This Document Contains Chapters 3 to 4 Chapter 3--Geology of the Ocean 1. The solar system formed _________ billion years ago. A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 E. 8 Answer: B. 5 2. Gaseous oxygen formed in the Earth’s atmosphere as a result of: A. outgassing from the interior of the planet. B. respiration of bacteria. C. input from outer space. D. photosynthesis. E. All of these. Answer: D. photosynthesis. 3. It has been proposed that the first living organisms were: A. heterotrophs. B. autotrophs. C. chemosynthetic. D. photosynthetic. E. multicellular. Answer: A. heterotrophs. 4. The first heterotrophs obtained their energy from: A. autotrophs. B. chemosynthetic organisms. C. organic material in the ocean. D. photosynthetic organisms. E. the sun. Answer: B. chemosynthetic organisms. 5. The ocean is frequently referred to as: A. circumpolar ocean. B. seven seas. C. world ocean. D. Indo-Pacific Ocean. E. the cradle of civilization. Answer: C. world ocean. 6. A body of salt water that is more or less landlocked is called: A. the seven seas. B. a world ocean. C. an ocean. D. a sea. E. a marine province. Answer: D. a sea. 7. The thickest of Earth’s physical layers is the: A. crust. B. mantle. C. inner core. D. outer core. E. asthenosphere. Answer: B. mantle. 8. The region of the mantle below the crust is called: A. the asthenosphere. B. the mantle. C. the lithosphere. D. the outer core. E. the troposphere. Answer: A. the asthenosphere. 9. The solid region of crust and upper mantle is called: A. the asthenosphere. B. the mantle. C. the lithosphere. D. the outer core. E. the inner core. Answer: C. the lithosphere. 10. The continental crust is primarily comprised of all the following except: A. granite-type rock. B. basalt-type rock. C. quarts-type rock. D. silicon-type rock. E. sedimentary rock. Answer: B. basalt-type rock. 11. The forces of the mantle acting on the crust give way to: A. ocean basins. B. continental drift. C. magma. D. continental rise. E. All of these. Answer: B. continental drift. 12. Pangea, the name given to the supercontinent that existed before continental drift, was coined by: A. Sir Francis Bacon. B. Alfred Wegener. C. Harry Hess. D. Edward Suess. E. Sir Alistair Hardy. Answer: B. Alfred Wegener. 13. When Pangea first broke up it formed: A. North and South America. B. Africa and South America. C. Antarctic and Godwanaland. D. East and West Hemisphere. E. Laurasia and Godwanaland. Answer: E. Laurasia and Godwanaland. 14. The two continents that suggested continental drift are called: A. North and South America. B. North America and Europe. C. South America and Africa. D. Europe and Asia. E. Australia and India. Answer: C. South America and Africa. 15. The first person to describe the mechanism of seafloor spreading by which continents drifted apart from one another was: A. Sir Francis Bacon. B. Alfred Wegener. C. Harry Hess. D. Edward Suess. E. Charles Darwin. Answer: C. Harry Hess. 16. Where oceanic crust is cracked and magma is emerging we find: A. midocean ridges. B. atolls. C. archipelagos. D. trenches. E. guyots. Answer: A. midocean ridges. 17. Seafloor spreading is the result of: A. vertical movement along the lithosphere. B. lateral movement of the crust. C. growth of the midocean ridge. D. subduction. E. horizontal uplift of the continents. Answer: B. lateral movement of the crust. 18. A region where old oceanic crust is being destroyed is called: A. a spreading center. B. a midocean ridge. C. a seamount. D. a subduction zone. E. an atoll. Answer: D. a subduction zone. 19. All of the following are evidence of continental drift except: A. distribution of earthquakes. B. age of rocks from the sea floor. C. reefs. D. analysis of core samples. E. paleomagnetism. Answer: C. reefs. 20. Lithosphere plates move past each other at regions known as: A. divergent plate boundaries. B. convergent plate boundaries. C. escarpments. D. faults. E. hydrothermal vents. Answer: D. faults. 21. The special kind of fault along where different ocean plates are moving laterally away from each other is called: A. trench. B. midocean. C. transform. D. arc. E. convergent. Answer: C. transform. 22. Midocean ridges form: A. anywhere in the middle of the ocean. B. in subduction zones. C. where oceanic crust is cracked and magma is emerging. D. in deep ocean trenches. E. in subduction zones and in deep ocean trenches Answer: C. where oceanic crust is cracked and magma is emerging. 23. In 1977 Dr. Robert Ballard and J.F. Grassle discovered: A. underwater seamounts. B. the midocean ridge. C. the Titanic. D. rift communities. E. the Andrea Doria. Answer: D. rift communities. 24. A core sample is taken 100 km west of and parallel to a ridge system. Magnetic readings of the rock show a reversal of the Earth’s magnetic field. How many km east of the ridge system must scientists travel to collect a core sample with the same magnetic properties? A. 50. B. 100. C. 200. D. 75. E. 0 km; collect the sample directly at the ridge. Answer: B. 100. 25. The area directly below the neritic zone is called: A. abyssal plain. B. ocean basin. C. trench. D. continental margin. E. hadal zone. Answer: D. continental margin. 26. The area beyond the neritic zone is called: A. abyssal plain. B. ocean basin. C. trench. D. continental margin. E. the hadal zone. Answer: B. ocean basin. 27. The transition between the continental shelf and the deep floor is called: A. midocean. B. continental slope. C. shelf break. D. continental margin. E. dontinental divide. Answer: B. continental slope. 28. The continental rise is composed of sediments deposited from: A. biological activity. B. underwater landslides. C. midocean ridges. D. windblown sources. E. cosmogenous sources. Answer: B. underwater landslides. 29. Island arcs are associated with: A. midocean ridges. B. continental shelves. C. continental slopes. D. deep-sea trenches. E. midocean ridges and deep-sea trenches. Answer: D. deep-sea trenches. 30. The deepest underwater trench in the world is the: A. Mariana Trench. B. Peru-Chile Trench. C. Java Trench. D. South Sandwich Trench. E. Aleutian Trench. Answer: A. Mariana Trench. 31. Drowned rivers help create: A. shelf breaks. B. continental margins. C. submarine canyons. D. turbidity currents. E. continental trenches. Answer: C. submarine canyons. 32. As sand moves rapidly down the continental slope it can lead to: A. convergence. B. earthquakes. C. turbidity currents. D. shelf breaks. E. midocean ridges. Answer: C. turbidity currents. 33. Turbidity currents are thought to have contributed to the formation of the: A. Hudson River Canyon. B. Chesapeake Bay. C. Galveston Bay Canyon. D. San Francisco Bay. E. Scripps Submarine Canyon. Answer: E. Scripps Submarine Canyon. 34. The following are all main points of the article Animal Sculptors of the Seafloor except: A. Gray whales feed in a way that preserves habitat of their prey. B. Biological activities can alter large expanses of seafloor. C. The previous ideas about the feeding biology of large marine mammals were refined. D. Feeding activities enhance the area’s productivity. E. Walruses overgrazed clam beds, causing environmental collapse. Answer: E. Walruses overgrazed clam beds, causing environmental collapse. 35. At the base of a steep continental slope a gentle slope is called: A. a bajada. B. a delta. C. an inverse plane. D. the continental rise. E. an abyssal hill. Answer: D. the continental rise. 36. All of the following are considered a main ocean basin except: A. Pacific. B. Atlantic. C. Mediterranean. D. Arctic. E. Indian. Answer: C. Mediterranean. 37. A flat expanse of an ocean basin is called: A. a seamount. B. an abyssal plain. C. an abyssal hill. D. an abyssal prairie. E. an underwater delta. Answer: B. an abyssal plain. 38. Dotting the abyssal plain are abyssal hills that rise up to: A. 100 meters. B. 500 meters. C. 1000 meters. D. 1500 meters. E. 4000 meters. Answer: C. 1000 meters. 39. Seamounts are formed from: A. the rift zone. B. underwater volcanoes. C. uplifting of crust. D. earthquakes. E. underwater landslides. Answer: B. underwater volcanoes. 40. Sediments that are composed of the remains of once living organisms are called: A. cosmogenous. B. hydrogenous. C. inorganic. D. biogenous. E. terrigenous. Answer: D. biogenous. 41. Sediments that are formed from seawater as a result of a variety of chemical processes are called: A. cosmogenous. B. hydrogenous. C. organic.. D. biogenous. E. terrigenous. Answer: B. hydrogenous. 42. An example of a hydrogenous sediment is: A. diatomaceous ooze. B. siliceous ooze. C. manganese nodules. D. calcareous ooze. E. coccolithophore ooze. Answer: C. manganese nodules. 43. You have a sediment sample taken from the Tropical Indo-Pacific shallows. When acid is added to the sample, it bubbles and fizzes. What do you conclude? A. Bubbles are due to manganese nodules. B. The sample is cosmogenous. C. The sample is terrigenous. D. The sample is biogenous. E. None of these. Answer: D. The sample is biogenous. 44. An ooze is called an ooze if it is composed of _____________% or more of biogenous sediments. A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 E. 50 Answer: C. 30 45. Radiolarians contribute to biogenous sediments termed: A. diatomaceous ooze. B. calcareous ooze. C. manganese ooze. D. siliceous ooze. E. hydrogenous ooze. Answer: D. siliceous ooze. 46. Mud is composed of: A. dirt and water. B. iron and diatoms. C. clay and silt. D. calcareous and siliceous ooze. E. sand and clay. Answer: C. clay and silt. 47. The reference or primary line of longitude is: A. the Tropic of Cancer. B. the Tropic of Capricorn. C. the Greenwich meridian. D. the equator. E. the International Date Line. Answer: C. the Greenwich meridian. 48. A chronometer is used for: A. measuring depth. B. measuring speed. C. measuring time. D. measuring latitude. E. measuring longitude. Answer: C. measuring time. 49. You are planning to set sail on your catamaran from Los Angeles to Tahiti. What piece of navigating equipment would you preferentially use? A. Sextant. B. GPS unit. C. Chronometer. D. Physiographic chart. E. None of these. Answer: B. GPS unit. 50. The source of the water that formed the Earth's oceans was water vapor escaping from the interior of the planet. Answer: True 51. The world ocean covers 70.8% of the Earth's surface. Answer: True 52. Continental crust is composed mostly of iron and magnesium. Answer: False 53. Continental crust is older than oceanic crust. Answer: True 54. Faults are regions where lithospheric plates are moving toward one another. Answer: False 55. Bathygraphic features are features associated with land. Answer: False 56. Mountainous coastlines tend to be associated with narrow continental shelves. Answer: True 57. Seamounts are formed from underwater volcanoes. Answer: True 58. Seamounts and underwater volcanoes tend to be concentrated near midocean ridges and subduction zones. Answer: True 59. The type and amount of sediment found on a continental shelf is not important to organisms that live there. Answer: False 60. Radiolarian ooze is produced by multi-cellular organisms. Answer: False 61. Diatomaceous ooze is material leaking out of diatom cells. Answer: False 62. One nautical mile equals one degree of latitude. Answer: False 63. Latitude lines are referred to as parallels because they parallel one another. Answer: True 64. Bathymetric charts represent the contour of the ocean bottom with contour lines that connect similar depths. Answer: True 65. Match the water body term with its most closely associated description. 1. World Ocean all the oceans 2. Gulf small body of water cut off by land formations 3. Sea small ocean body more or less landlocked Answer: 66. Match the characteristic with the most closely associated Earth layer. 1. Inner Core dense, hot, rich in iron and nickel 2. Mantle magnesium - iron silicates 3. Crust granite or basalt Answer: 67. Match the layer with its most closely associated description. 1. Asthenosphere floats on the mantle 2. Lithosphere upper mantle and crust 3. Crust liquid mantle Answer: 68. Match the description with its most closely associated term. 1. Longitude these form progressively smaller circles from the equator to the poles 2. Latitude these are lines that extend from the North Pole to the South Pole 3. Primary meridian also known as Greenwich Answer: 69. Match the words with the most closely associated descriptions. 1. Fracture zone where most earthquakes occur 2. Subduction zone where ocean plate goes below terrestrial plate 3. Seafloor spreading where new ocean bottom is formed Answer: 70. Match the words with the most closely associated term. 1. Divergent plate boundary where plates move apart 2. Crust lithosphere where plates move toward each other 3. Transform boundary layer between crust and mantle 4. Convergent plate boundary where plates move laterally beside each other Answer: 71. Match the words with those the most closely associated term. 1. Continental shelves shallow extensions of the continents 2. Continental rise transition to the deep ocean floor 3. Continental slope landscape change between components of the continental margin 4. Shelf break gentle slope beyond the shelf break Answer: 72. Match the words with the most closely associated term. 1. Abyssal plain flat expanse 2. Seamount rise up from abyssal plain 3. Abyssal hill once above the sea surface Answer: 73. Match the words with the most closely associated term. 1. Trenches continuous series of large, underwater, volcanic mountains 2. Ridges deep crevices in the ocean floor 3. Island arcs associated with trenches Answer: 74. Match the type of sediment with its most closely associated source. 1. Biogenous seawater chemical processes 2. Hydrogenous from living organisms 3. Terrigenous land erosion processes 4. Cosmogenous from outer space Answer: 75. Describe the process that recycles oceanic crust. Answer: During the processes of subduction, old oceanic crust subducts beneath newer oceanic crust or continental crust. As it sinks it melts and then moves laterally and up to appear again at seafloor spreading centers where it forms new oceanic crust. 76. What makes rift communities unique? Answer: Rift communities are unique because they seemingly do not rely on energy from the sun as the primary source of energy powering the synthesis of high energy organic compounds. These communities rely on the chemosynthetic primary production of chemosynthetic bacteria. 77. What two opposing roles do turbidity currents play in shaping the continental shelf? Answer: Turbidity currents play a major role in carving and deepening submarine canyons that were formed during the last ice age. These currents are also responsible for deposition of massive amounts of sediments on the bottom of the continental slope in the region of the continental rise. 78. Why are continents much older than oceanic crust? Explain in terms of continental drift. Answer: Continents do not sink in subduction zones. Rather, when two continents collide, they cause uplifting of the Earth to form mountain ranges. As a result, continents are much older. 79. What factors caused the density stratification of materials within the Earth after the formation of the planet? Answer: Energy from outer space and the decay of radioactive materials in the Earth's interior caused the melting of the planet. The molten materials that made up the planet gradually sank according to their density. 80. What was the source of the water that gave rise to the oceans? Answer: Water was locked up in the Earth in chemical associations with the minerals of the planet. With gradual heating and cooling, the water vapor escaped, forming clouds, which eventually gave rise to condensation and rain that accumulated in the ocean's basins. 81. Why was Earth’s early atmosphere devoid of oxygen? Answer: Because oxygen is a strong oxidizer of other compounds it tends to form oxides with these compounds, which bind any free oxygen. 82. Describe the processes that account for the drifting of continents away from one another or toward one another. Answer: Continents are like large floating islands resting on top of the asthenosphere. As molten magma rises within the asthenosphere, some of it strikes the lithosphere and moves laterally. As this molten material moves sideways it drags the overlying lithosphere with it as well as the associated oceanic and continental crusts. 83. Describe at least 3 lines of evidence that support the theory of seafloor spreading and continental drift. Answer: The most obvious evidence in support of seafloor spreading and continental drift is the shape of present-day continents, which implies that they once fit together like pieces of a puzzle. In addition, if new seafloor were being created from solidified magma at seafloor spreading centers, then one would expect this new seafloor to have unique characteristics compared to older seafloor away from seafloor spreading centers. Some of these unique characteristics include warmer temperatures than seafloor that is farther away from spreading centers, younger rocks near seafloor spreading centers, and rocks that are covered by less sediment closer to seafloor spreading centers. 84. Using your knowledge of the age of lithospheric crusts and sediment accumulation, explain why it would be fruitless, not to mention expensive, to excavate for oil far off the coast, beyond the continental shelf. Answer: Because sediments have not had time to accumulate on the much younger oceanic crust, it is not likely that the processes that convert deposited organic material to oil have had time to operate. Therefore, no oil is likely to be found. 85. Describe the two processes that form and maintain submarine canyons. Answer: Submarine canyons could have been formed during the last ice age when sea levels were low and most continental shelves and slopes were not covered by seawater. During this time rivers carved canyons in the continental slope. These canyons eventually were covered by rising seawater following glacial melting. Alternatively, turbidity currents on steep continental slopes may carve out submarine canyons. 86. Briefly define a biogenous ooze and describe two types. Answer: If more than 30% of an area's sediment is made up of biogenous particles, then it is considered an ooze. Siliceous ooze comes primarily from the siliceous deposits from diatoms and radiolarians. Calcareous ooze is from a mixture of foraminiferans, coccolithophores, and molluscs. 87. Define a nautical mile, the unit of distance used in oceanic navigation. Answer: A nautical mile is equal to one minute of latitude (1.85 km or 1.15 land miles). 88. A sailor listening to a shortwave radio heard that the Greenwich mean time (the time at Greenwich, England) was 12:00 p.m. The sailor looked at her watch, which was set according to the time at a nearby location, and found it to be 3:00 p.m. What is the longitude of the sailor? Answer: If the Earth rotates 15° every hour, then the sailor would be 15° H ´ 3 hr = 45° to the west. Chapter 4--Water, Waves, and Tides 1. Marine organisms contain ______________% water by mass. A. 40-50 B. 50-60 C. 60-70 D. 70-80 E. 80-90 Answer: D. 70-80 2. Water can mingle with other elements because it is a: A. heating agent. B. solvent. C. solid. D. vapor. E. nonpolar molecule. Answer: B. solvent. 3. The charge of a water molecule is considered: A. polar. B. positive. C. negative. D. neutral. E. nonpolar. Answer: A. polar. 4. The polarity of a water molecule is due to: A. the greater number of hydrogen atoms relative to oxygen. B. the uneven attraction of electrons to the oxygen atom. C. the uneven attraction of electrons to the hydrogen atoms. D. the uneven attraction of protons to the oxygen atom. E. the number of neutrons in the nucleus. Answer: B. the uneven attraction of electrons to the oxygen atom. 5. The unique attractive forces that keep molecules of water together are called: A. strong forces. B. adhesion. C. hydrogen bonds. D. cohesion. E. weak nuclear forces. Answer: C. hydrogen bonds. 6. Hydrogen bonds are the result of attraction between: A. the H of one water molecule and the H of another water molecule. B. the two H atoms of the same water molecule. C. the H and O of the same water molecule. D. the H of one water molecule and the O of another water molecule. E. the O of one water molecule and the O of another water molecule. Answer: D. the H of one water molecule and the O of another water molecule. 7. The property of water whereby molecules tend to stick to one another is called: A. cohesion. B. polarity. C. dissolving ability. D. adhesion. E. viscosity. Answer: A. cohesion. 8. The property of water whereby molecules tend to stick to objects is called: A. cohesion. B. surface tension. C. dissolving ability. D. adhesion. E. viscosity. Answer: D. adhesion. 9. Surface tension allows water molecules to do all the following except: A. transmit light energy. B. resist evaporation. C. form a tight surface layer. D. support small organisms. E. resist evaporation and transmit light energy. Answer: A. transmit light energy. 10. Hydrogen forces have high attractive forces that allow water to have a high: A. strength. B. solubility. C. freezing point. D. boiling point. E. rate of evaporation. Answer: D. boiling point. 11. Water is unique because its solid phase is ___________ the liquid phase. A. denser than B. similar to C. less dense than D. Less dense than or similar to E. None of these. Answer: C. less dense than 12. An ion is: A. a type of gas. B. an individually charged particle. C. heavy water. D. water with an extra hydrogen atom. E. a neutrally-charged atom. Answer: B. an individually charged particle. 13. The specific heat of water is: A. a gram of substance. B. energy required to raise a gram of substance 1° F. C. calories need to heat seawater. D. energy required to raise a gram of substance 1° C. E. energy required to evaporate 1 gram of liquid water. Answer: D. energy required to raise a gram of substance 1° C. 14. Which low energy light wave length is quickly absorbed by water? A. Red. B. Orange. C. Yellow. D. Green. E. Red, orange, and yellow. Answer: E. Red, orange, and yellow. 15. Which high energy light wave length can penetrate sea water the deepest? A. Blue. B. Green. C. Violet. D. Red. E. Blue, green, and violet. Answer: E. Blue, green, and violet. 16. In most clear waters, 1% of surface light can penetrate to: A. 10 m. B. 20 m. C. 50 m. D. 75 m. E. 100 m. Answer: E. 100 m. 17. You are SCUBA diving with a friend, who is wearing a red and purple wetsuit. You both descend and conduct your underwater research at 30 m. What color(s) does her wetsuit appear at this depth? A. Black and dark blue. B. Dark blue and purple. C. Dark green and black. D. Dark red and black. E. Dark green and dark blue. Answer: A. Black and dark blue. 18. Light that is absorbed by water is converted to: A. short wave radiation. B. long wave radiation. C. heat. D. mass. E. green light. Answer: C. heat. 19. Acids are compounds that: A. can bind hydrogen ions. B. can release hydrogen ions. C. are pH 8 or above. D. contain hydrogen and hydroxide ions equal in number. E. raise pH. Answer: B. can release hydrogen ions. 20. Bases are compounds that do all the following except: A. they bind hydrogen ions. B. they release hydrogen ions. C. they are pH 7 or above. D. they contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions. E. they raise pH. Answer: B. they release hydrogen ions. 21. Water’s pH is considered neutral when: A. hydrogen can be bound. B. hydrogen can be released. C. water is slightly alkaline. D. hydrogen and hydroxide ions are equal in number. E. hydrogen can be bound and released. Answer: D. hydrogen and hydroxide ions are equal in number. 22. The pH scale is a measure of: A. how many degrees a professor has. B. the temperature of water. C. concentration of hydrogen ion in a volume of solution. D. concentration of hydroxide ions in a volume of solution. E. None of these. Answer: C. concentration of hydrogen ion in a volume of solution. 23. The pH of seawater is important to living organisms because: A. it can affect the functioning of enzymes. B. it can interfere with metabolism. C. it can affect growth. D. All of these. E. None of these. Answer: D. All of these. 24. A trace element's concentration is less than a part per: A. thousand. B. million. C. billion. D. trillion. E. hundred. Answer: B. million. 25. Salinity is expressed in parts per: A. hundred. B. thousand. C. ten thousand. D. hundred thousand. E. million. Answer: B. thousand. 26. The average salinity of seawater is __________%. A. 35 B. 37 C. 40 D. 45 E. 50 Answer: A. 35 27. The salinity of seawater at the poles is: A. high due to evaporation. B. low due to precipitation. C. high due to freezing. D. low due to river input. E. similar to the open ocean. Answer: C. high due to freezing. 28. The salinity of seawater at the equator is: A. high due to evaporation. B. low due to precipitation. C. high due to freezing. D. low due to river input. E. low due to temperature. Answer: B. low due to precipitation. 29. Salts are removed from the oceans primarily by: A. absorption by living organisms. B. removal by sea spray. C. evaporation. D. adsorption onto particles. E. salt mining. Answer: D. adsorption onto particles. 30. When a shallow extension of the sea dries out it leaves salt deposits called: A. participates. B. conglomerates. C. evaporites. D. rock salt. E. sedimentary layers. Answer: C. evaporites. 31. Gases that are regulated by biological processes include: A. oxygen. B. carbon dioxide. C. argon. D. oxygen and carbon dioxide. E. carbon dioxide and argon. Answer: D. oxygen and carbon dioxide. 32. The oxygen minimum layer is found: A. in the ocean trenches. B. mid-ocean. C. just below the sunlit surface. D. at the surface. E. just above the abyssal plain. Answer: C. just below the sunlit surface. 33. In terms of gas solubility in sea water, what is the correct relationship? A. Carbon dioxide > oxygen > nitrogen. B. Oxygen > carbon dioxide > nitrogen. C. Nitrogen > carbon dioxide > oxygen. D. Carbon dioxide > nitrogen > oxygen. E. Oxygen > nitrogen > carbon dioxide Answer: A. Carbon dioxide > oxygen > nitrogen. 34. To remove carbon dioxide that is dissolved in seawater, you could _________ the water sample. A. chill B. increase the pressure of C. increase the salinity of D. heat E. heat and increase the pressure of Answer: D. heat 35. Seawater is considered buffered due to the presence of: A. oxygen ions. B. nitrogen ions. C. bicarbonate ions. D. silicon ions. E. calcium ions. Answer: C. bicarbonate ions. 36. An imbalance of heat received versus heat leaving the Earth can lead to: A. global warming. B. global cooling. C. temperature inversion. D. global warming and global cooling. E. global cooling and temperature inversion. Answer: D. global warming and global cooling. 37. The majority of the heat that is transferred from the Earth to the atmosphere is transferred by: A. radiation of heat into the atmosphere. B. evaporation of water. C. absorption by the lithosphere. D. reflection of heat into space. E. Condensing of water. Answer: B. evaporation of water. 38. The following are considered greenhouse gases except: A. nitrogen. B. carbon dioxide. C. methane. D. chlorofluorocarbons. E. nitrogen and methane. Answer: A. nitrogen. 39. The mass of a substance divided by its volume is: A. heat capacity. B. surface tension. C. density. D. salinity. E. viscosity. Answer: C. density. 40. The two main factors controlling the density of water are: A. salinity and temperature. B. salinity and heat capacity. C. salinity and pH. D. pH and heat capacity. E. temperature and pH. Answer: A. salinity and temperature. 41. The maximum density of pure water occurs at: A. -2° C. B. 0° C. C. 3° C. D. 4° C. E. -4° C. Answer: D. 4° C. 42. A zone of rapid temperature change is called a(n): A. pycnocline. B. thermocline. C. halocline. D. isocline. E. None of these. Answer: B. thermocline. 43. An isopycnal water column is one in which the density: A. increases with depth. B. decreases with depth. C. remains the same with depth. D. None of these. E. increases with temperature. Answer: C. remains the same with depth. 44. The density of air increases with: A. increasing temperature. B. decreasing pressure. C. increasing moisture. D. decreasing moisture. E. decreasing temperature. Answer: D. decreasing moisture. 45. At 30° north and 30° south, air is: A. cool and rising. B. moist and rising. C. moist and falling. D. dry and falling. E. dry and rising. Answer: D. dry and falling. 46. The Coriolis effect is: A. the downwelling of seawater at the equator. B. the upwelling of seawater at the equator. C. the apparent deflection of the path of air and water. D. the reduction of air speed over the ground as one goes from the equator to the poles. E. None of these. Answer: C. the apparent deflection of the path of air and water. 47. A Class 4 hurricane is centered over Bermuda (latitude 32.20 N) and is moving eastwards. Which coastal city on the eastern coast of the United States is in the most peril from its approach? A. Savannah, GA (latitude 32.08 N). B. Jacksonville, FL (latitude 30.32 N). C. Wilmington, NC (latitude 34.23 N). D. Boston, MA (latitude 42.36 N). E. None of these. Answer: C. Wilmington, NC (latitude 34.23 N). 48. A common generating force for surface waves in the oceans is: A. wind. B. gravity. C. surface tension. D. capillary action. E. undersea tectonic activity. Answer: A. wind. 49. The designation of winds is referenced from: A. the direction from which they are coming. B. the direction towards which they are going. C. folk lore. D. the need to throw horses overboard. E. the direction in relation to the observer’s path of travel. Answer: A. the direction from which they are coming. 50. Deep water waves move through water having a depth that is deeper than ________ the wavelength of the wave. A. 1/3 B. 3/4 C. 1/2 D. 2/3 E. 7/8 Answer: C. 1/2 51. The distance over which wind is blowing is referred to as: A. fetch. B. duration. C. strength. D. depth. E. wind span. Answer: A. fetch. 52. Gyres are divided into the following types of currents (named below) except: A. Ekman spiral. B. eastern boundary. C. western boundary. D. transverse. E. Ekman spiral and transverse. Answer: A. Ekman spiral. 53. Tsunamis are usually: A. deep-water waves. B. shallow-water waves. C. wind waves. D. capillary waves. E. the result of winter storms. Answer: B. shallow-water waves. 54. A tidal pattern of two equal high and low tides per day is called a: A. mixed semidiurnal tide. B. semidiurnal tide. C. diurnal tide. D. spring tide. E. neap tide. Answer: B. semidiurnal tide. 55. You are on the beach at Corpus Christi, Texas. High tide falls at noon, and the tides are diurnal here.. When will be the next high tide? A. 6 pm that evening. B. 12 hours later, at midnight. C. 6 am the next morning. D. Noon the next day. E. 9 pm that evening. Answer: D. Noon the next day. 56. A falling tide is called a(n): A. flood tide. B. spring tide. C. neap tide. D. ebb tide. E. mixed tide. Answer: D. ebb tide. 57. The charges on a water molecule are distributed equally. Answer: False 58. Frozen water is more dense than liquid water. Answer: False 59. The capillary action of water is a result of the adhesive properties of water. Answer: True 60. The heat capacity of water is due to the strong covalent bonds between the hydrogen and oxygen of a water molecule. Answer: False 61. The surface tension of water is a result of the cohesive properties of water. Answer: True 62. On the pH scale, numbers below 7 indicate acidic solutions. Answer: True 63. Trace elements dissolved in seawater are present in concentrations less than one part per thousand. Answer: False 64. Trace elements are not important elements for living organisms. Answer: False 65. The salinity of the world's oceans is increasing as more salts dissolve in the water. Answer: False 66. The concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere is lower than its concentration in the oceans. Answer: True 67. Surface temperature is more important than salinity in determining density of surface waters in coastal areas. Answer: False 68. Oceanic surface currents are driven by winds. Answer: True 69. Air in the northern hemisphere is deflected to the left of its direction of movement due to the Coriolis effect. Answer: False 70. Areas between wind convection cells are characterized by having stable and consistent winds. Answer: False 71. Capillary waves are small. Answer: True 72. Plunging waves typically occur on very gently sloping coastlines. Answer: False 73. Tsunamis are the result of the storm surge of hurricanes. Answer: False 74. As a wave approaches shallow water, its speed is reduced. Answer: True 75. Match the gas with the most closely associated atmospheric percentage. 1. Carbon dioxide 78.08% 2. Nitrogen 20.99% 3. Oxygen 0.03% Answer: 76. Match the Percentage by Volume in the Ocean with the gas. 1. Nitrogen 11% 2. Oxygen 6% 3. Carbon dioxide 83% Answer: 77. Match the value of water with the its property. 1. Density (at 4°C) 100°C 2. Boiling Point 0°C 3. Freezing Point 1.00 g/cm3 Answer: 78. Match the g/kg of seawater with the proper ion. 1. Sulfate 19.35 2. Sodium 10.76 3. Chloride 2.71 Answer: 79. Match the pH value with it is most closely associated term. 1. Basic 6 2. Neutral 8 3. Acidic 7 Answer: 80. Match the solution with the most closely associated pH. 1. Human saliva 3 2. Liquid soap 8 3. Seawater 11 4. Vinegar 7 Answer: 81. Match the current with the most closely associated flow direction. 1. Eastern-boundary current South to North 2. Transverse current West to East 3. Equatorial Counter Current North to South 4. Gulf Stream East to West Answer: 82. Match the 24 hr tidal cycle with its most closely associated term. 1. Semidiurnal two equal highs and lows 2. Mixed tide one low and high 3. Diurnal two different highs and lows Answer: 83. Match the wave term with the most closely associated description. 1. Deepwater wave water depth > a wave's length 2. Shallowater wave water depth < a wave's length 3. Wave refraction a wave that bends Answer: 84. Match the wave type with the most closely associated description. 1. Progressive wave wind generated and restored by gravity 1 2. Free wave increasing in size due to winds from a storm 3 3. Forced wave no longer influenced by wind from a storm 2 Answer: 85. Describe four properties of water that make it indispensable for life as we know it on Earth? How do the properties of water arise? Answer: Water is an excellent solvent of polar molecules. As a result, it is the primary liquid in which all animal tissues are bathed. Water is also characterized by having a high boiling point and a high freezing point, which means that water will remain in its liquid state at average Earth surface temperatures. All of the preceding properties are due to hydrogen bonds between water molecules. Finally, water is denser as a cold liquid than as ice, which means that ice will float and act as insulation against the freezing of deeper water layers. 86. What are hydrogen bonds? Answer: Hydrogen bonds are weak associations between the positive hydrogens of a polar molecule containing hydrogen, such as water, and the negative pole of other such molecules or entirely different molecules. 87. What property of water allows it to stick to objects and make them wet? Answer: Water is attracted to the surface of objects that carry an electrical charge. This property is called adhesion and accounts for the ability of water to make things wet. 88. What is capillary action of water and how does it occur? Answer: When water rises into narrow spaces, it does so through capillary action. Water is attracted to electrically charged molecules lining the narrow spaces. 89. Large bodies of water maintain relatively constant temperatures compared to terrestrial locations. Why is this so, and how is this feature of water important for life? Answer: Water is said to have a very high heat capacity, which means that it takes the addition or the removal of enormous amounts of heat in order to change significantly the temperature of the body of water. This property of water is a direct result of the hydrogen bonding that occurs between water molecules. For example, when heat is added, much of that energy is absorbed by the hydrogen bonds, which vibrate with the added heat before they break resulting in a temperature rise of the water. Large bodies of water can absorb much more heat before there is a change in water temperature; therefore, large bodies of water create a stable environment where evolution can proceed. 90. Define the term "evaporite." Answer: Evaporites are the salt deposits that remain on land after the evaporation of a small marginal sea or body of water. 91. List the most abundant ions in seawater, from most to least abundant. Answer: The most abundant ions in seawater are (in order of most abundant to least abundant): chloride, sodium, sulfate, magnesium, calcium, potassium, bicarbonate, bromide, strontium, boron, and fluoride. 92. Which of the two gases, oxygen or carbon dioxide, is present in the oceans in much greater proportions than in air? Why might this be the case? Answer: Carbon dioxide is present in the oceans in much greater proportions than in air. This is because carbon dioxide selectively reacts with water to form carbonic acid, which, in turn, forms bicarbonate. 93. Describe the physical factors involved in the layering of the oceans. Answer: Ocean layers are formed as a result of differences in temperature, salinity, and hence density between various layers as a result of heating, evaporation, precipitation, or freezing. This results in a stratified ocean in which the upper layers are the least dense and the lower layers increase gradually in density. 94. What are atmospheric low pressure zones? Where are they found, and why are these zones significant for traditional marine navigation? Answer: In zones of low atmospheric pressure, located at 0 degrees and 60 degrees N and S, low-density air rises. These zones are significant for sailors because the wind movement is unsteady and unreliable. The zone of low atmospheric pressure at the equator is known as the doldrums, and is infamous for stranding sailing ships for extended periods without winds to move them. 95. Explain what happens at the molecular level when a salt such as NaCl dissolves in water. Answer: Ionic molecules, such as NaCl, dissolve in water because the positive and negative ions of the salt are separated from each other. They are separated because the slightly positive side of a water molecule (the hydrogen atoms) surround the negative chloride ion and isolate it from the positive sodium ion. At the same time, the negative side of a water molecule (the oxygen atom) surrounds the positive sodium ion, thereby isolating it from any free chlorides. 96. Even though seawater continues to dissolve minerals from rocks and new minerals are added from the interior of the Earth, the salinity of the oceans is not increasing over time. Explain 3 reasons that cause this. Answer: The ocean's salinity is in equilibrium. Salts that are added to the oceans are removed by processes such as adsorption and other sedimentation processes, removal by sea spray, and removal by incorporation into living organisms. 97. Tropical areas absorb more heat than they lose and polar areas lose more heat than they gain. How is it that the tropics do not continue to get warmer and the poles don't get colder with time? Answer: Excess heat that is gained in the tropics is transferred to the poles by winds and ocean currents, which act as giant heat conveyors on the planet. 98. The oceans are thought to regulate temperatures of the whole planet. Explain this process in terms of the heat capacity of water. Answer: Water has a high heat capacity. It can absorb or gain high quantities of heat without significant changes in its temperature. This is because any heat added to the water is absorbed first by the hydrogen bonds of water before these can be broken. As a result, oceans absorb heat without substantially increasing temperature. If the atmospheric temperatures are cool, the ocean will release heat into the atmosphere, thereby ameliorating temperatures. 99. What 2 factors can cause a stratified water column to become unstable and to mix? Answer: Anything that increases the density of surface water above that of deeper water will lead to an unstable water column. Cooling or freezing of surface water or the evaporation of surface water can all lead to an increase in the density of surface water. 100. Explain why thermohaline circulation (the vertical mixing of the water column due to density differences) is important for living organisms. Answer: Water that is sinking is usually oxygen-rich. Therefore, this water can replenish the oxygen levels of deeper areas. Rising water tends to be rich in dissolved nutrients that are important for the process of photosynthesis at the surface. Therefore, rising water, as a result of thermohaline circulation, replenishes depleted nutrient levels in the surface areas of the oceans, which ensures continued production. 101. Describe the astronomical conditions that give rise to the extreme spring tides during certain periods of the month. Answer: During a full or new moon, the , moon, and sun are aligned in a more or less straight line. At this time the gravitational pull of the sun may either complement that of the moon (new moon) or, if the sun is on the opposite side of the Earth than the moon, it will draw water toward it and away from the moon, which is also drawing water, resulting in two large bulges on either side of the planet and a spring tide. Test Bank for Introduction to Marine Biology George Karleskint, Richard Turner, James Small 9780495561972, 9780534420727
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