Chapter 2 Heredity and the Environment 2.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1. A karyotype is A) an image of a person’s brain while they sleep. B) the set of cellular processes that include meiosis and mitosis. C) a picture that includes all of an individual’s chromosomes. D) the entire set of genes that encompass the human species. Answer: C) a picture that includes all of an individual’s chromosomes. 2. Strands of deoxyribonucleic acid molecules that contain the genetic codes are called A) chromosomes. B) DNA. C) RNA. D) genes. Answer: A) chromosomes. 3. Chromosomes are strands of _____________ molecules. A) DNA B) RNA C) guanine D) cytosine Answer: A) DNA 4. Two strands of molecules that twist around each other like a spiral staircase is called A) a chromosome. B) DNA. C) a gene. D) a genome. Answer: B) DNA. 5. The "stairs" of DNA molecules are made of A) nucleotide bases. B) adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine. C) both A and B. D) neither A nor B. Answer: C) both A and B. 6. The statement "adenine always pairs with thymine and guanine always pairs with cytosine" refers to the pairing of A) genes in the single pair of sex chromosomes. B) nucleotide bases in a DNA molecule. C) lipid bases in a DNA molecule. D) phosphate bases in a DNA cell. Answer: B) nucleotide bases in a DNA molecule. 7. Which of the following is NOT one of the nucleotide base molecules that form DNA? A) xanthine B) thymine C) guanine D) cytosine Answer: A) xanthine 1. If a strand of nucleotide base pairs follows the sequence of C, T, G, G, A, you know that its complementary sequence on the other strand will be A) G, T, C, C, G. B) T, A, G, G, C. C) T, C, C, A, G. D) G, A, C, C, T. Answer: D) G, A, C, C, T. Cytosine pairs with guanine, and thymine pairs with adenine. 9. Research has uncovered that about half of the parents surveyed who had utilized an artificial insemination technique said that they A) planned to tell their children the truth about how they were conceived. B) would definitely not disclose information about their child's conception. C) would use artificial conception techniques again. D) worried about their children hearing the truth from someone else. Answer: A) planned to tell their children the truth about how they were conceived. 10. When technicians remove the chromosomes from fetal cells that are collected during an amniocentesis, they arrange them by size to form a picture called A) a karyotype. B) a genotype. C) a phenotype. D) a linotype. Answer: A) a karyotype. 11. _____________ is a segment of DNA that provides an instruction for a particular structure, function, or trait. A) A chromosome B) A genome C) A gene D) A cytosine molecule Answer: C) A gene 12. Within the 46 chromosomes in each human cell, there are approximately _____________ pairs of nucleotide bases. A) 1 million B) 10 million C) 500 million D) 3 billion Answer: D) 3 billion 13. There are approximately _____________ genes aligned along the set of 46 chromosomes in each human cell. A) 20,000 to 30,000 B) 200 to 300 C) 20 to 30 D) 2 million to 3 million Answer: A) 20,000 to 30,000 14. Less than _____________ of the base pairs in human DNA provide active instructions. A) 2% B) 10% C) 20% D) 70% Answer: A) 2% 15. A type of gene that operates in pairs across matched chromosomes is called A) a chromosome. B) a genome. C) an adenine. D) an allele. Answer: D) an allele. 16. An allele is an _____________ of a gene. A) inactive portion B) incomplete piece or segment C) alternative version or instance D) artificially produced duplicate Answer: C) alternative version or instance 17. During _____________ , the sperm and egg cells join, and chromosomes from the father and mother combine. A) mitosis B) fertilization C) amniocentesis D) probabilistic epigenesis Answer: B) fertilization 18. Research on alternative techniques for conception A) indicates an increased risk for autism. B) does not indicate any particular developmental problems. C) has revealed a delay in language development. D) suggests higher rates of Down syndrome. Answer: B) does not indicate any particular developmental problems. 19. There is some research to suggest that parents of children born via _____________ _____________ can be somewhat overinvolved in their children’s emotional lives. A) artificial insemination B) embryo donation C) cryopreservation D) in vitro fertilization Answer: B) embryo donation 20. All of the following are examples of alternative techniques for conception EXCEPT A) in vitro fertilization. B) cryopreservation. C) nucleotide mapping. D) surrogacy. Answer: C) nucleotide mapping. 21. When sperm are collected from the father and then injected into the mother's reproductive system, this is called A) artificial insemination. B) in vitro fertilization. C) assisted in vivo fertilization. D) cryopreservation. Answer: A) artificial insemination. 22. _____________ occurs when embryos, that had originally developed in a petri dish, are placed in the mother's uterus for further development. A) Artificial insemination B) In vitro fertilization C) Assisted in vivo fertilization D) Cryopreservation Answer: B) In vitro fertilization 23. _____________ occurs when collected eggs and sperm and injected into the fallopian tube of the mother for fertilization and further development. A) Artificial insemination B) In vitro fertilization C) Assisted in vivo fertilization D) Cryopreservation Answer: C) Assisted in vivo fertilization 24. The term used to refer to a fertilized egg cell that has begun to divide is A) an allele. B) a zygote. C) a genome. D) a sex chromosome. Answer: B) a zygote. 25. After fertilization occurs, cell division takes place according to the process of A) probabilistic epigenesis. B) canalization. C) meiosis. D) mitosis. Answer: D) mitosis. 26. Which of the following is the term for cell division that is also known as "copy division"? A) myelination B) meiosis C) mitosis D) fertilization Answer: C) mitosis 27. Which of the following is the first step of mitosis? A) Duplicated pairs of chromosomes line up along the center of the cell. B) The DNA unwraps from the chromosome. C) The DNA material on each chromosome “unzips.” D) The 46 chromosomes duplicate themselves. Answer: C) The DNA material on each chromosome “unzips.” 28. Which of the following is the term for cell division that is also known as "reduction division"? A) myelination B) meiosis C) mitosis D) fertilization Answer: B) meiosis 29. _____________ ensures that a child receives 23 chromosomes from each parent. A) Meiosis B) Crossing over C) Mitosis D) Nonshared environment Answer: A) Meiosis. Meiosis (“reduction division”) results in sex cells that have 23 chromosomes so that during fertilization both parents contribute equally to the offspring’s genotype. 30. A gamete is A) a product of mitosis and is essential for healthy cell division. B) a sex cell containing half the number of chromosomes as a regular cell. C) a cluster of DNA strands along a specific sex chromosome. D) a type of sex cell that becomes sperm upon entering the fallopian tube. Answer: B) a sex cell containing half the number of chromosomes as a regular cell. 31. Sperm and egg cells are formed during A) fertilization. B) reproduction. C) meiosis. D) mitosis. Answer: C) meiosis. 32. The process of fertilization creates one cell with A) 23 chromosomes. B) 46 chromosomes. C) 92 chromosomes. D) It depends on whether or not identical twins will be formed. Answer: B) 46 chromosomes. 33. The process of crossing-over A) increases the potential for healthy sperm to reach the site of fertilization. B) ensures variability among the genetic codes of siblings. C) ensures that characteristics will be transmitted from parents to offspring. D) decreases the likelihood of mutations, chromosomal abnormalities, and birth defects. Answer: B) ensures variability among the genetic codes of siblings. 34. The 23rd pair of chromosomes A) is the last pair. B) determines whether the offspring will be male or female. C) is called the sex chromosomes. D) all of the above Answer: D) all of the above 35. An individual whose 23rd pair of chromosomes is XY A) is a genetic male. B) has Down syndrome. C) has Turner syndrome. D) has Klinefelter syndrome. Answer: A) is a genetic male. 36. An individual's sex is determined by A) the whole genome. B) the 23rd pair of chromosomes. C) the amount of adenine in the father's sperm. D) the number of nucleotide bases. Answer: B) the 23rd pair of chromosomes. 37. Females can only pass _____________ to their eggs. A) the Y chromosome B) the X chromosome C) two X chromosomes D) no sex chromosomes Answer: B) the X chromosome 38. The sex of the offspring depends on A) whether the child has 23 or 46 chromosomes on their genome. B) whether the fertilization results in mitosis or meiosis. C) whether the mother contributes an X or Y chromosome. D) whether the father contributes an X or Y chromosome. Answer: D) whether the father contributes an X or Y chromosome. The father’s sex chromosome (either X or Y) determines the sex of the offspring. The mother has no influence, as she always contributes an X chromosome. 39. Which of the following is NOT a disorder discussed in your text as being linked to a certain gene location? A) fragile X mental retardation B) hemophilia C) Huntington's disease D) fetal alcohol syndrome Answer: D) fetal alcohol syndrome. FAS is caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. 40. Alicia and Kenny are fraternal twins. Patty and Penelope are sisters born four years apart. Which of these two pairs of siblings is most similar genetically? A) Alicia and Kenny, the fraternal twins, are most similar genetically. B) Patty and Penelope, the sisters, are most similar genetically. C) The fraternal twins and the sisters are equal in genetic similarity. D) The degree of similarity cannot be determined without DNA testing. Answer: C) The fraternal twins and the sisters are equal in genetic similarity. Fraternal, or nonidentical, twins are conceived from separate eggs and separate sperm in the same way nontwin siblings are conceived. In both cases, the siblings share on average 50% of their genes. 41. _____________ are the type of twins formed when one zygote divided to make two zygotes. A) Monozygotic twins B) Dizygotic twins C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: A) Monozygotic twins 42. Which of the following factors influences the rates of MZ twinning? A) ethnicity B) a history of MZ twins on the mother’s side of the family C) maternal age D) The rate of MZ twins is virtually the same in all segments of the population. Answer: D) The rate of MZ twins is virtually the same in all segments of the population. 43 _____________ are the type of twins formed when two eggs are fertilized by two different sperm cells. A) Monozygotic twins B) Dizygotic twins C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: B) Dizygotic twins 44. Which of the following statements regarding dizygotic twins is not TRUE? A) DZ twins can be different sexes. B) DZ twins must have different fathers. C) DZ twins are identical in appearance. D) none of the above Answer: C) DZ twins are identical in appearance. 45. Half-identical twins are also known as A) fraternal twins. B) polar body twins. C) identical twins. D) nonidentical. Answer: B) polar body twins 46. Half-identical twins are formed from A) a single egg that divides before being fertilized. B) an egg dividing into two immediately after fertilization. C) two different eggs fertilized by two different sperm. D) Half-identical twins are a myth. Answer: A) a single egg that divides before being fertilized. 47. Your new friend, Alex, wants you to meet his twin sister, Alexis. You immediately recognize that Alex is probably a(n) A) fraternal twin. B) monozygotic twin. C) identical twin. D) MZ twin. Answer: A) fraternal twin. If twins are different sexes, they must have developed from different fertilized eggs. They are therefore nonidentical twins. 48. Which of the following factors influences the rates of DZ twinning? A) ethnicity B) a history of DZ twins on the mother’s side of the family C) maternal age D) all of the above Answer: D) all of the above 49. The most extensively studied behavioral trait is A) intelligence. B) spatial reasoning. C) anxiety. D) sexual orientation. Answer: A) intelligence. 50. The purpose of the _____________ is to map the order of every nucleotide base and locate the position of every gene in the human genome. A) Multinational Genetics Cooperative B) Worldwide DNA Analysis C) Human Genome Project D) Gene Mapping Program Answer: C) Human Genome Project 51. One of the long-term goals of the Human Genome Project is to find A) markers for every disease that can be inherited. B) the genes that determine personality. C) how life began on Earth millions of years ago. D) a safe method for cloning humans. Answer: A) markers for every disease that can be inherited. 52. Certain reproductive technologies have made it possible to do which of the following? A) determine the sexual orientation of fetuses B) allow parents to select the sex of their children C) select the healthiest embryos to carry to birth D) select embryos for optimal height and weight Answer: B) allow parents to select the sex of their children Embryos that are developed in vitro can be tested to determine if their sex chromosomes are XX or XY. 53. How might the Human Genome Project help in the detection and treatment of specific diseases? A) It may provide a genetic test to determine if you are predisposed to the disease. B) It may suggest preventative steps to be taken to avoid developing the disease. C) It may provide a gene therapy, in which “good” genes replace “diseased” genes. D) all of the above Answer: D) all of the above By cataloging all human genes, researchers hope to create genetic tests, preventative treatments, and gene therapies for diseases. 54. Which of the following is a moral question that has arisen due to the work of the Human Genome Project? A) Should certain individuals choose to become parents? B) Should we selectively abort embryos with tendencies toward specific diseases? C) Should we selectively abort embryos that will not be intellectually gifted? D) Should we selectively abort embryos to help slow population growth? Answer: B) Should we selectively abort embryos with tendencies toward specific diseases? It is difficult to predict if a disease will develop, as it may depend on unknown environmental factors. 55. Which of the following laws was passed in 2008 to protect the genetic privacy of citizens? A) Americans with Disabilities Act B) Family and Medical Leave Act C) Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act D) Employment Nondiscrimination Act Answer: C) Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act 56. Which of the following is a potential risk of discrimination based on the results of genetic testing? A) denying an individual health insurance B) denying an individual employment C) being fired or denied a promotion D) all of the above Answer: D) all of the above Knowledge of one’s genes (and potential traits) may result in denial of insurance, employment, or work opportunities. 57. While applying for a job, Jessica is asked to submit a DNA sample for genetic testing. She should refuse the request because A) the employer may use the results of the test to deny her employment. B) genetic information is private. C) it is a violation of federal law for an employer to request or demand a genetic test. D) all of the above Answer: D) all of the above The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act forbids employers to request or demand a genetic test. This information is private and cannot be used to deny someone employment. 58. The relationship between genes in which the dominant allele will govern a particular trait and the recessive allele will be repressed is called the A) dominant-recessive relationship. B) dominant-recessive expression. C) genome. D) sex-linked relationship. Answer: A) dominant-recessive relationship. 59. Which of the following statements is true about any corresponding pair of alleles? A) The two alleles inherited are always the same. B) The two alleles inherited are always different. C) The two alleles inherited can be either the same or different. D) The two alleles inherited are never the same. Answer: C) The two alleles inherited can be either the same or different. 60. When one of two parents has a _____________ (e.g., Huntington’s disease), there is at least a 50% chance that their offspring will inherit the disease. A) recessive disease allele B) dominant disease allele C) missing chromosome D) cross-over Answer: B) dominant disease allele If a parent has one copy of a dominant disease allele, there is a 50-50 chance of giving it to their offspring. If the same parent has two copies of the allele, there is a 100% chance their offspring will inherit it. 61. The gene for Huntington’s disease has been identified on A) the fragile X. B) the 23rd chromosome pair. C) chromosome 4. D) none of the above Answer: C) chromosome 4. 62. All of the following traits are dominant traits EXCEPT A) inability to roll tongue. B) detached earlobes. C) dimpled cheeks. D) arched feet. Answer: A) inability to roll tongue. 63. Joanne's mother has arched feet, and her father has flat feet. Joanne will probably have A) arched feet. B) flat feet. C) large feet. D) can't determine. Answer: D) can't determine. While a range of probabilities can be estimated, the chances that Joanne will have either arched or flat feet cannot be determined until it is known whether her mother has one or two alleles for arched feet. 64. Both of Madeline’s parents have detached earlobes. The chance that she will develop the same trait is between A) 50% and 100%. B) 25% and 100%. C) 75% and 100%. D) can ’t determine Answer: B) 25% and 100%. Detached earlobes are a dominant trait. The minimum probability that Madeline will have detached earlobes (25%) is the scenario where both of her parents have one dominant allele, while the maximum probability (100%) is the scenario where both parents have two dominant alleles. 65. Which of the following statements about cystic fibrosis (CF) is FALSE? A) CF affects tissues in the body that produce mucus secretions. B) People with CF usually experience serious respiratory problems. C) CF is the most common dominant disease among Caucasians. D) CF is nearly unknown in Asian populations. Answer: C) CF is the most common dominant disease among Caucasians. 66. Which of the following allele patterns would an individual need to carry in order to express cystic fibrosis, a receive gene disease, where C stands for a dominant allele and c stands for a recessive allele? A) CC B) Cc C) cc D) none of the above Answer: C) cc Cystic fibrosis is a recessive disease, and so two copies of the allele must be inherited in order to develop the disease. 67. Recessive traits are less common than dominant traits because usually A) both parents must have the same recessive trait in order for it to be inherited.. B) both parents must either have the recessive trait or be a carrier in order for it to be inherited. C) recessive genes are more sensitive to the crossing-over process than dominant genes. D) only fathers are able to pass on recessive genes to their female offspring. Answer: B) both parents must either have the recessive trait or be a carrier in order for it to be inherited. 68. When one of two parents is a carrier for a _____________ (e.g., cystic fibrosis), there is a 25% chance that their offspring will inherit the disease. A) dominant disease allele B) G x E interaction C) X-linked trait D) recessive disease allele Answer: D) recessive disease allele 69. Your son comes home from kindergarten talking about a very sick classmate who has "sticky blood that is funny-shaped." You wonder if this classmate might have A) cystic fibrosis. B) Huntington’s disease. C) sickle cell disease. D) trisomy X. Answer: C) sickle cell disease. One characteristic of sickle cell disease is malformed red blood cells. 70. Sickle cell disease A) is a recessive gene disease. B) is a group of diseases involving defective hemoglobin. C) can be detected through prenatal genetic testing. D) all of the above Answer: D) all of the above 71. X-linked recessive traits are A) more common among females than males. B) more common among males than females. C) equally common among females and males. D) none of the above; there is no data correlating X-linked recessive traits and sex. Answer: B) more common among males than females. Since men inherit one X chromosome, they only need to inherit one recessive X-linked allele in order to develop the corresponding trait. If women inherit a recessive X-linked allele, their second X chromosome may have a dominant allele that prevents expression of the recessive trait. 72. Polygenic traits are traits influenced by A) dominant genes only. B) recessive genes only. C) many different genes. D) XX and XY genes only. Answer: C) many different genes. 73. Pleitropic genes, a specific gene or group of genes, affect A) only one trait. B) more than one trait. C) emotional disposition in individuals. D) cognitive abilities, causing delayed development. Answer: B) more than one trait. 74. Relative to females, males are much more likely to suffer from classic hemophilia because A) when males inherit the recessive hemophilia gene on their X chromosomes, their Y chromosomes do not have a corresponding dominant gene to mask the disease. B) when males inherit the recessive hemophilia gene on their Y chromosomes, their X chromosomes do not have a corresponding dominant gene to mask the disease. C) only males can inherit the dominant gene responsible for the blood-clotting disease on the larger of their two sex chromosomes. D) when males inherit the dominant hemophilia gene on their Y chromosomes, it is highly likely that they will also carry the gene on their X chromosome. Answer: A) when males inherit the recessive hemophilia gene on their X chromosomes, their Y chromosomes do not have a corresponding dominant gene to mask the disease. 75. Fragile X syndrome is caused by A) the loss of an X chromosome during meiosis. B) a disease allele on one X chromosome causing the other X chromosome to become weak. C) the X chromosome (for girls) being weaker than the Y chromosome (for boys). D) the X chromosome being weakened at the tip. Answer: D) the X chromosome being weakened at the tip. 76. Which of the following is an example of a dominant X-linked trait? A) color blindness B) Duchenne muscular dystrophy C) Vitamin D–resistant rickets D) classic hemophilia Answer: C) Vitamin D–resistant rickets 77. For females, the chances of inheriting a dominant disease allele on the X chromosome are _____________ the chances for males. A) less than B) twice as likely as C) equal to D) half as likely as Answer: B) twice as likely as 78. Which of the following is an example of a recessive X-linked trait? A) retinitis pigmentosa B) rickets C) Rett syndrome D) fragile X syndrome Answer: A) retinitis pigmentosa 79. The number one inherited cause of mental retardation is A) Down syndrome. B) Tay-Sachs disease. C) fragile X syndrome D) Turner syndrome. Answer: A) Down syndrome. 80. Trisomy 21 is another name for A) Huntington’s disease. B) Tay-Sachs disease. C) Down syndrome. D) fragile X mental retardation. Answer: C) Down syndrome. 81. Which of the following statements concerning Down syndrome is FALSE? A) Down syndrome is also referred to as Trisomy 21. B) In Down syndrome there is a defective gene on the X chromosome. C) Down syndrome is the single most common genetic cause of mental retardation. D) In Down syndrome babies are born with an extra 21st chromosome. Answer: B) In Down syndrome there is a defective gene on the X chromosome. 82. In about 95% of Down syndrome cases, the extra 21st chromosome exists because A) of a duplication error during mitosis. B) of injury that occurs during amniocentesis. C) the zygote becomes separated and divides into two zygotes. D) the 21st pair of chromosomes did not separate properly when the egg was formed. Answer: D) the 21st pair of chromosomes did not separate properly when the egg was formed. 83. Doctors recommend that pregnant women who are _____________ or older should undergo genetic testing to determine if their fetus has an extra 21st chromosome. A) 25 B) 35 C) 45 D) 55 Answer: B) 35 84. With the exception of trisomy 21, having an extra chromosome usually leads to A) pregnancy loss. B) death of the infant during the first few months of life. C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C) both A and B 85. Which of the following sex chromosome abnormalities leads to a child who will be infertile? A) XYY syndrome B) Trisomy X C) Klinefelter syndrome D) none of the above Answer: C) Klinefelter syndrome 86. Turner syndrome results in all of the following characteristics EXCEPT A) individuals remain fertile. B) short stature. C) infertility. D) motor skill deficits. Answer: A) individuals remain fertile. 87. Your middle-school-aged daughter describes a new female classmate as "different." She tells you that this classmate is quite short but has broad shoulders and a webbed neck. She also says that this classmate is clumsy in gym class and slow in geometry but okay in English. Of the following, which is most likely to be true? A) Your daughter's new classmate has Klinefelter syndrome. B) Your daughter's new classmate has trisomy X. C) Your daughter's new classmate is an XXX female. D) Your daughter's new classmate has Turner syndrome. Answer: D) Your daughter's new classmate has Turner syndrome. The characteristics of Turner syndrome include a webbed neck, short stature, motor skill deficits, and difficulty in spatial processing. 88. Your teenage son describes a new male classmate as "pretty weird." He tells you that this classmate "looks more like a girl than a boy" because he's not growing facial hair like other boys. He also says that the classmate seems to have difficulties reading and that a lot of kids don't like him. Of the following, which is most likely to be true? A) Your son's new classmate is an XX male. B) Your son's new classmate is an XY female. C) Your son's new classmate is an XXY male. D) Your son's new classmate has Klinefelter syndrome. Answer: D) Your son's new classmate has Klinefelter syndrome. The characteristics of Klinefelter syndrome include learning problems, shyness, and social immaturity. 89. Which of the following sex chromosome abnormalities is due to an extra or missing chromosome? A) Klinefelter syndrome B) XXY syndrome C) Turner syndrome D) all of the above Answer: D) all of the above 90. The doctor explains to Rita that at her next appointment a technician will use an instrument that sends sounds waves through the abdomen to produce an image of internal structures. This technique is referred to as A) ultrasonography. B) amniocentesis. C) positron emission tomography. D) chorionic villus sampling. Answer: A) ultrasonography. During an ultrasound test, a technician uses an instrument that sends sound waves into the mother’s abdomen. 91. Which of the following procedures is NOT commonly utilized to detect genetic diseases during pregnancy? A) ultrasonography B) amniocentesis C) positron emission tomography D) chorionic villus sampling Answer: C) positron emission tomography 92. An instrument that sends sound waves into the mother's abdomen to produce an image of the fetus is called A) ultrasonography B) amniocentesis C) positron emission tomography D) chorionic villus sampling Answer: A) ultrasonography 93. A procedure used to detect genetic abnormalities in a fetus by extracting fetal cells from the amniotic fluid is called A) ultrasonography B) amniocentesis C) positron emission tomography D) chorionic villus sampling Answer: B) amniocentesis 94. Amniocentesis can be conducted after A) the zygote has divided more than twice. B) the 4th week of pregnancy C) the 14th week of pregnancy. D) the birth of the baby. Answer: C) the 14th week of pregnancy. 95. All of the following are possible complications of amniocentesis EXCEPT A) early labor contractions. B) miscarriage. C) changing the sex of the baby. D) bacterial infection from the needle. Answer: C) changing the sex of the baby. 96. Chorionic villus sampling works because the chorionic villus A) eventually forms the zygote, so the chromosomes and genetic codes are the same as those in the fetus will be. B) originates from the zygote, so the chromosomes and genetic codes are the same as those in the fetus. C) allows the mother and baby to share the same blood supply. D) contains all of the developing fetus's DNA and chromosomes. Answer: B) originates from the zygote, so the chromosomes and genetic codes are the same as those in the fetus. 97. The procedure used to detect chromosomal and genetic abnormalities in the fetus by removing cells from a layer of the placenta is called A) an ultrasound. B) an fMRI. C) amniocentesis. D) chorionic villus sampling. Answer: D) chorionic villus sampling. 98. Which of the following prenatal screening methods results in an image of the fetus’ chromosomes? A) ultrasound B) amniocentesis C) chorionic villus sampling D) amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling Answer: D) amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling 99. Toby was exposed to lead paint in his home when he was very young. If this exposure to a toxic chemical impacts his development, the impact would be due to _____________ causes. A) genetic B) environmental C) canalization D) niche-picking Answer: B) environmental Environmental influences include both social and physical factors that shape the course of development. 100. The G x E interaction refers to the ways in which A) nature combines with nurture to produce a given outcome. B) genetics and education work together to produce intelligence in a child. C) a given outcome is multiplied by an expected outcome in a child's behavior. D) the range of possible phenotypes exist for a particular genotype. Answer: A) nature combines with nurture to produce a given outcome. 101. The G x E interaction describes how development is influenced by the interaction of A) genetics and evolution. B) nature and nurture. C) genetics and ethology. D) geography and environment. Answer: B) nature and nurture. The “G” represents biology, and in particular, genetic influences (nature), while the “E” represents the physical and social environment (nurture). 102, The genetic code that a person inherits is called A) a karyotype. B) a genotype. C) a phenotype. D) canalization. Answer: B) a genotype. 103. _____________ is the observable trait that a child shows. A) A karyotype B) A genotype C) A phenotype D) Canalization Answer: C) A phenotype 104. Which of the following is an example of a phenotype? A) an extra X chromosome B) a mutation on chromosome 7 C) an IQ of 117 D) an allele on chromosome 4 for red hair color Answer: C) an IQ of 117 105. The range of possible phenotypes that exist for a particular genotype is called A) a karyotype. B) canalization. C) a G x E interaction. D) a range of reaction. Answer: D) a range of reaction. 106. Joseph was born with Down syndrome. The range of possible IQs that he is likely to develop is _____________ that of a typical child. A) smaller than B) larger than C) equal to D) unknown compared to Answer: A) smaller than. A major characteristic of Down syndrome is low IQ that is not strongly influenced or affected by the environment. 107. In Waddington’s “landscape,” the shape of the landscape (e.g., the height and width of the pathways) is determined by A) the environment. B) dominant traits. C) genetics. D) social interaction with the primary caretaker. Answer: C) genetics. Genetics determines the range of possible outcomes, and the amount of influence that the environment can have on the particular developmental path that is followed. 108. In Waddington’s “landscape,” _____________ influences the particular path that is taken during development. A) the environment B) the child’s genotype C) mitosis D) crossing-over Answer: A) the environment The environment serves as a force that “moves” the individual around within the developmental landscape. 109. Which of the following concepts places the heaviest emphasis on genetic determinism? A) canalization B) experiential canalization C) niche-picking D) probabilistic epigenesis Answer: A) canalization A canalized trait or characteristic is one that is strongly influenced by genetics. 110. Which of the following statements regarding the concept of reaction range is TRUE? A) Reaction range allows researchers to predict the phenotype that will be displayed by specific children. B) Reaction range is a theoretical concept that is helpful in understanding how genes and environment interact. C) Reaction range allows researchers to calculate all of the possible outcomes for any psychological characteristic. D) Reaction range helps explain how genes influence the choices children make in selecting their environments. Answer: B) Reaction range is a theoretical concept that is helpful in understanding how genes and environment interact. Reaction range helps provide an explanation for how a single genotype can result in a range of possible phenotypes, depending on the influence of the environment and the G x E interaction. 111. _____________ is the genetic limits on the effects of the environment. A) A karyotype B) A genotype C) A phenotype D) Canalization Answer: D) Canalization 112. Which of the following is the BEST example of canalization? A) Jon and Jerry, MZ twins reared in highly different environments, have different temperaments as adults. B) Terry and May, who both have brown eyes, are the biological parents of Jessica, who has brilliant blue eyes. C) Regardless of when they are born, all human infants smile at exactly forty weeks after their conception. D) Keith, an XYY male, is tall for his age, of average intelligence, and currently having behavioral problems in school. Answer: C) Regardless of when they are born, all human infants smile at exactly forty weeks after their conception. A universal or widespread developmental outcome, which typically does not vary across environments, fits the pattern of canalization. 113. The concept of resiliency—that some children grow up in challenging environments (e.g., violence, poverty, etc.) but still manage to develop normally—suggests that genetic limits may protect the individual from some negative environments. This protective influence of the genes is a form of A) shared environment. B) canalization. C) the dominant-recessive relationship. D) niche-picking. Answer: B) canalization. An advantage of canalized traits is that they resist the influence of negative environments, and therefore promote resiliency. 114. Genetic determinism is a theory that states that A) environmental conditions must be strong to change an individual's developmental path. B) genetic conditions must be strong to change an individual's developmental path. C) the range of possible phenotypes that exist for a particular genotype depends upon stimulation. D) that developmental potential is determined by the stimulation in the child's environment. Answer: A) environmental conditions must be strong to change an individual's developmental path. 115. Until about one year of age, infants respond similarly to the basic sounds used in all languages. After that, they can detect subtle differences in language sounds only in their native language. Which of the following theories best supports this phenomenon? A) canalization B) experiential canalization C) genetic determinism D) probabilistic epigenesis Answer: B) experiential canalization The concept of experiential canalization is that genetics provides a wide range of development outcomes, and the environment plays the limiting role. 116. According to Gilbert Gottlieb’s concept of experiential canalization, _____________ provides a wide range of developmental outcomes, while _____________ plays the limiting role. A) meiosis; mitosis B) nurture; nature C) genetics; the environment D) genotype; phenotype Answer: C) genetics; the environment In contrast to the notion of genetic determinism, Gottlieb suggests that the environment may have a strong influence on developmental outcomes. 117. During infancy, genes primarily operate in a _____________ manner. A) passive B) active C) evocative D) probabilistic Answer: A) passive An infant’s environment is almost totally controlled by his or her parents. 118. Juanita, a 6-month-old infant, has parents who are outgoing and socialize frequently with friends and neighbors. Juanita’s parents create the chance for her to interact with many different people. As a result, she also develops a personality that is similar to her parents. This example illustrates the _____________ form of G x E interaction. A) genetic B) evocative C) active D) passive Answer: D) passive As an infant, Juanita has little influence on her environment and is exposed to the kinds of influences that her family tends to select. 119. When genetics play an "evocative" role in development, this means that the child's genetic tendencies A) constrict a child's range of reaction in a given situation. B) reduce the amount of G x E interaction that takes place. C) increases the likelihood that specific genes will become activated in a child's phenotype. D) bring about certain responses from parents and others. Answer: D) bring about certain responses from parents and others. An evocative G x E interaction means that genetic predispositions in the child tend to lead to particular reactions from others. 120. _____________ is the tendency to select activities and environments that fit with our genetic predispositions. A) Canalization B) Experiential canalization C) Niche-picking D) Probabilistic epigenesis Answer: C) Niche-picking 121. Fifteen-year-old Jacob loves bluegrass music. He bought himself a used banjo with money he saved and regularly plays music with a local band. He keeps in contact with other musicians through the Internet and plans to move to Nashville when he graduates from high school. Jacob's behavior illustrates the A) active role of his genetic code. B) concept of niche-picking. C) evocative role of his genetic code. D) both A and B Answer: D) both A and B Jacob is actively selecting and participating in his own environmental experiences. 122. When Fred was a toddler, he began to scribble intensely with his crayons on every piece of scrap paper he was given. His parents thought that Fred showed a lot of aptitude as an artist and encouraged him to keep "drawing" by buying him paint sets, art books, and other artistic gifts for every birthday and holiday. Fred's parents response to his early behavior illustrates the A) evocative role of his genetic code. B) active role of his genetic code. C) passive role of his genetic code. D) concept of niche-picking. Answer: A) evocative role of his genetic code. Fred’s behavior evoked in his parents a tendency to support his emerging interests in drawing. 123. Niche-picking illustrates which form of the G x E interaction? A) passive B) active C) latent D) evocative Answer: B) active Niche-picking is an example of actively selecting a particular environment. 124. During _____________, a trait, characteristic, or behavior emerges over the course of development. A) meiosis B) epigenesis C) canalization D) fertilization Answer: B) epigenesis 125. _____________ is the likelihood that specific environmental conditions will activate specific genes that lead to particular traits or behavioral outcomes. A) Canalization B) Experiential canalization C) Niche-picking D) Probabilistic epigenesis Answer: D) Probabilistic epigenesis 126. Which of the following statements regarding probabilistic epigenesis is FALSE? A) Only about 10-15% of an individual's total genetic code is made active. B) A person's environment determines which parts of the genetic code are made active. C) Environmental changes can cause the activation of genes that are normally dormant. D) Genetic alterations caused by the environment cannot be passed on to offspring. Answer: D) Genetic alterations caused by the environment cannot be passed on to offspring. There is some evidence that changes in gene expression (caused by the environment) can be inherited. 127. Which of the following is an example given in your text of behavioral evolution as a result of probabilistic epigenesis? A) salamanders having five legs B) birds developing teeth C) humans lacking thumbs D) cats growing two tails Answer: B) birds developing teeth 128. Heritability means A) the degree of genetic influence on a given trait. B) experiences of the environment that are common to all individuals. C) experiences of the environment that are common to all individuals who are living together. D) experiences of the environment that differ across people. Answer: A) the degree of genetic influence on a given trait. 129. Which of the following statements regarding heritability estimates is FALSE? A) Higher values of heritability estimates indicate stronger environmental influence. B) Theoretically, it is possible for heritability estimates to be as high as 1.0. C) Heritability estimates over .50 generally are considered fairly high. D) Complex traits never show heritability estimates as high as 1.0. Answer: A) Higher values of heritability estimates indicate stronger environmental influence. Higher values of heritability indicate stronger genetic influence. 130. Which of the following heritability estimates indicates the strongest genetic influence? A) Heritability estimate for attitudes toward racial integration is .06. B) Heritability estimate for religiosity is .22. C) Heritability estimate for IQ is .50. D) Heritability estimate for height is .90. Answer: D) Heritability estimate for height is .90. Heritability varies from 0 to 1, with 1 reflecting the strongest possible influence of genetics. 131. Traits with high heritability estimates provide support for the concept of A) canalization. B) genetic determinism. C) X-linked traits. D) both A and B Answer: D) both A and B A trait that is highly heritable does not tend to vary across environments and may therefore by canalized (i.e., strongly influenced by genetic factors). 132. Heritability estimates can range from: A) -1.0 to +1.0 B) -1.0 to 0 C) 0 to +1.0 D) 0 to +2.0 Answer: C) 0 to +1.0 133. A heritability estimate of 0 means that variation in the trait being measured A) is determined by the genes. B) can be attributed to differences in the environment. C) cannot be reliably estimated. D) can be explained by genetic variation in the population. Answer: B) can be attributed to differences in the environment. A heritability estimate of 0 indicates no variation in the trait can be linked to variations in genes across people. 134. Shared environment means A) the degree of genetic influence on a given trait. B) experiences of the environment that are common to all individuals. C) experiences of the environment that are common to all individuals who are living together. D) experiences of the environment that differ across people. Answer: C) experiences of the environment that are common to all individuals who are living together. 135. Nonshared environment means A) the degree of genetic influence on a given trait. B) experiences of the environment that are common to all individuals. C) experiences of the environment that are common to all individuals who are living together. D) experiences of the environment that differ across people. Answer: D) experiences of the environment that differ across people. 136. Jack and Jill are siblings being raised in a very active household. The family attends many sporting events and participates in a wide range of athletic activities. Which of the following would be the BEST example of a nonshared environment? A) When they were toddlers, the family went on a five-day backpacking trip to Yellowstone. B) Their parents enforce a strict, daily regimen of at least thirty minutes of vigorous exercise. C) Their financial status allows the family to travel to upscale events, such as the Indianapolis 500 and the running of the bulls in Pamplona. D) Jack, a Special Olympian with Down syndrome, needs certain accommodations to participate in family sporting activities. Answer: D) Jack, a Special Olympian with Down syndrome, needs certain accommodations to participate in family sporting activities. Jack’s experiences during sporting activities differ from those of his sister. 137. Imagine that a researcher measures a specific psychological characteristic (SPC) in pairs of siblings who are being reared together. She finds a correlation of .15 between pairs of adopted siblings who are biologically unrelated, a correlation of .63 for fraternal twins, and a correlation of .92 for identical twins. These results suggest that A) compared to the impact of the environment, genetics contributes relatively little to variability in the SPC. B) the shared environment contributes greatly to the variability in the SPC only among the identical twins. C) both the environment and genetics contribute substantially to the variability in the SPC. D) relative to the influence of genetics, the environment contributes relatively little to variability in the SPC. Answer: D) relative to the influence of genetics, the environment contributes relatively little to variability in the SPC. Increasingly strong, positive correlations for a trait, as a function of genetic relatedness, indicate that the trait has a significant genetic component. 138. Twin studies make comparisons between the measurements of A) identical twins only. B) nonidentical twins only. C) identical twins and nonidentical twins. D) identical twins, nonidentical twins, and nontwin siblings. Answer: C) identical twins and nonidentical twins. 139. Adoption studies estimate the genetic contribution to a given trait by studying A) adopted children only. B) adopted children and their biological family. C) adopted children, their biological family, and their adoptive parents. D) none of the above. Answer: D) none of the above. 140. One of the primary reasons that behavior geneticists study identical twins is because they are A) usually reared within the same family. B) generally treated similarly by the people around them. C) more likely to engage in active niche-picking. D) more genetically similar than other biological siblings. Answer: D) more genetically similar than other biological siblings. Identical or monozygotic twins share 100% of their genetic material. 141. If there is an important genetic influence on a given trait, then the correlation for _____________ should be significantly higher than the correlation for _____________ A) MZ twins; DZ twins B) DZ twins; nontwin siblings C) mother-child; father-child D) nontwin siblings; MZ twins Answer: A) MZ twins; DZ twins MZ twins Share 100% of their genes, while DZ twins share 50%. For heritable traits, therefore, it is more likely that the trait will be correlated across MZ twins. 142. Sally is participating in an adoption study. Sally was adopted when she was seven months old. Her biological family could be characterized as Caucasian, middle-class, from an urban setting in the northeastern United States. She was placed with an adoptive family that could be characterized as being Caucasian, middle-class, from an urban setting in the northeastern United States. Sally's adoption presents what potential problem for the researchers of the adoption study? A) heritability B) probabilistic epigenesis C) selective placement D) equal environnent Answer: C) selective placement Sally has been placed with an adoptive family that was specifically chosen to be similar to her biological family. This makes it difficult to separate the influences of genes versus environment on her development. 143. In adoption studies, the phenomenon of selective placement means that A) children are permitted to select their adoptive parents. B) children may be placed with adoptive parents that are similar to the biological parents. C) the biological parents are permitted to select the adoptive parents. D) children are randomly matched to adoptive parents. Answer: B) children may be placed with adoptive parents that are similar to the biological parents. Adoption agencies may tend to place a child with an adoptive family that is similar in important ways to the child’s biological family. 144. _____________ is the assumption in twin studies that the environment for identical twins is the same as nonidentical twins. A) Heritability B) Probabilistic epigenesis C) Selective placement D) Equal environnements Answer: D) Equal environments 145. In terms of heritability estimates for certain traits and characteristics, which of the following traits is NOT considered to be a characteristic of temperament? A) processing speed B) anxiety C) masculinity/femininity D) belief in God Answer: A) processing speed 146. Which of the following cognitive skills has the highest heritability estimate? A) spatial reasoning B) general intelligence C) English usage D) processing speed Answer: B) general intelligence 147. Which of the following psychological disorders has the highest heritability estimate? A) bipolar disorder B) schizophrenia C) autism spectrum disorders D) hyperactivity (adolescent males) Answer: C) autism spectrum disorders 148. Behavior geneticists generally estimate the heritability of IQ is about A) 0. B) .20. C) .35. D) .50. Answer: D) .50. 149. Several studies have shown that heritability estimates for some cognitive skills _____________ with age. A) decrease B) are not correlated with C) increase D) first increase, and then decrease Answer: C) increase 150. Which of the following concepts may explain how the relative influence of genetics on cognitive skills appears to become stronger the older a person gets? A) dominant-recessive relationship B) niche-picking C) shared environment D) epigenesis Answer: B) niche-picking The older an individual becomes, the more their active selection of specific environments (which is genetically influenced) shapes their development. 151. Which of the following traits is NOT characterized as an aspect of temperament? A) anxiety B) sociability C) emotionality D) intelligence Answer: D) intelligence 152. _____________ is a child's activity level and pattern of response to stimulation. A) Intelligence B) Temperament C) Hyperactivity D) Impulsivity Answer: B) Temperament 2.2 True/False Questions 1. Genes are molecules that dictate how our cells develop and coordinate to form the human body. Answer: True 2. It takes approximately 90 percent of the nucleotide base pairs to provide active instructions. Answer: False 3. Research on artificial insemination and in vitro fertilization (Golombok, et al.) has found that there are more developmental problems when children are conceived by these methods. Answer: False 4. Sperm can be collected and frozen and are still viable, even if thawed several years later. Answer: True 5. Research on artificial insemination and in vitro fertilization (Golombok, et al.) has found that mothers who use these techniques tend to be warmer and more involved with their children compared to other mothers. Answer: True 6. Mitosis is the type of cell division used to create gametes. Answer: False 7. When women take fertility drugs when they are having difficulty conceiving, most of the twins born while on these drugs are identical twins. Answer: False 8. Scientists refer to identical twins as monozygotic twins. Answer: True 9. Dizygotic twinning occurs more often in Asian populations than in African populations. Answer: False 10. Scientists have completed their mapping and positioning of the order of 3 billion pairs of nucleotide bases in the human genome. Answer: False 11. Mutations that occur in an individual's genetic code may be passed down to the next generation. Answer: True 12. Huntington’s disease is the most common example of a recessive gene disease. Answer: False 13. Cystic fibrosis is the most common example of a recessive gene disorder. Answer: True 14. Abnormalities in the structure or number of whole chromosomes are present in 1 of every 160 live births. Answer: True 15. A karyotype is the genetic code a person inherits. Answer: False 16. Amniocentesis can be conducted after the 8th week of pregnancy. Answer: False 17. One way that a child's genes interact with the environment is by affecting the kinds of environments that are available. Answer: True 18. It is the individual's environment that controls which parts of the genome are activated, according to the probabilistic epigenesis theory. Answer: True 19. The higher the value of a heritability estimate is, the stronger the environmental influence on that trait or behavior. Answer: False 20. Researchers have calculated the vast majority of personality heritability estimates based on self-report or parent-report questionnaires. Answer: True 2.3 Short Answer Questions 1. There are _____________ pairs of chromosomes. Answer: 23 2. _____________ always pairs with thymine. Answer: Adenine 3. _____________ always pairs with guanine. Answer: Cytosine 4. When the sperm and egg cells join, chromosomes from the father and mother combine to give the embryo unique versions of particular genes called _____________. Answer: alleles 5. _____________ is the type of cell division that occurs when chromosomes are copied into each new cell. Answer: Mitosis 6. _____________ is the type of cell division that occurs during the formation of gametes. Answer: Meiosis 7. The _____________ is a multinational effort by governments and scientists to map the 3 billion pairs of nucleotide bases and genes in humans. Answer: Human Genome Project 8. _____________ , also called Down syndrome, is a genetic disorder that occurs when there is an extra 21st chromosome. Answer: Trisomy 21 9. The _____________ refers to the ways in which nature combines with nurture to produce a given outcome. Answer: G x E interaction 10. _____________ states that the environment limits the expression of genes. Answer: Experiential canalization 11. _____________ refers to the way that genes limit developmental outcomes. Answer: Canalization 12. Heritability estimates range from 0.00 to _____________. Answer: 1.00 2.4 Essay Questions 1. Understanding human genes and their specific combinations and expressions is very important in understanding the nature and behavior of a child. Define the term DNA and explain the four different varieties of nucleotide base molecules that are a part of it. Be sure to discuss how these molecules pair together and create the larger sequences that make up our individual genetic codes. Answer: Students' answers will vary but should include an understanding that DNA is the two strands of molecules that twist around each other, connected by a series of nucleotide bases. These bases (adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine) pair together (A with T and G with C) to create approximately 3 billion pairs of nucleotide bases that make up the genetic code (genome), which is a set of instructions that determines which traits are inherited Understanding DNA and Nucleotide Base Molecules DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) : DNA is a molecule that carries the genetic instructions used in the growth, development, functioning, and reproduction of all living organisms and many viruses. It consists of two long strands forming a double helix, held together by bonds between pairs of nucleotides. Nucleotide Bases : DNA is composed of four types of nucleotide base molecules: 1. Adenine (A) 2. Thymine (T) 3. Cytosine (C) 4. Guanine (G) Base Pairing Adenine (A) pairs with Thymine (T) through two hydrogen bonds. Cytosine (C) pairs with Guanine (G) through three hydrogen bonds. These base pairs form the "rungs" of the DNA double helix ladder. The sequence of these base pairs encodes the genetic information, creating the larger sequences that make up our individual genetic codes. The specific order of these nucleotides determines the genetic instructions for building and maintaining an organism. 2. Your textbook listed five alternative techniques for conception. Define three of these techniques and then compare and contrast the procedures used in each to achieve conception. Answer: Students' answers will vary depending upon which of the alternative techniques for conception that they wish to discuss. Alternative Techniques for Conception 1. In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) Definition: IVF involves retrieving eggs from a woman's ovaries and fertilizing them with sperm in a laboratory. The fertilized egg (embryo) is then transferred to the woman's uterus. Procedure: Stimulation of the ovaries to produce multiple eggs. Retrieval of eggs from the ovaries. Fertilization of eggs with sperm in a lab. Cultivation of embryos and transfer of the best quality embryo(s) into the uterus. 2. Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) Definition: ICSI is a specialized form of IVF where a single sperm is injected directly into an egg to facilitate fertilization. Procedure: Similar to IVF, eggs are retrieved from the woman. A single sperm is selected and injected into each retrieved egg. The fertilized egg (embryo) is cultured and then transferred to the uterus. 3. Artificial Insemination (AI) Definition: AI involves directly inserting sperm into a woman's cervix, fallopian tubes, or uterus to facilitate fertilization. Procedure: Collection of sperm from a partner or donor. Processing of sperm to concentrate it. Insertion of sperm into the woman’s reproductive tract during ovulation. Comparison and Contrast IVF vs. ICSI: Similarity: Both involve the retrieval of eggs and laboratory fertilization. Difference: In IVF, eggs and sperm are mixed together to allow natural fertilization, while in ICSI, a single sperm is directly injected into each egg. IVF vs. AI: Similarity: Both aim to facilitate fertilization and conception. Difference: IVF involves external fertilization and embryo transfer, while AI involves direct insertion of sperm into the reproductive tract without external fertilization. ICSI vs. AI: Similarity: Both involve handling sperm to achieve fertilization. Difference: ICSI includes direct injection of sperm into an egg in a lab setting, whereas AI involves placing sperm into the woman’s reproductive tract to meet the egg naturally. In summary, IVF and ICSI are more complex and involve laboratory fertilization techniques, while AI is a simpler procedure involving the direct placement of sperm into the woman's reproductive system. 3. In order to appreciate the impact of genetic inheritance on development, it is important to understand the process of cell division. Explain what a zygote is and then describe the processes of mitosis and meiosis that take place in the developing organism. Answer: A zygote is the human organism after the fertilized egg cell begins to divide. These divisions take place in two ways: mitosis and meiosis. Mitosis is the type of cell division that occurs when chromosomes are copied into each new cell. During this division, the DNA material on each chromosome "unzips." The weak bonds between the nucleotide bases on opposite sides of the staircase break. It forms two new strands that then link up with the two old strands and wrap up again to make two new chromosomes. Meiosis is the type of cell division that occurs during the formation of gametes (or sperm and eggs). This process reduces the number of chromosomes in these cells from 46 to 23. 4. The Human Genome Project (HGP) has been a gigantic scientific undertaking, which has caused amazing developments in the fields related to child psychology. Explain the nature, purpose, and work product of the Human Genome Project. Then, discuss the impact of the findings of the HGP on pregnancy choices, disease therapy, and ethical dilemmas surrounding its use. Answer: Students' answers will vary depending on what aspects they choose to discuss. The Human Genome Project (HGP) Nature: The Human Genome Project (HGP) was an international scientific research initiative launched in the 1990s to map and sequence all the genes of the human genome. Purpose: The primary goal of the HGP was to provide a complete and accurate sequence of the 3 billion DNA base pairs that make up the human genome. This information aimed to advance understanding of human biology, health, and disease. Work Product: The main work product of the HGP was the creation of a detailed map and sequence of the human genome, identifying and mapping all genes and their functions. This monumental achievement provided a foundational resource for biomedical research. Impact of HGP Findings 1. Pregnancy Choices: • Genetic Testing: HGP findings enabled the development of prenatal genetic testing, allowing parents to screen for genetic disorders in embryos or fetuses. • Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis (PGD): HGP facilitated PGD, where embryos created through IVF are screened for genetic defects before implantation, enabling parents to make informed decisions about embryo selection. 2. Disease Therapy: • Personalized Medicine: HGP paved the way for personalized medicine based on individual genetic profiles, allowing for tailored therapies and treatments. • Gene Therapy: HGP findings contributed to advancements in gene therapy, where defective genes are replaced or modified to treat genetic disorders. 3. Ethical Dilemmas: • Privacy and Genetic Information: The availability of genetic information raises concerns about privacy and confidentiality, particularly regarding the potential misuse or discrimination based on genetic data. • Ethical Use of Genetic Testing: There are ethical debates surrounding the use of genetic testing for non-medical purposes, such as testing for traits or characteristics. In summary, the Human Genome Project revolutionized biology and medicine by providing a comprehensive map of the human genome. Its impact extends to pregnancy choices through genetic testing, advancements in disease therapy like personalized medicine and gene therapy, and ethical considerations regarding privacy and the use of genetic information. 5. Chromosome abnormalities can cause a number of serious genetic defects in children. One such defect is Down syndrome. Define Down syndrome and outline what causes this disorder. Then, discuss the physical and intellectual effects that this genetic disorder has on the developing child. Finally, describe the number one possible risk factor for giving birth to a Down syndrome child. Answer: Down syndrome, also called trisomy 21, occurs when babies are born with an extra 21st chromosome. Individuals with Down syndrome typically have a flattened nose, tightened eyelids, low-set ears, and short neck. They also are short in stature have short and broad hands, and tend to have heart problems and a shortened life span. Also, people with Down syndrome have mental retardation with IQs typically between 25 and 50. In 95 percent of Down syndrome cases, the extra 21st chromosome exists because the 21st chromosome pair did not separate normally when the egg was formed. The number one risk factor for giving birth to a Down syndrome child is to become pregnant after age 35. 6. Tina was having trouble conceiving a child. She went to the doctor to determine if she could have a child. After running some blood tests, it was determined that Tina has Turner syndrome. Explain what Turner syndrome is and then determine whether or not Tina is fertile. Answer: Students' answers will vary but should contain an understanding of the following: Turner syndrome is a sex chromosome abnormality, where girls are missing one of their X chromosomes. It occurs in roughly 1/2,000 females. It results in a short stature, webbed neck, broad shoulders, spatial perception and motor skill deficits, as well as a range of other health problems. Individuals with Turner syndrome are infertile, so Tina will not be able to conceive a child naturally. Turner Syndrome and Fertility Turner Syndrome: Turner syndrome is a genetic condition that occurs in females when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is partially or completely missing. Instead of the typical XX chromosome pair, affected individuals often have only one X chromosome (45,X) or may have another variation where the second X chromosome is altered. Fertility in Turner Syndrome: • Ovarian Function: Many individuals with Turner syndrome have ovarian dysgenesis, which means their ovaries do not develop properly. This can lead to infertility due to a lack of eggs or poor quality eggs. • Pregnancy: While natural conception is rare in women with Turner syndrome, it is not impossible. Some women with Turner syndrome may have spontaneous pregnancies, especially those with mosaic Turner syndrome (where some cells have two X chromosomes). Conclusion: Based on the typical presentation of Turner syndrome, Tina is likely to have reduced fertility due to ovarian dysgenesis. However, fertility options such as egg donation or adoption may still be viable paths for her to consider if she wishes to have a child. 7. In order to complete genetic testing during pregnancy, there are two ways that fetal cells can be collected. Name each of these two procedures and explain the difference between the two ways that the cells are extracted and what type of cells each procedure is attempting to procure. Answer: Students' answers will vary but should contain an understanding of the following: With amniocentesis, a needle is inserted through the mother's abdomen and into the amniotic sac. Amniotic fluid is withdrawn, containing cells sloughed off from the fetus. With chorionic villus sampling (CVS), either a catheter is inserted through the vagina and into the uterus to take placental villus cells or the villus cells are extracted using a needle inserted into the placenta. Genetic Testing During Pregnancy: Methods of Fetal Cell Collection 1. Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS) • Procedure: CVS involves collecting cells from the chorionic villi, which are tiny finger-like projections on the placenta. • Cell Type: The cells collected during CVS are fetal cells derived from the placenta. 2. Amniocentesis • Procedure: Amniocentesis involves collecting amniotic fluid from the amniotic sac surrounding the fetus. • Cell Type: The cells collected during amniocentesis include fetal cells that are naturally shed into the amniotic fluid, as well as cells from the placenta that may be present in the fluid. Difference between Procedures CVS: Cells are obtained by inserting a thin tube through the cervix or by a needle through the abdomen into the placenta. The procedure is typically performed between 10-13 weeks of pregnancy. Amniocentesis: Cells are obtained by inserting a thin needle through the abdomen into the uterus to withdraw a small amount of amniotic fluid. This procedure is usually performed between 15-20 weeks of pregnancy. In both procedures, the collected fetal cells are used for genetic testing to assess the presence of genetic disorders or chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. 8. In the course of development, one of the ways that a child's genes interact with the environment is by affecting the kinds of environments that are available. One example of this process is the concept of niche-picking. Define niche-picking and then elaborate on how genetics operate in a passive, evocative, and active manner. Answer: Niche-picking is the tendency to pick activities and environments that fit with our genetic predispositions. During infancy, genes primarily operate in a passive manner. At this stage, the infant's environment is almost totally controlled by his or her parents. However, the child and the parents share many genes, so the home environment is usually consistent with and supportive of the child's genes. As the child gets older, genes play a more evocative role. This means that the child's genetic tendencies evoke certain responses from parents and others. These responses are evoked by and tend to support the child's genetic tendencies. Finally, as children get older and have more freedom to choose their own activities, genes work in an active way. Older children can actively seek out the specific niches, or activities and environments that suit them best. 2.5 MyDevelopmentLab Questions 1. Briefly describe the number of chromosomes in a human cell and how chromosomes are related to genes. Next, continue your description by explaining how dominant and recessive traits can be understood through the interaction of genes. Answer: All cells in the body, other than the sex cells, have 46 chromosomes. The sex cells, or gametes (eggs for women, and sperm for men), have 23 chromosomes. After conception, the fertilized egg has 46 chromosomes. Each chromosome is divided into a set of functional units called genes. For most traits, an offspring inherits two genes (one on each pair of chromosomes). Dominant genes are always expressed, while recessive genes are only expressed when the offspring inherits two copies of the recessive gene. 2. How will completion of the Human Genome Project affect you? Answer: While there are no immediate benefits from the completion of the Human Genome Project, potential long-term implications include more personalized medical treatments, such as customized drugs, as well as rapid advances in gene therapies. 3. Describe “junk DNA” and how ongoing genetic studies may help reveal how it functions in important ways. Answer: Less than 2% of human DNA has an identified role. The remaining DNA is called “junk DNA,” as it appears to serve no obvious purpose. However, recent research has found that long stretches of junk DNA are shared by humans and other animals, such as mice. This finding suggests that this DNA is not unimportant, but that it may in fact play a valuable role in biological functions such as aging or disease. Test Bank for The World of Children Joan Littlefield Cook, Greg Cook 9780205953738
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