption, long-term studies are still needed to fully assess their impact on human health. 2. Environmental Impact: There is concern that genetically modified crops might lead to environmental issues such as reduced biodiversity, the development of superweeds, and harm to non-target organisms. While GM crops can reduce the need for chemical pesticides, their long-term ecological impact remains a topic of debate. 3. Ethical and Economic Issues: The use of GM technology raises ethical questions about tampering with nature and concerns about the dominance of large biotech companies over the food supply. This can lead to economic disadvantages for small farmers who may not be able to afford GM seeds or are restricted by patents and licensing agreements. 81. List 4 approved uses of food additives. For each use, give an example of a common food that contains the additive. Answer: 1. Preservatives: Used to prevent spoilage and extend shelf life. Example: Sodium benzoate in soft drinks. 2. Flavor Enhancers: Used to enhance the taste of food. Example: Monosodium glutamate (MSG) in savory snacks and soups. 3. Color Additives: Used to give food an appealing color. Example: Tartrazine (Yellow No. 5) in candies and processed cheese. 4. Emulsifiers: Used to maintain the consistency and texture of food. Example: Lecithin in chocolate and margarine. 82. How do intentional food additives differ from incidental food additives? Give an example of each. Answer: Intentional Food Additives • Definition: These are substances intentionally added to food to achieve a specific purpose, such as improving taste, appearance, or shelf life. • Example: Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) added to fruit juices to prevent oxidation and maintain color. Incidental Food Additives • Definition: These are substances that accidentally get into food during production, processing, packaging, or storage. • Example: Bisphenol A (BPA) from plastic containers that can leach into food products. In summary, intentional food additives are deliberately incorporated into food for beneficial reasons, whereas incidental additives are unintended contaminants that can enter food products during various stages of their lifecycle. Both types of additives are regulated to ensure safety and minimize potential health risks. Multiple Choice Questions 83. Which of the following is not a concern about GM foods that some consumers have? A. Loss of genetic diversity B. Development of Bt-resistant insects C. Hyperactivity in children D. Addition of allergens to GM foods 84. Cloned animals are ________. A. genetically unique B. not genetically modified C. common in our food supply D. approved for use by the USDA 85. Which of the following is a food additive that breaks down macronutrients found in foods? A. Enzyme B. Anticaking agent C. Leavening agent D. Stabilizer 86. Why is sodium nitrite allowed to be used as a food additive? A. It is generally recognized as safe. B. It helps to prevent the growth of Clostridium botulinum. C. There is not enough credible research confirming the conversion of sodium nitrite to the carcinogenic agent nitrosamine. D. All choices are correct. 87. When a slice of fresh apple turns a brown color, this is most likely the result of ________. A. oxidation B. dehydration C. microbial contamination D. treatment in the ripening process 88. Which of the following agengy would be most appropriate to contact if you felt a local restaurant was not handling their food safely? A. Environmental Protection Agency B. State and local government C. Food and Drug Administration D. U.S. Department of Agriculture Chapter 04 Human Digestion and Absorption Multiple Choice Questions 1. The smallest functional unit of the human body is the ________. A. organ B. organ system C. cell D. epithelial tissue 2. Tissues are defined as ________. A. functional systems B. complex organs that perform one task C. a diverse collection of cells D. a collection of cells that perform a specific function 3. The 4 primary types of tissue are ________. A. epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous B. gastrointestinal, cardiovascular, muscle, and immune C. gastrointestinal, endocrine, nervous, and cardiovascular D. skeletal, muscle, endocrine, and cardiovascular 4. Which of the following organs is NOT part of the digestive organ system? A. pancreas B. small intestine C. kidneys D. liver 5. The ______ layer of the GI tract wall contains glands, blood vessels, and nerves, whereas the ________ layer is the outermost layer that protects the GI tract. A. mucosa; muscle B. serosa; submucosa C. submucosa; muscle D. submucosa; serosa 6. The breakdown of dietary starch to glucose in the small intestine is considered ________. A. metabolism B. hormonal action C. digestion D. absorption 7. Bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) from the pancreas ________. A. neutralize the acid contents in the stomach B. are synthesized in the pyloric sphincter C. neutralize the bile in the duodenum D. neutralize the acid contents in the duodenum 8. The sphincter that allows chyme to pass into the small intestine is known as the ________. A. lower esophageal sphincter B. sphincter of Oddi C. pyloric sphincter D. ileocecal sphincter 9. Segmentation as a function of the GI tract involves ________. A. peristalsis to move the food along the GI tract B. back and forth contractions that break apart the food mass C. conscious effort D. enzyme input to break apart the food mass 10. The chemical reaction sucrose + H2O fructose + glucose is an example of a ___________ reaction. A. hydrolysis B. synthetic C. hormonal D. carboxylase 11. A circular muscle that can open and close and acts to regulate the flow of materials in one direction is referred to as ________. A. enterohepatic circulation B. a sphincter C. a pump D. peristalsis 12. A coordinated muscular contraction that propels food along the GI tract is called ________. A. a sphincter B. enterohepatic circulation C. a pump D. peristalsis 13. The lower esophageal sphincter is located between the ________. A. stomach and esophagus B. stomach and duodenum C. ileum and cecum D. sigmoid colon and anus 14. The bacteria that usually inhabit the large intestine are prevented from backing up into the ileum by the action of the ________. A. sphincter of Oddi B. ileocecal sphincter C. pyloric sphincter D. rectal sphincter 15. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme? A. Sucrase B. Bile C. Pepsin D. Lipase 16. Most digestive enzymes are synthesized by the ________. A. liver and large intestine B. bile and gallbladder C. kidneys and esophagus D. pancreas and small intestine 17. Gastrin, secretin, CCK, and gastric inhibitory peptide are examples of ________. A. enzymes B. hormones C. active absorption D. None of these choices are accurate. 18. Human digestion of food begins in the _______, where the enzyme _____ breaks down a small amount of starch. A. mouth; amylase B. stomach; pepsin C. small intestine; amylase D. mouth; lipase 19. The taste sensation umami can best be described as ________. A. a somewhat salty flavor derived from metal ions B. the combination of salt and sweet tastes together C. a savory or meaty taste derived from the amino acid glutamate D. the taste that arises from compounds such as caffeine and quinine 20. In the process of swallowing, food cannot normally enter the trachea because the ________. A. tongue directs the flow of food down the esophagus and away from the trachea B. esophageal sphincter shuts off the passage to the larynx C. epiglottis covers the larynx D. trachea does not connect to the esophagus 21. Saliva contains ________. A. an amylase B. mucus C. intrinsic factor D. an amylase and mucus 22. The salivary glands produce about ___ cup(s) of saliva each day. Saliva is a watery fluid that contains ________, ___________, and ___________. A. 1; mucus; digestive enzymes; antibacterial substances B. 1; mucus; bile; hormones C. 4; mucus; digestive enzymes; antibacterial substances D. 4; mucus; bile; hormones 23. At the beginning of a meal, the hormone _______ is secreted from the stomach; this hormone controls the release of _______. A. pepsinogen; pepsin B. gastrin; HCl C. bile; lipase D. cholecystokinin; pancreatic enzymes 24. The major function(s) of the stomach is/are ________. A. the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates, especially starch B. the digestion and absorption of alcohol C. to mix ingested foods with gastric juices to form chyme D. All of these responses are correct. 25. The fluid mixture that moves from the stomach to the duodenum is called ________. A. bolus B. chyme C. food D. None of these choices are accurate. 26. Muscular waves in the stomach mix and churn the contents of a meal with ________. A. bile B. gastric juices C. pancreatic juices D. sodium bicarbonate 27. Heartburn is caused by ________. A. acid surrounding the heart muscle B. acid and other digestive enzymes within the heart muscle C. the backflow of acidic stomach contents into the esophagus D. None of these choices are accurate. 28. The stomach is protected from digesting itself by producing ________. A. bicarbonate only when food is in the stomach B. a thick layer of mucus to coat the lining of the stomach C. hydroxyl ions to neutralize the acid D. antipepsin that destroys digestive substances 29. The gastric secretion pepsin is necessary for ________. A. preventing peptic ulcer formation B. protein digestion C. vitamin B-12 absorption D. destruction of harmful bacteria and viruses 30. Actions of hydrochloric acid produced by the stomach include ________. A. promoting digestion of protein B. destroying bacteria and viruses found in foods C. dissolving dietary minerals for improved absorption D. All of the responses are correct. 31. The stomach can absorb ________. A. proteins or amino acids B. sugars, such as lactose C. alcohol D. nothing 32. The small intestine is divided into three segments. List them in descending order. A. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum B. Jejunum, ileum, duodenum C. Duodenum, ileum, jejunum D. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum 33. Most of the digestive processes occur in the ________. A. mouth B. stomach C. small intestine D. large intestine E. colon 34. Which substances can be absorbed in the small intestine? A. Glucose, minerals, amino acids, vitamins, alcohol B. Sucrose, lactose, fats, alcohol, protein C. Starch, fats, glucose, protein, alcohol D. Glucose, fructose, sucrose, alcohol, protein 35. Villi are found mainly in the ________. A. large intestine B. small intestine C. esophagus D. stomach 36. The villi found in the gastrointestinal tract ________. A. are finger-like projections into the lumen of the small intestine B. are covered with the brush border (microvilli) C. contain cells that produce mucus, hormones, and enzymes D. produce a large surface area for nutrient absorption E. All of these choices are correct. 37. The lifespan of absorptive cells in the villi is approximately ________. A. 24 hours B. 2 to 5 days C. 8 to 10 days D. 4 to 6 weeks 38. Amino acids and glucose enter cells by ________. A. active transport B. passive diffusion C. facilitated diffusion D. endocytosis 39. The absorptive process that requires energy in the form of ATP is ________. A. facilitated diffusion B. active absorption C. enterohepatic circulation D. the lymphatic system 40. The secretions of the gallbladder, liver, and pancreas enter the ________. A. ileum, by way of a common duct B. duodenum, by way of the sphincter of Oddi C. stomach, by way of a common duct D. jejunum, by way of the sphincter of Oddi 41. Bile is formed in the ___________ and stored in the ___________. A. stomach; pancreas B. duodenum; kidney C. liver; gallbladder D. gallbladder; liver 42. Insufficient production of bile is mostly likely to impair absorption of ________. A. starch B. fat C. protein D. sugars 43. __________ increases the available surface area of fats for digestion and later absorption. A. Pancreatic lipase B. Lingual lipase C. Gastric lipase D. Bile 44. The main function of the liver in the digestive system is ________. A. producing enzymes for digestion of protein, fat, and carbohydrate B. producing the hormones that regulate digestion and absorption C. producing bile for fat digestion and absorption D. distributing nutrients to the gastrointestinal tract 45. Secretions from the pancreas include ________. A. HCl and digestive enzymes B. sodium bicarbonate and digestive enzymes C. cholecystokinin and sodium bicarbonate D. All of these responses are correct. 46. An example of a brush border enzyme is ________. A. sucrase B. lipase C. amylase D. bile 47. Water-soluble nutrients enter into the body by way of ________. A. the blood B. the lymph system C. both the blood and the lymph system D. neither the blood nor the lymph system 48. Most dietary fats will ________. A. be converted to short-chain fatty acids for absorption with other water-soluble nutrients B. enter the lymphatic system C. enter the colon and become "food" for bacteria D. be converted to bile in the lumen of the intestine 49. The hepatic portal system delivers nutrients from the digestive tract to the ________. A. heart B. liver C. kidneys D. lungs 50. Lymph ________. A. is like blood, since it contains mostly red blood cells B. is a fluid containing blood proteins C. recycles nutrients between the liver and the small intestine D. transports fat-soluble particles from the intestinal tract to the general circulation 51. Which of the following nutrients may be absorbed by the colon? A. Minerals, such as sodium and potassium B. Some vitamins synthesized by bacteria C. Short-chain fatty acids D. Water E. All of these answers are correct. 52. An example of a probiotic is ________. A. bacteria in yogurt B. fiber in whole wheat bread C. calcium in milk D. digestible carbohydrates in bananas 53. Probiotics may be most useful in treating ________. A. constipation B. diarrhea C. celiac disease D. food intolerance 54. Much of the digestion that occurs in the large intestine is caused by ________. A. lipase B. pepsin C. saliva D. bacteria 55. Fiber and starches not digested in the small intestine may be fermented by bacteria in the large intestine to form ________. A. short-chain fatty acids and flatus B. long-chain fatty acids and bile C. short- and long-chain fatty acids D. simple sugars and flatus 56. An example of a prebiotic is ________. A. a food that contains a naturally occurring antibiotic B. cheese, because of its short-chain fatty acid content C. any food that contains organic acids and short-chain fatty acids D. inulin, a poorly digested carbohydrate found in foods such as onions, garlic, and asparagus 57. Functions of the large intestine include ________. A. housing bacterial flora that keep the GI tract healthy B. absorption of water and electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium C. the defecation of feces D. All of these responses are correct. 58. Which of the following dietary or nutritional factors may worsen gastroesophageal reflux disease? A. Being overweight B. Consuming a high-fat diet C. Alcohol and caffeine consumption D. Consumption of large meals E. All of these responses are correct. 59. The leading cause of peptic ulcer disease is ________. A. consumption of spicy foods B. stress C. Helicobacter pylori infection D. alcohol consumption 60. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate recommendation for treatment of peptic ulcer disease? A. Limit heavy use of aspirin and other NSAID medications. B. Consume a bland diet with only easily digested foods. C. Treat with an antibiotic under the care of a physician. D. Stop smoking and limit alcohol intake. 61. Gallstones are formed mainly from ________. A. pancreatic secretions B. cholesterol C. phospholipids D. minerals 62. Factors associated with gallstone formation include ________. A. rapid weight loss B. high fiber intake C. being underweight D. None of these answers are correct. 63. A main cause of intestinal gas formation is ________. A. a lack of bacteria in the large intestine B. the breakdown of undigested carbohydrates by bacteria in the large intestine C. insufficient bile production for fat digestion and absorption D. All of these choices are correct. 64. Carbohydrates that may contribute to intestinal gas formation include ________. A. lactose, fructose, and raffinose B. amylose, glucose, and starch C. sucrose, starch, and glucose D. amylose, glucose, and sucrose 65. A sensible idea for preventing constipation is to ________. A. use a laxative when needed B. decrease fluid intake C. include more white bread, white rice, and ice cream in the diet D. include more whole grain breads, beans, and apples in the diet 66. Celiac disease is best treated by ________. A. medication prescribed by a physician B. a high-fiber diet C. a gluten-free diet D. an allergen-free diet 67. Gluten is best described as ________. A. a protein found in wheat and related grains B. a carbohydrate found in wheat and related grains C. a substance found in wheat and related grains that causes irritable bowel disease D. a medication used to treat celiac disease 68. Swollen veins in the rectum or anus are called ________. A. hemorrhoids B. peptic ulcers C. heartburn D. irritable bowel syndrome 69. Using mineral oil as a laxative can cause ________. A. colon cancer B. loss of water-soluble vitamins C. loss of fat-soluble vitamins D. diverticulosis 70. Which of the following digestive disorders is caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori? A. flatulence B. constipation C. diarrhea D. peptic ulcer 71. Which of the following is NOT true about inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)? A. The most common types are ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. B. It can cause inflammation and ulceration throughout the gastrointestinal tract. C. IBD is caused by a reaction to proteins in foods. D. Nutritional problems related to IBD include anemia, osteoporosis, and poor growth (in children) True / False Questions 72. Most of the water in the gastrointestinal tract is absorbed in the small intestine. TRUE 73. Removal of the gallbladder prevents normal digestion and absorption of dietary fat. FALSE 74. Diarrhea is most often caused by bacterial or viral infection of the GI tract. TRUE 75. Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed directly into the cardiovascular system. FALSE 76. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is caused by bacterial pathogens. FALSE 77. A good way to treat mild constipation is to consume 25 to 35 grams of fiber each day. TRUE 78. Not eating or drinking anything at all is the best way to treat diarrhea in adults and children. FALSE Matching Questions 79. Match the term and its description.
1. larynx tube connecting the mouth and stomach
2.epiglottis windpipe
3.esophagus opening of the trachea
4. trachea flap of tissue that closes off the larynx
1. larynx tube connecting the mouth and stomach 3
2. epiglottis windpipe 4
3. esophagus opening of the trachea 1
4. trachea flap of tissue that closes off the larynx 2
80. Match the gastrointestinal secretion with its function(s).
1. Gastrin signals chief cells to produce pepsinogen and HCL
2. Cholecystokinin delays the emptying time of the stomach
3. Bile aids in digestion and absorption of fat
4. Gastric inhibitory peptide stimulates the gallbladder and pancreas to release bile and pancreatic juice
5. Secretin stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate ions
1. Gastrin signals chief cells to produce pepsinogen and HCL 1
2. Cholecystokinin delays the emptying time of the stomach 4
3. Bile aids in digestion and absorption of fat 3
4. Gastric inhibitory peptide stimulates the gallbladder and pancreas to release bile and pancreatic juice 2
5. Secretin stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate ions 5
81. Match each secretion with the organ that produces it.
1. pancreatic lipase small intestine
2. bile pancreas
3. hydrochloric acid liver
4. cholecystokinin stomach
1. pancreatic lipase small intestine 4
2. bile pancreas 1
3. hydrochloric acid liver 2
4. cholecystokinin stomach 3
Essay Questions 82. Describe the major function of each organ used in the digestive process. Answer: 1. Mouth: Begins the digestive process through mechanical breakdown (chewing) and chemical breakdown (saliva containing enzymes like amylase that start breaking down carbohydrates). 2. Esophagus: A muscular tube that transports food from the mouth to the stomach through coordinated contractions known as peristalsis. 3. Stomach: Secretes acid and enzymes to further break down food into a semi-liquid form called chyme. The stomach also churns food to mix it with digestive juices. 4. Small Intestine: The primary site for nutrient absorption. It consists of three parts: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The small intestine receives digestive enzymes and bile from the pancreas and liver to aid in breaking down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. 5. Pancreas: Produces digestive enzymes (like amylase, lipase, and proteases) and bicarbonate to neutralize stomach acid in the small intestine. 6. Liver: Produces bile, which is stored in the gallbladder and released into the small intestine to emulsify fats, aiding in their digestion and absorption. 7. Gallbladder: Stores and concentrates bile produced by the liver, releasing it into the small intestine as needed. 8. Large Intestine: Absorbs water and electrolytes from indigestible food residues, forming solid waste (feces). It also houses beneficial bacteria that aid in fermentation of certain undigested carbohydrates. 9. Rectum and Anus: Store and control the expulsion of feces from the body. 83. A person with a bad cold reports not being able to "taste" anything. Explain what has happened. Answer: When someone has a bad cold, their nasal passages are often congested or blocked. Since the sense of smell plays a crucial role in the perception of taste, congestion can severely reduce the ability to detect flavors. The olfactory receptors in the nose are unable to receive scent molecules effectively, leading to a diminished taste experience. This condition is known as anosmia or hyposmia, which temporarily affects the flavor perception during a cold. 84. Describe the functions of 4 major hormones specific to the digestive process. Answer: 1. Gastrin: Produced by the stomach lining, gastrin stimulates the secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells of the stomach, aiding in the digestion of proteins and the activation of digestive enzymes. 2. Cholecystokinin (CCK): Secreted by the small intestine in response to the presence of fats and proteins. CCK stimulates the gallbladder to release bile and the pancreas to secrete digestive enzymes, facilitating the digestion of fats and proteins. 3. Secretin: Released by the small intestine when acidic chyme enters from the stomach. Secretin stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice, neutralizing the acid in the chyme and creating an optimal pH for digestive enzyme activity. 4. Ghrelin: Produced mainly by the stomach, ghrelin stimulates appetite by signaling the brain to increase hunger. It also promotes gastric motility and the secretion of growth hormone. 85. Outline the interactions between key hormones, enzymes, and nutrient digestion. Answer: The digestive process involves a complex interaction between hormones and enzymes to ensure efficient nutrient digestion and absorption: 1. Gastrin: When food enters the stomach, gastrin is released, stimulating the production of gastric acid and pepsinogen. Gastric acid activates pepsinogen into pepsin, an enzyme that digests proteins into smaller peptides. 2. Secretin and CCK: As acidic chyme moves into the small intestine, secretin is released, prompting the pancreas to secrete bicarbonate to neutralize the acid. Concurrently, CCK is released in response to fats and proteins, stimulating the pancreas to secrete digestive enzymes (lipase, amylase, proteases) and the gallbladder to release bile, aiding in the digestion and emulsification of fats. 3. Pancreatic Enzymes: Amylase breaks down carbohydrates into simple sugars, lipase breaks down fats into fatty acids and glycerol, and proteases (like trypsin and chymotrypsin) break down proteins into amino acids and smaller peptides. 4. Absorption: The digested nutrients are absorbed through the lining of the small intestine. Nutrient absorption is facilitated by the brush border enzymes (such as lactase, maltase, and sucrase) that further break down disaccharides into monosaccharides, which are then absorbed into the bloodstream. 86. Explain the 3 major functions of the large intestine. Answer: 1. Water and Electrolyte Absorption: The large intestine absorbs water and electrolytes (such as sodium and potassium) from the indigestible food matter, transforming it from a liquid to a more solid form, which is essential for maintaining body fluid balance. 2. Formation and Storage of Feces: The absorbed water and electrolytes help form solid waste (feces), which is stored in the rectum until it is ready to be expelled through the anus. This function ensures that waste is compact and manageable for excretion. 3. Fermentation of Undigested Carbohydrates: The large intestine contains beneficial bacteria that ferment undigested carbohydrates, producing short-chain fatty acids and gases. These fatty acids can be absorbed and used as an energy source by the body, and the beneficial bacteria contribute to gut health. In summary, the large intestine plays a critical role in absorbing water and electrolytes, forming and storing feces, and fermenting undigested carbohydrates to maintain overall digestive health. 87. List the major substances absorbed in the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine. Answer: Stomach: • Alcohol: Absorbed directly into the bloodstream. • Certain medications: Some drugs like aspirin are absorbed in the stomach. Small Intestine: • Carbohydrates: Absorbed as monosaccharides (glucose, fructose, galactose). • Proteins: Absorbed as amino acids and small peptides. • Fats: Absorbed as fatty acids, monoglycerides, and glycerol, often after being packaged into micelles. • Vitamins: Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) absorbed along with fats; water-soluble vitamins (C, B-complex) absorbed through specific transport mechanisms. • Minerals: Calcium, iron, magnesium, and other essential minerals. • Water: Significant amounts of water are absorbed here. Large Intestine: • Water: Additional water absorption to solidify feces. • Electrolytes: Sodium, potassium, and chloride. • Short-chain fatty acids: Produced by bacterial fermentation of undigested carbohydrates. 88. Provide four suggestions for someone who commonly develops constipation. Answer: 1. Increase Dietary Fiber: Incorporate more fiber-rich foods such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and legumes into the diet. Fiber helps to add bulk and softness to stools, promoting regular bowel movements. 2. Stay Hydrated: Drink plenty of water throughout the day. Adequate hydration helps to keep stools soft and easier to pass. 3. Regular Physical Activity: Engage in regular exercise, such as walking, jogging, or yoga. Physical activity stimulates intestinal contractions and helps move stool through the digestive tract. 4. Establish a Routine: Try to establish a regular bowel movement schedule. Respond promptly to the urge to have a bowel movement and avoid delaying it, which can lead to harder stools and constipation. 89. In celiac disease, the protein gluten damages the intestinal villi. Describe why this damage often results in significant malabsorption and malnutrition. Answer: In celiac disease, an autoimmune disorder, the ingestion of gluten (a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye) triggers an immune response that damages the villi in the small intestine. Villi are small, finger-like projections lining the small intestine that increase the surface area for nutrient absorption. When the villi are damaged, their surface area is significantly reduced, impairing the intestine’s ability to absorb nutrients efficiently. Impact on Absorption and Nutrition: 1. Reduced Surface Area: Damaged villi mean a reduction in the surface area available for nutrient absorption. This leads to insufficient absorption of essential nutrients, including carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals. 2. Impaired Enzyme Production: The tips of the villi produce enzymes necessary for the final steps of nutrient digestion. Damage to the villi can decrease enzyme production, further hindering the breakdown and absorption of nutrients. 3. Nutrient Deficiencies: The malabsorption caused by damaged villi can result in deficiencies of key nutrients such as iron, calcium, and fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K), leading to conditions like anemia, osteoporosis, and various deficiency-related symptoms. 4. General Malnutrition: Chronic malabsorption can lead to significant malnutrition, impacting overall health and growth, especially in children. Symptoms can include weight loss, fatigue, growth retardation, and developmental delays. In summary, the damage to the intestinal villi in celiac disease disrupts the normal absorption process, leading to significant malabsorption and subsequent malnutrition. This can have widespread health consequences, highlighting the importance of a strict gluten-free diet to manage the condition and prevent further damage. Multiple Choice Questions 90. Which structure prevents food and liquid from entering the airway? A. Tongue B. Epiglottis C. Salivary glands D. Lower esophageal sphincter 91. In what order does food pass through the organs of the GI tract? A. Duodenum, stomach, colon, ileum, rectum B. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum, colon, rectum C. Stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon D. Stomach, jejunum, duodenum, colon, ileum 92. What would happen to the lining of the stomach if mucus were not produced? A. The production of intrinsic factor would decrease. B. Carbohydrates could not be digested. C. Pepsinogen would not become activated. D. Cells in the stomach would not be protected from gastric juices. 93. Which of the following nutrients is NOT acted on by pancreatic juices? A. Protein B. Fat C. Carbohydrates D. Fiber 94. Which of the following foods promotes the colonization of microflora in the GI tract? A. Fish B. Yogurt C. Poultry D. Iron-rich foods 95. What will happen to fat digestion if a gallbladder is removed? A. Fats will no longer be able to be digested because of lack of bile from gallbladder. B. The pancreas will no longer produce lipase, resulting in incomplete fat digestion. C. The liver will stop producing bile and fat digestion will cease. D. Bile will be directly secreted to the small intestine, continuing fat digestion. Test Bank for Wardlaw's Perspectives in Nutrition Carol Byrd-Bredbenner, Gaile Moe, Jacqueline Berning, Danita Kelley 9780078021411, 9781259933844, 9780073522722
