CH-2 Genetics and Prenatal Development – Human Development: A Cultural Approach : Exam Guide

Chapter 2 Genetics and Prenatal Development Section 1 Genetic Influence on Development Test Item File Multiple Choice Questions 1. The human body contains how many chromosomes? A. 23 B. 46 C. 69 D. 92 Answer: B 2. The average human cell has _______________ chromosomes. A. 42 B. 46 C. 23 D. 26 Answer: B 3. How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have? A. 23 B. 46 C. 69 D. 92 Answer: A 4. How many chromosomes from each pair of chromosomes are generally inherited from the father? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: A 5. According to the text, chromosomes are composed of complex molecules known as _______________. A. nucleotides B. genes C. DNA D. RNA Answer: C. DNA Correct: DNA is a long strand of cell material that stores and transfers genetic information. A. nucleotides Incorrect: The complex molecules are known as DNA. 6. Chromosomes are composed of complex molecules known as _______________. A. DNA B. nucleotide pairs C. genetic D. dominant recessive Answer: A 7. Chromosomes are organized into segments called _______________. A. DNA B. RNA C. genes D. nucleotides Answer: C. genes Correct: Genes are segments of DNA that contain coded instructions for the growth and functioning of an organism. A. DNA Incorrect: The segments are called genes. 8. Genes contain paired sequences of chemicals called _______________. A. genes B. RNA C. DNA D. nucleotides Answer: D 9. Genes are made of _______________. A. protein segments B. nucleotides C. fatty cells D. chromosomes Answer: B 10. Approximately how many genes comprise the human genome? A. 10,000 B. 23,000 C. 50,000 D. 100,000 Answer: B 11. How many nucleotide pairs comprise the human genome? A. 100,000 B. 150 million C. 3 billion D. 5 trillion Answer: C 12. The totality of an individual’s genes is referred to as his or her _______________. A. phenotype B. genotype C. inheritance D. environment Answer: B 13. An individual’s complete genetic makeup is his or her _______________. A. genotype B. phenotype C. allele D. reaction range Answer: A 14. A person’s _______________ is/are their genetic makeup, whereas a person’s _______________ is/are their characteristics. A. phenotype; genotype B. genotype; phenotype C. nucelotides; DNA D. DNA; nucleotides Answer: B 15. The expression of an individual’s genetic material is referred to as his or her _______________. A. phenotype B. genotype C. inheritance D. environment Answer: A 16. A person’s characteristics are known as his or her _______________. A. phenotype B. genotype C. chromosomes D. DNA Answer: A 17. The difference between an individual’s genotype and its expression in his or her phenotype is a consequence of the person’s _______________. A. genes B. DNA C. environment D. parents Answer: C 18. Fred was born into a family with high musical talent. Both his parents were professional musicians who encouraged and fostered his musical development. Throughout childhood he practiced the guitar whenever he could and eventually became a professional musician himself. Which of the following best describes Fred’s genotype? A. Fred’s musical genes B. Fred’s musical talent C. Fred’s nurturing parents D. Fred’s musical genes and musical talent Answer: A. Fred’s musical genes Correct: One’s genotype is his or her complete genetic makeup. B. Fred’s musical talent Incorrect: Musical talent is the characteristic, or the phenotype. 19. Jill’s mother was an All-American in the 1,500m and qualified for the Olympic team in the marathon. Jill is a freshman in high school and does not think that she will need to train to become a member of the school’s cross country team. Jill keeps telling you that her mother was a great runner, so she will also be a great runner. What do you think? A. She is correct; she will be a great runner no matter what she does. B. It is unlikely that Jill even has the genotype for running. C. Jill might have the genotype for running ability, but she will need to train become a great runner. D. Jill has also inherited the genes for superior intelligence. Answer: C. Jill might have the genotype for running ability, but she will need to train become a great runner. Correct: The athletic ability that may be present in Jill’s genotype will not express itself if she does nothing to encourage it, such as training. A. She is correct; she will be a great runner no matter what she does. Incorrect: Jill will need to train to become a great runner; that is, she will need to interact with the environment to express those genes. 20. Alejandro was born into a family with high musical talent. Both his parents were professional musicians who encouraged and fostered his musical development. Throughout childhood he practiced the guitar whenever he could and eventually became a professional musician himself. Which of the following best describes Alejandro’s phenotype? A. Alejandro’s musical genes B. Alejandro’s musical talent C. Alejandro’s nurturing parents D. Alejandro’s practice of the guitar Answer: C. Alejandro’s nurturing parents Correct: Alejandro’s genotype includes exceptional musical ability, but it’s his parents’ support of this ability that encouraged those genes to be expressed. A. Alejandro’s musical genes Incorrect: Alejandro’s musical genes are his genotype. 21. Thomas’s biological mother and father are both gifted athletes. He was adopted by a couple who had no interest in him being involved in sports. Although Thomas likely inherited athletic ability, it was never expressed in his _______________. A. genotype B. phenotype C. genes D. alleles Answer: B. phenotype Correct: Thomas likely inherited his biological parents’ genotype, but his adoptive parents’ disinterest in sports likely inhibited the development of athletic ability in Thomas’s phenotype. C. genes Incorrect: His genetic potential was not expressed in his phenotype. 22. On every pair of chromosomes there are how many forms of each gene? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: B 23. Each form of a gene that is contained within a chromosome is referred to as a _______________. A. dominant gene B. recessive gene C. allele D. single gene Answer: C 24. What type of gene, if it is present, will be expressed in the phenotype? A. recessive gene B. dominant gene C. expressed gene D. controller gene Answer: B. dominant gene Correct: Recessive genes will only be expressed when there is no dominant gene present. D. controller gene Incorrect: If a dominant gene is present it will be expressed in the phenotype. 25. If having more than five fingers occurs because of a dominant gene, what needs to happen for a person to have more than five fingers? A. A person must have that dominant gene. B. A person must have two recessive genes. C. The gene must mutate. D. Both dominant genes must be present. Answer: A. A person must have that dominant gene. Correct: If a dominant gene is present it will be expressed in the phenotype. D. Both dominant genes must be present. Incorrect: For a dominant cell trait to be expressed, all that is needed is the presence of the dominant cell. 26. If the gene for curly hair is dominant and the gene for straight hair is recessive, from a dominant-recessive pairing, which of the following would be an individual’s phenotype? A. straight hair B. curly hair C. dominant-recessive D. their complete genetic makeup Answer: B. curly hair Correct: Since curly hair is a dominant trait and a heterozygotic pairing is present, the individual’s phenotype would be the curly hair, because curly hair is dominant and straight hair is recessive. A. straight hair Incorrect: Straight hair is recessive. 27. Jill’s mother and father both have brown eyes yet she has blue eyes. She has come to believe that she is not her parents’ actual biological daughter. What would you tell her? A. Her mother and father probably carry the recessive trait for blue eyes. B. She is correct; there is no way that she would have blue eyes if she were really her parents’ biological daughter. C. Blue eyes are dominant, so her parents should have blue eyes too. D. Only the environment determines eye color once the fetus has been born. Answer: A. Her mother and father probably carry the recessive trait for blue eyes. Correct: The blue-eyed child of two brown-eyed parents probably inherited a recessive blue-eyed gene from each parent. B. She is correct; there is no way that she would have blue eyes if she were really her parents’ biological daughter. Incorrect: Her parents most likely carry the recessive trait from blue eyes. 28. For a recessive gene to be expressed in the phenotype, it must be paired with a _______________. A. dominant gene B. recessive gene C. expressed gene D. controller gene Answer: B. recessive gene Correct: Two recessive genes must be present for that trait to be expressed. C. expressed gene Incorrect: It must be paired with another recessive gene to be expressed. 29. What is occurring when the phenotype is influenced primarily but not exclusively by the dominant gene? A. expression of the dominant gene B. expression of the recessive gene C. incomplete dominance D. failure of expression Answer: C. incomplete dominance Correct: The sickle-cell trait that is common among black Africans and African Americans is an example. D. failure of expression Incorrect: Incomplete dominance occurs when the phenotype is influenced primarily but not exclusively by the dominant gene. 30. In a dominant-recessive pairing, which of the following genes would be expressed in a person’s phenotype? A. the dominant B. the recessive C. the dominant-recessive pairing D. it is too complicated to know which genes will be expressed Answer: A. the dominant Correct: In a dominant-recessive pairing, the dominant gene will express itself in a person’s phenotype. For example, if you inherited a gene for curly hair from one parent and straight hair from the other, you would have curly hair, because curly hair is dominant and straight hair is recessive. B. the recessive Incorrect: The recessive trait would not be expressed in the presence of a dominant gene. 31. Which of the following is an example of an incomplete dominant inheritance? A. Down syndrome B. Fragile X C. sickle-cell anemia D. HIV Answer: C. sickle-cell anemia Correct: Incomplete dominance occurs when the phenotype is influenced primarily but not exclusively by the dominant gene. One example of incomplete dominance involves the sickle-cell trait that is common among black Africans and their descendants, such as African Americans. A. Down syndrome Incorrect: Down syndrome is a genetic-linked disorder. 32. Who is most likely to have sickle-cell anemia? A. European and European Americans B. Hispanics and Hispanic Americans C. Asians and Asian Americans D. Africans and African Americans Answer: D. Africans and African Americans Correct: It also occurs more rarely in people whose ancestors came from India or the Mediterranean. C. Asians and Asian Americans Incorrect: Africans and African Americans are most likely to have sickle-cell Anemia. 33. What recessive disorder results in non-normal shaped blood cells that clog up blood vessels and cause pain, increased susceptibility to disease, and early death? A. Tay-Sachs B. trisomy-21 C. sickle-cell anemia D. malaria Answer: C 34. Sickle-cell anemia is an evolutionary defense against what disease? A. sickle-cell trait B. malaria C. smallpox D. Nile fever Answer: B 35. Single gene pairs play a crucial role in development. However, it is more common that developmental outcomes occur because of the interaction of multiple genes. This is known as _______________. A. inheritability B. polygenic inheritance C. bimodal inheritance D. single dominance Answer: B. polygenic inheritance Correct: Polygenetic inheritance accounts for characteristics such as height and weight as well as intelligence and personality. C. bimodal inheritance Incorrect: This type of inheritance is referred to as polygenic inheritance. 36. Characteristics such as height, weight, and skin color are made up of a _______________. A. homogenetic inheritance B. heterogenetic inheritance C. dominant-recessive inheritance D. polygenetic inheritance Answer: D 37. The chromosomes that determine if a fetus will be male or female are known as the _______________. A. sex chromosomes B. gender chromosomes C. male chromosomes D. female chromosomes Answer: A. sex chromosomes Correct: These are called XX in females and XY in males. B. gender chromosomes Incorrect: The sex chromosomes determine the sex of the offspring. 38. If the fetus has the sex chromosomes XX, its genotype is _______________. A. female B. male C. undertermined D. dimorphic Answer: A. female Correct: Males have XY sex chromosomes. B. male Incorrect: XX genotype for the sex chromosome would be female. 39. If the fetus has the sex chromosomes XY, its genotype is _______________. A. female B. male C. undetermined D. dimorphic Answer: B. male Correct: Females have XX sex chromosomes. A. female Incorrect: XY genotype for the sex chromosome would be male. 40. A person with an XY pairing of chromosomes is a _______________, whereas a person with an XX pairing of chromosomes is a _______________. A. male; female B. female; male C. homogenetic inheritance; polygenetic inheritance D. polygenetic inheritance; homogenetic inheritance Answer: A 41. Which of the two sex chromosomes is significantly smaller and contains approximately 30% less genetic material? A. X B. Y C. O D. They are both the same Answer: B. Y Correct: The Y chromosome is significantly smaller than the X chromosome and contains approximately 30% less genetic material. The Y chromosome has fewer genes compared to the X chromosome, which accounts for the size difference and the lesser amount of genetic material. A. X Incorrect: The Y chromosome is notably smaller and contains less genetic material. 42. Of the following, which best describes the Y chromosome? A. The Y chromosome is bigger than X chromosome. B. The Y chromosome contains 30% less genetic material than the X chromosome. C. The Y chromosome is responsible for determining the sex of the child. D. There are no differences between the Y chromosome and the X chromosome. Answer: B 43. All ova contain which sex chromosome? A. X B. Y C. O D. None Answer: A. X Correct: Females carry no Y chromosomes. B. Y Incorrect: All ova contain only the X chromosome. 44. All ova, a female reproductive egg, are _______________. A. X chromosome B. Y chromosome C. XY chromosome D. XX chromosome Answer: A 45. What determines the sex of the offspring? A. the ovum B. the first sperm cell to arrive at the ovum C. egg re-arrangement at fertilization D. time of the monthly cycle when fertilization occurs Answer: B 46. What happens that determines the sex of the offspring? A. The ovum contains the X chromosome and the sperm cells carry either the X or the Y. The sperm cell that is involved in fertilization determines the sex of the offspring. B. The sperm cells all carry the X chromosome. The ovum contains both the X and Y so it is the ovum that determines the sex of the offspring. C. The ovum and sperm cells both carry X chromosomes. The placenta carries both the X and Y and it determines the sex of the offspring. D. The ovum and the sperm cells both contain the X chromosome. During the course of fertilization either an X or a Y will be created, which determines the sex of the offspring. Answer: A. The ovum contains the X chromosome and the sperm cells carry either the X or the Y. The sperm cell that is involved in fertilization determines the sex of the offspring. Correct: The woman’s ova are not responsible for determining a child’s sex as they carry only X chromosomes. B. The sperm cells all carry the X chromosome. The ovum contains both the X and Y so it is the ovum that determines the sex of the offspring. Incorrect: The sperm cell determines the sex of the offspring because it either carries the Y or the X chromosome. 47. Your older brother has a friend who was angry with his wife because they have two sons and he wanted to have a daughter. He thought that she was responsible for having two boys rather than a boy and a girl. What would you tell your brother? A. His friend was correct, she was purposefully having sons instead of a daughter. B. It was not anyone’s “fault,” but the sperm determined the sex of the offspring. C. It was not anyone’s “fault” even though her ova determined the sex of the offspring. D. Sex of the offspring is determined by day of the week. They both should have known what day they were trying to conceive. Answer: B. It was not anyone’s “fault,” but the sperm determined the sex of the offspring. Correct: The sex of the offspring is determined by which chromosome is contributed by the sperm. C. It was not anyone’s “fault” even though her ova determined the sex of the offspring. Incorrect: The sperm cell determines the sex of the offspring. 48. While having a conversation with a friend who is pregnant, she says to you that since she is “carrying high” she will have a girl. Based upon the textbook, which of the following statements are you thinking? A. There is no scientific evidence to support her belief. B. There are countless research studies that support her belief. C. Statistically speaking she is correct. D. She is wrong, a pregnant woman who is “carrying high” a more likely to be carrying a boy. Answer: A. There is no scientific evidence to support her belief. Correct: This is a common misconception that has no scientific basis. C. Statistically speaking she is correct. Incorrect: “Carrying high” is folklore. 49. Who is more affected by X-linked inherited disorders? A. females B. males C. children under one year of age. D. adults with mutations Answer: B. males Correct: Males are more affected because they do not have a second X chromosome that may be carrying a dominant gene to block the expression of an X-linked inherited disorder. A. females Incorrect: Males are more likely to be affected by X-linked inherited disorders. 50. Who are generally carriers of X-linked disorders? A. females B. males C. individuals who have been exposed to teratogens D. individuals with a trisomy Answer: A 51. Why are males more likely to have X-linked inherited disorders? A. If the X chromosome contains the recessive gene for the disorder, their Y chromosome has no dominant gene to prevent it. B. They are generally more immature at birth C. Androgen is a hormone that causes disorders to occur D. If the Y chromosome does not develop properly, the genes on this chromosome cannot prevent the disorder from occurring Answer: A. If the X chromosome contains the recessive gene for the disorder, their Y chromosome has no dominant gene to prevent it. Correct: Males also would not have a second X chromosome that may contain a dominant gene to block the X-linked inherited disorder. D. If the Y chromosome does not develop properly, the genes on this chromosome cannot prevent the disorder from occurring Incorrect: If the X chromosome contains the recessive gene for the disorder, the Y chromosome does not have the genes to counteract the gene on the X chromosome. 52. Why are males more susceptible to X linked disorders? A. Because males have an XX pairing of chromosomes; therefore, this increases their odds of a disorder. B. Because males have an XY pairing of chromosomes and the Y chromosome is more likely to host a genetic disorder. C. Because most genetic disorders are connected to the dominant gene and since men have an XY pairing a disorder is more likely to be expressed. D. Because males have one X chromosome and if a recessive gene for a disorder is present he does not have another X chromosome that may contain a dominant gene to block its expression. Answer: D 53. Which of the following is an example of an X-linked disorder? A. schizophrenia B. hemophilia C. bipolar Disease D. enuresis Answer: B 54. Your friend has hemophilia and was worried that he could pass it to his offspring when he had children. What would you tell him? A. He is probably correct, he will pass hemophilia on B. Hemophilia is an X-linked disorder and it would be impossible for him to pass it to any male offspring. It would be possible for his female offspring to be carriers though. C. X-linked disorders are not inherited; he has no worries D. Since he has hemophilia, he is probably sterile and unable to father children. Answer: B. Hemophilia is an X-linked disorder and it would be impossible for him to pass it to any male offspring. It would be possible for his female offspring to be carriers though. Correct: Since his male offspring would inherit his Y chromosome, he cannot pass along an X-linked disorder to them. C. X-linked disorders are not inherited; he has no worries Incorrect: X-linked disorders are inherited. 55. Which of the following is an example of an X-linked inheritance disorder? A. autism B. Down syndrome C. hemophilia D. Turner’s syndrome Answer: C 56. Nature is to _______________ as nurture is to _______________. A. conditioning; learning B. learning; conditioning C. environment; genetics D. genetics; environment Answer: D 57. According to your text, what have researchers concluded about the nature–nurture debate in terms of development? A. Genetics is more important. B. Environment is more important. C. Both are important. D. Genetics is more important in infancy and environment in childhood. Answer: C 58. Which the following statement best describes the nature–nurture debate? A. Most characteristics develop solely from nature or nurture, but not both. B. Most characteristics develop from a combination of nature and nurture. C. Most characteristics develop from only nature. D. Most characteristics develop from only nurture. Answer: B 59. What field is concerned with the question of how much genes influence development? A. embryology B. behavior genetics C. developmental psychology D. genetics Answer: B 60. A behavioral geneticist would use which of the following research methods to study the influence of genetics? A. longitudinal studies B. cross-sectional studies C. quasi-experimental studies D. twin and adoption studies Answer: D 61. Monozygotic (MZ) twins are also known as _______________. A. fraternal twins B. identical twins C. dizygotic twins D. conjoined twins Answer: B 62. What percentage of their genes do monozygotic twins have in common? A. 40% B. 60% C. 80% D. 100% Answer: D 63. Which of the following have a 100% genetic similarity to each other? A. brother and sister B. dizygotic twins C. cousins D. monozygotic twins Answer: D 64. If temperament were genetically based, which of the following would have the greatest degree of similarity? A. monozygotic twins B. dizygotic twins C. parents and children D. cousins Answer: A. monozygotic twins Correct: Monozygotic twins have a 100% genetic similarity. B. dizygotic twins Incorrect: Dizygotic twins have a 40 to 60% genetic similarity. 65. Dizygotic (DZ) twins are also known as: A. fraternal twins B. identical twins C. monozygotic twins D. conjoined twins Answer: A. fraternal twins Correct: Dizygotic twins result when a woman releases two ova and both are fertilized by sperm. B. identical twins Incorrect: Identical twins are monozygotic twins. 66. You are pushing a stroller that has two babies in it. One boy, dressed in blue, and one girl, dressed in pink. Someone stops you tells you how beautiful your baby boy and girl are. Then they ask if they are “identical twins.” You tell them they are not, but what are you thinking? A. It is impossible to have identical twins of different sexes. B. They could be identical; that was a great question. C. Fraternal twins are usually both girls. D. Fraternal twins are usually both boys. Answer: A. It is impossible to have identical twins of different sexes. Correct: Identical twins have exactly the same genotype, including sex. B. They could be identical; that was a great question. Incorrect: Identical twins share 100% of their genes, so they would both be of the same sex. 67. What percentage of their genes do dizygotic twins have in common? A. 100% B. 70 to 90% C. 40 to 60% D. 10 to 30% Answer: C 68. Which of the following have a 40 to 60% similarity of genetic inheritance? A. identical twins B. fraternal twins C. cousins D. adopted siblings Answer: B 69. What percentage of their genes do parents and their children have in common? A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 70% Answer: C 70. What type of study allows researchers to study whether certain behaviors or traits are more closely related to their genetics or their environment? A. genetics B. temperament C. chromosomal D. adoption Answer: D. adoption Correct: Adoption studies let researchers observe the behavior of parents and children who share no genetic material. A. genetics Incorrect: Adoption studies examine the effects of environment. 71. _______________ is an estimate of the extent to which genes are responsible for the differences among persons within a specific population. A. Heritability B. Reaction range C. Genetic ratio D. Environmental coefficient Answer: A 72. What is the name of the statistic that ranges from 0 to 1.00 and is used to estimate the degree to which genes are responsible for differences among people from a specific population? A. genetic correlation B. heritability estimate C. concordance rate D. chromosomal correction Answer: B 73. The heritability estimate ranges from _______________. A. 1 to 100 B. 0 to 1.00 C. 1 to 5 D. 0 to 20 Answer: B 74. Professor Glossner proposes that the heritability of temperament is .80. Which of the following statements does Professor Glossner propose? A. A large portion of temperament is determined by genetics. B. A large portion of temperament is determined by environment. C. 80% of temperament is determined by the X chromosome. D. 20% of temperament is determined by the X chromosome. Answer: A. A large portion of temperament is determined by genetics. Correct: Heritability is an estimate of the extent to which genes are responsible for the differences among persons within a specific population. The value of the heritability estimate ranges from 0 to 1.00. The higher the heritability, the more the characteristic is believed to be influenced by genetics. B. A large portion of temperament is determined by environment. Incorrect: From the estimate provided, 20% is determined by the environment. 75. Your friend’s mother is extremely intelligent. As a result, even though he usually does OK in school (2.8 GPA) he is convinced that he is a genius. What do you think? A. Since heritability estimates for intelligence are .50, he is probably overestimating his intelligence. B. He is definitely correct; he is likely a genius. C. Actually, children of intellectually gifted adults are usually much lower in intelligence. D. With a 2.8 GPA, he must be correct. Answer: A. Since heritability estimates for intelligence are .50, he is probably overestimating his intelligence. Correct: Heritability estimates for intelligence are .50, so given his GPA, it is likely that he is exaggerating his level of intelligence. B. He is definitely correct; he is likely a genius. Incorrect: Heritability estimates for intelligence are .50, so given his GPA, it is likely that he is exaggerating his level of intelligence. 76. According to your text, what percentage of variation of intelligence is estimated to be attributed to genetics? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100% Answer: B 77. What measure allows researchers to estimate not just genetic influence, but of how much the environment allows the genes to be expressed? A. genetic correlation B. heritability estimate C. concordance rate D. chromosomal correction Answer: B. heritability estimate Correct: Heritability is an estimate of the extent to which genes are responsible for the differences among persons within a specific population. C. concordance rate Incorrect: The heritability estimate includes not just genetics, but how much the environment allows the genes to be expressed. 78. Concordance rate is defined as _______________. A. the degree of similarity in characteristics among peoples of a cultural group B. the influence of genes on development by comparing people who share different amounts of their genes C. the percentage that indicates the degree of similarity in phenotype among pairs of family members D. the degree of difference as expressed by variations in environment Answer: C 79. If you were to design a research study that examines depression in relation to concordance rate, which of the following are the best groups to use for comparison? A. identical twins to and fraternal twins B. college students and the general public C. brothers and sisters D. parent(s) and children Answer: A. identical twins to and fraternal twins Correct: Monozygotic twins are identical with a 100% genetic similarity and dizygotic twins are fraternal with a 50% genetic similarity. Therefore, twin studies are important in estimating concordance rate. C. brothers and sisters Incorrect: Brothers and sisters have a 50% genetic similarity. Therefore, a comparison with the same environment will be of little value. 80. When concordance rates are higher among monozygotic twins than dizygotic twins, this indicates which of the following? A. There is partially a genetic basis. B. There is partially an environmental basis. C. There is a 100% environmental cause. D. There is a 100% genetic cause. Answer: A 81. Which measure allows behavior geneticists to determine the percentage of similarity in phenotype among pairs of family members and is used mostly to examine mental disorders? A. genetic correlation B. heritability estimate C. concordance rate D. chromosomal correction Answer: C. concordance rate Correct: Concordance rates range from 0 to 100%. The higher the concordance rate, the more similar two persons are. B. heritability estimate Incorrect: Similarity of phenotypes is estimated with the concordance rate. 82. Which of the following pairs would have a higher concordance rate for schizophrenia? A. monozygotic twins B. dizygotic twins C. adopted siblings D. cousins Answer: A 83. If John has schizophrenia, how likely is it that his monozygotic twin brother will also have schizophrenia? A. John’s brother will also have schizophrenia. B. There is an 80% probability that John’s brother will have schizophrenia. C. There is a 50% probability that John’s brother will have schizophrenia. D. John’s brother will not have schizophrenia. Answer: C. There is a 50% probability that John’s brother will have schizophrenia. Correct: The concordance rate for schizophrenia among monozygotic, or identical, twins is 50%. B. There is an 80% probability that John’s brother will have schizophrenia. Incorrect: There is a 50% probability that his identical twin will also have schizophrenia. 84. If John has schizophrenia, how likely is it that his dizygotic twin brother will also have schizophrenia? A. John’s brother will also have schizophrenia. B. There is a 38% probability that John’s brother will have schizophrenia. C. There is an 18% probability that John’s brother will have schizophrenia. D. John’s brother will not have schizophrenia. Answer: C. There is an 18% probability that John’s brother will have schizophrenia. Correct: The concordance rate for schizophrenia among dizygotic, or fraternal, twins is 18%. B. There is a 38% probability that John’s brother will have schizophrenia. Incorrect: There is an 18% probability that his fraternal twin will also have schizophrenia. 85. The _______________ is when genes establish boundaries for environmental influences rather than specifically denoting a particular characteristic. A. reaction range B. nature-nurture debate C. genetic ratio D. concordance rate Answer: A 86. Genes establish a potential of expression and environment determines where a person’s phenotype will fall. What is this boundary of genetic influence? A. Environmental influence B. Gene boundaries C. The inheritability estimate D. The reaction range Answer: D. The reaction range Correct: The reaction range is when genes establish boundaries for environmental influences. C. The inheritability estimate Incorrect: The boundary of genetic influence is the reaction range. 87. The concept of reaction range proposes _______________ establish(es) boundaries, whereas _______________ determines where a person falls within that range. A. genetics; environment B. environment; genetics C. phenotype; genotype D. polygenetic inheritance; homogenetic inheritance Answer: A 88. Elizabeth was just born. Her father is 6´ 8˝ tall and her mother is 5´ 11˝ tall. It is quite likely that Elizabeth will be tall as well. However, the environment will play a role in her eventual height as well. The genetic potential for Elizabeth’s height is known as the _______________. A. environmental range B. reaction range C. genetic range D. Interaction range Answer: B. reaction range Correct: The reaction range is when genes establish boundaries for environmental influences. C. genetic range Incorrect: Elizabeth’s genetic potential for height is her reaction range. 89. Which of the following individuals illustrates a person who is closer to the peak of their reaction range? A. Samir was born with a potential IQ of 145 (gifted IQ), was raised in an educationally enriching environment, and is a highly motivated learner. B. Joseppi, who was born with a potential IQ of 145 (gifted IQ), was raised in an educationally deprived environment and is an unmotivated learner. C. Susan was born with the potential IQ of 80 (below average IQ), was raised in an educationally deprived environment and is an unmotivated learner. D. Iman, who was born with the potential IQ of 80 (below average IQ), was raised in an educationally enriching environment and is an unmotivated learner who makes little progress. Answer: A. Samir was born with a potential IQ of 145 (gifted IQ), was raised in an educationally enriching environment, and is a highly motivated learner. Correct: Reaction range proposes that genetics establishes limits, whereas one’s environment places them on that scale. This means that Samir was born with a potential of an IQ of 145 and he is living within an environment that allows him to reach his fullest potential. B. Joseppi, who was born with a potential IQ of 145 (gifted IQ), was raised in an educationally deprived environment and is an unmotivated learner. Incorrect: Joseppi has the genetic potential; however, his environment is limiting. 90. In the past few decades, the average height of adults in Western countries has not changed much. This indicates that adult height for these countries has reached the upper boundary of their _______________. A. socio-economic range B. health status C. reaction range D. range of genetic dominance Answer: C. reaction range Correct: Reaction range proposes that genetics establishes limits, whereas one’s environment places them on that scale. D. range of genetic dominance Incorrect: Adult heigh in Western countries has reached the upper boundary of their reaction range. 91. Sandra Scarr and Kathleen McCartney proposed the theory of genotype environment effects. Which subtype occurs in biological families because parents provide both genes and environment for their children? A. Passive genotype → environment effects B. Evocative genotype → environment effects C. Active genotype → environment effects D. Inactive genotype → environment effects Answer: A. Passive genotype → environment effects Correct: It’s difficult to separate genetic influences from environmental influences because parents provide both. B. Evocative genotype → environment effects Incorrect: The genotype → environment effect in this case would be passive genotype → environment effect. 92. Sandra Scarr and Kathleen McCartney proposed the theory of genotype → environment effects. Which subtype occurs when a person’s inherited characteristics bring about responses from others in their environment? A. Passive genotype → environment effects B. Evocative genotype → environment effects C. Active genotype → environment effects D. Inactive genotype → environment effects Answer: B. Evocative genotype → environment effects Correct: An example would be a parent who buys more books for a child who seems to enjoy reading and thereby encourages the expression of her inherited interest in reading. A. Passive genotype → environment effects Incorrect: The genotype → environment effect in this case would be evocative genotype → environment effect. 93. Sandra Scarr and Kathleen McCartney proposed the theory of genotype → environment effects. Which subtype occurs when people seek out environments that correspond to their genotypic characteristics? A. Passive genotype → environment effects B. Evocative genotype → environment effects C. Active genotype → environment effects D. Inactive genotype → environment effects Answer: C. Active genotype → environment effects Correct: An example would be an outgoing young adult seeking a career where she can interact with other people all day. D. Inactive genotype → environment effects Incorrect: The genotype → environment effect in this case would be active genotype → environment effect. 94. What are the only cells in the human body that do not contain 46 chromosomes? A. lens cells B. neurons C. hair cells D. gametes Answer: D 95. Human sex cells, sperm and ova, each contain how many chromosomes? A. 23 B. 46 C. 23 pairs D. 46 pairs Answer: A 96. Sperm and ova are produced by which of the following, respectively? A. penis and uterus B. scrotum and vulva C. testes and ovaries D. kidneys and pancreas Answer: C 97. Through what process are gametes formed? A. mitosis B. meiosis C. sex differentiation D. dimorphic cell division Answer: B 98. What is the process of regular cell division called? A. mitosis B. meiosis C. sex differentiation D. dimorphic cell division Answer: A 99. _______________ is known as the normal process of cell reproduction in which chromosomes duplicate themselves and the cells divide to become two cells. A. Meiosis B. Mitosis C. Polar bodies D. Crossing over Answer: B 100. In the process of meiosis, how many chromosomes does the cell originally have and how many chromosomes are present when the gametes are formed? A. 92, 46 B. 69, 46 C. 46, 23 D. 23, 23 Answer: C 101. At the conclusion of meiosis how many sperm cells have been formed? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 Answer: B 102. At the conclusion of meiosis how may ova have been formed? A. 1 with 3 polar bodies B. 2 with 2 polar bodies C. 3 with 1 polar body D. 4 with no polar bodies Answer: A 103. According to the text, why does the ovum have an excessive amount of cytoplasm? A. so that there is ample room for the sperms nucleus once it arrives B. to help protect against invading cells C. so that the ovum can be easily found by the sperm cells D. it will be the ovum’s main source of nutrition Answer: D. it will be the ovum’s main source of nutrition Correct: Cytoplasm is the ovum’s source of nutrients for the first two weeks after fertilization. B. to help protect against invading cells Incorrect: Cytoplasm will be the main source of nutrition for the ovum. 104. What is the process that allows mixing the combinations of genes in a single chromosome resulting in a virtually infinite possible combination of genes? A. sampling from a large genetic pool B. gamete swapping C. crossing over D. mitosis Answer: C 105. The typical male ejaculation expels how many sperm? A. 100 to 300 B. 100 to 300 thousand C. 100 to 300 million D. 100 to 300 billion Answer: C 106. Males begin producing sperm _______________, whereas females produce ova _______________. A. at puberty; at puberty B. while in the womb; at puberty C. at puberty; while in the womb D. while in the womb; while in the womb Answer: C 107. How many ova are present in a female adolescent’s ovaries in puberty? A. 20,000 B. 40,000 C. 60,000 D. 80,000 Answer: B 108. Most women will run out of fertile ova by the time they reach their _______________. A. 30s B. 40s C. 50s D. 60s Answer: B 109. Lamar and Chandra recently got married and have been discussing how long they could wait to have children. Based upon the text, at what age, statistically speaking, will Chandra run out of fertile ova? A. 30s B. 40s C. 50s D. 60s Answer: B. 40s Correct: By contrast, men produce sperm throughout their adult lives although the quality and quantity may decline with age. A. 30s Incorrect: Most women run out of ova some time in their 40s. 110. How many days into the woman’s menstrual cycle does ovulation occur? A. 2 B. 14 C. 28 D. 40 Answer: B 111. Fertilization is most likely to occur when intercourse occurs _______________. A. within 2 days before and on the day of ovulation B. 2 days after ovulation C. 5 days after ovulation D. 1 week after ovulation Answer: A. within 2 days before and on the day of ovulation Correct: It can take sperm from a few hours to a whole day to travel up the fallopian tubes. B. 2 days after ovulation Incorrect: Fertilization is likely to occur within two days before and on the day of ovulation. 112. According to the text, how long can sperm live in the woman’s body after ejaculation? A. 12 hours B. 1 day C. 5 days D. 1 week Answer: C 113. When the ovum and sperm cells unite and fertilization has occurred, what has just been formed? A. the fetus B. the embryo C. the blastocyst D. the zygote Answer: D. the zygote Correct: The zygote’s 46 paired chromosomes constitute the new organism’s unique genotype. C. the blastocyst Incorrect: When the ovum and sperm cells unite, the zygote has been formed. 114. When the ovum is fertilized by the sperm this is called _______________. A. fertility B. conception C. cervix D. gametes Answer: B 115. Which of the following has increased due to advancements in fertility treatments? A. monozygotic twins B. dizygotic twins C. conjoined twins D. Siamese twins Answer: B Short Answer Questions 116. Give an example that explains the difference between phenotype and genotypes. Answer: Two identical twins will have the same genotype because their genetic make up is exactly the same, but if they were adopted into homes with parents who had different views about health, they may have different phenotypes. One may be overweight because eating junk food is the norm, whereas the other twin may have a trim athletic build because fitness was always a part of the family’s routine and involvement in sports was encouraged. 117. You have likely heard people say “the father is the one who determines the sex of the child.” Explain whether or not this is true. Answer: Females’ eggs have two X chromosomes and males’ sperm contains either an x or a y. When a zygote is formed, it always gets an x from the female, but it can get either an x or a y from the male. If it gets a y, the result is a male, if it gets an x, it becomes a female. 118. Although often viewed as the stronger sex, explain why males are actually more vulnerable. Answer: Because the sex chromosome of females is composed of two Xs, if one of these Xs contains a recessive gene for a disorder or disease, it will not manifest itself due to the other X overriding it and not allowing it to be expressed. Since the sex chromosome make up of the male is XY, if there is a recessive gene for a disorder on his X chromosome it will express itself because there is not another X chromosome that may contain a dominant gene to block its expression. 119. The concordance rate for schizophrenia among identical twins is .40; the concordance rate for Schizophrenia is only .10 if a person’s parent has schizophrenia. Explain what these number mean. Include a discussion of nature and nurture in your response. Answer: This means that if one MZ twin has schizophrenia, there is a 40% chance that the other twin will also develop this disorder, whereas there is only a 10% chance of developing it if your mother or father has it. The higher rate for identical twins means that there is a genetic component to schizophrenia. However, there is still a 60% of not getting schizophrenia if your MZ has it, so environment plays a greater role than genes. 120. What is a reaction range? Provide an example to illustrate. Answer: A reaction range refers to the range of possibilities that a person is capable of as set forth by their genetic make up. It is similar to one’s genetic potential. If a person’s parents are both short in stature with a petite frame, it is genetically possible that the child have a body type suitable to be a jockey. However, the environment plays an important role; if the person eats a high fat diet and does not maintain her health, she may not have the trim, strong build required for this work. Essay Questions 121. Explain the phenomenon of incomplete dominance in sickle cell inheritance. Answer: Incomplete dominance occurs when there is a dominant-recessive pair of genes and the phenotype is affected mostly by the dominant gene, but the recessive gene also becomes expressed partially. In sickle cell anemia, a person inherits two recessive genes for the sickle-cell trait and their blood cells are disk-shaped rather than round, causing clogging and a number of problems, such as pain. If the person only inherits one recessive gene for the sickle cell trait, they will not have sickle cell anemia, but some of their blood cells will be misshaped. This condition causes resistance to malaria, an often fatal disease that is common in Africa. It would be adaptive to carry this recessive trait in Africa, so this explains the higher prevalence of sickle-cell diseases among people of African heritage. 122. Explain how DZ and MZ twins are formed. Include a discussion of ethnic variations and factors that increase the chances of having twins. Answer: DZ twins result when the female releases two eggs instead of one and each is fertilized with a sperm. MZ twins result when a zygote is formed and it divides. DZ twins are more common among Africans and least common among Asians. MZ twins are not more common in some ethnic groups. The chances of having DZ twins increase if they run in the family, if the person is in good health and if the mother is older. None of these variables predicts MZ twins. MyDevelopmentLab Question Bank Pre-Test 1. The average human cell has _______________ chromosomes. A. 23 B. 46 C. 78 D. 96 Answer: B 2. Nurture is to _______________; whereas, nature is to _______________. A. environment; genetics B. genetics; environment C. learning; conditioning D. conditioning; learning Answer: A 3. The process of regular cell division is called _______________. A. mitosis B. meiosis C. metamorphosis D. monophonic Answer: A 4. Due to advancements in fertility treatments, _______________ have increased in recent times. A. monozygotic twins B. dizygotic twins C. conjoined twins D. Siamese twins Answer: B 5. Complex molecules that make up chromosomes are known as _______________. A. DNA B. RNA C. MRI D. genes Answer: A 6. If temperament was genetically based, which of the following would have the greatest degree of similarity? A. identical twins B. fraternal twins C. cousins D. step- brothers and sisters Answer: A 7. If one proposes the heritability of IQ is .80, which of the following statements is correct? A. A large portion of IQ is determined by genetics. B. A large portion of IQ is determined by environment. C. 80% of IQ is determined by the X chromosome. D. 20% of IQ is determined by the X chromosome. Answer: A 8. Which of the following subjects would be best for a research study that examines the concordance rate of intelligence? A. identical twins to fraternal twins B. college students to the general public C. brothers to sisters D. parent(s) to children Answer: A 9. Keith and Carry have been discussing how long they could wait to have children. At what age, statistically speaking, will Carry run out of fertile ova? A. 30s B. 40s C. 50s D. 60s Answer: B 10. Jack's father was an All-American in the 50M backstroke and qualified for the Olympic Team. Jack is a freshman in high school and does not think that he will need to train to become a member of the school's Swim team. Jack keeps telling you that his father was a great swimmer, so he will also be a great swimmer. What do you think? A. He is correct; he will be a great swimmer no matter what he does. B. It is unlikely that Jack even has the genotype for swimming. C. Jack might have the genotype for swimming, but he will need to train to become a great swimmer. D. Jack has also inherited the genes for any athletic sport. Answer: C Post-Test 1. The average human cell (with exception to ova and sperm cells) contains how many chromosomes? A. 23 B. 46 C. 52 D. 78 Answer: B 2. _______________ are the basic building block of chromosomes. A. Genes B. Fatty cells C. Myelin D. Nucleotides Answer: A 3. _______________ is a person's complete genetic makeup. A. Genotype B. Phenotype C. Reaction range D. Necelotide Answer: A 4. According to the text, what percent of variation of intelligence is estimated to be the result of genetics? A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 80% Answer: C 5. Fraternal twins are also known as _______________. A. dizygotic twins B. monozygotic twins C. conjoined twins D. identical twins Answer: A 6. _______________ is formed with the ovum and sperm unite and fertilization takes place. A. The fetus B. The embryo C. The blastocyst D. The zygote Answer: D 7. Scarr and McCartney proposed the theory of genotype ® environment effects. From their theory, which subtype occurs when people seek out environments that correspond to their genotypic characteristics? A. Lateral genotype ® environment effects B. Evocative genotype ® environment effects C. Active genotype ® environment effects D. Inactive genotype ® environment effects Answer: C 8. If an individual has schizophrenia, what is the probability that his dizygotic twin brother will also have schizophrenia? A. about 5% B. about 18% C. about 62% D. about 95% Answer: B 9. Which of the following individuals illustrates a person who is closer to the lower portion of their reaction range? A. Martin, who was born with a potential IQ of 145 (gifted IQ), was raised in an educationally enriching environment, and is a highly motivated learner. B. Nathan, who was born with a potential IQ of 145 (gifted IQ), was raised in an educationally deprived environment, and is an unmotivated learner. C. Abby, who was born with a potential IQ of 80 (below average IQ), was raised in an educationally enriching environment, and is a motivated learner. D. Roman, who was born with the potential IQ of 80 (below average IQ), was raised in an educationally enriching environment, and is an unmotivated learner who makes little progress. Answer: B 10. Kendra is a professional singer who is the daughter of musical artists. Throughout her childhood, her parents encouraged and trained her to the best of their abilities. During school she enrolled in a specialized academy that continued to nurture her talent. Which of the following best describes Kendra's genotype? A. Kendra's musical genes B. Kendra's musical talent C. Kendra's nurturing parents D. Kendra's musical genes and musical talent Answer: A Chapter Exam 1. By the time most women reach their _______________ they will run out of fertile ova. A. 30s B. 40s C. 50s D. 60s Answer: B 2. Sperm and ova, human sex cells, each contain how many chromosomes? A. 23 B. 46 C. 23 pairs D. 46 pairs Answer: C 3. Reaction range proposes _______________ establish(es) boundaries, and _______________ determines where a person falls within that range. A. genetics; environment B. environment; genetics C. phenotype; genotype D. polygenetic inheritance; homogenetic inheritance Answer: A 4. An individual's complete genetic makeup is referred to as his or her ________ A. genotype B. phenotype C. archetype D. prototype Answer: A 5. Which of the following factors when paired with an individual's genotype creates an expression on their phenotype? A. environment B. genes C. DNA D. parents Answer: A 6. Jackson was born with 5 fingers per hand (including the thumb). If having more than five fingers occurs because of a dominant gene, Jackson's genetic inheritance must be _______________. A. recessive-recessive B. dominant-dominant C. recessive-dominant D. recessive-recessive-dominant Answer: A 7. _______________ is an example of an incomplete dominant inheritance. A. Down syndrome B. HIV C. Sickle-cell anemia D. Fragile X Answer: C 8. Grant is 7 years old and has ambitions of becoming a professional basketball player. His father is 5' 7" tall and his mother is 5' 3" tall. It is quite likely that Grant will be 5' 7" tall or a little taller, but not of NBA height. Trying to explain genetics to a 7-year-old is hard; however, his genetic potential is known as _______________. A. reaction range B. genetic loading C. interaction range D. chromosomal load Answer: A 9. Scarr and McCartney proposed the theory of genotype ® environment effects. Which subtype occurs when a person's inherited characteristics bring about responses from others in their environment? A. Evocative genotype ® environment effects B. Submissive genotype ® environment effects C. Proactive ® environment effects D. Active genotype ® environment effects Answer: A 10. According to the text, what are the only cells in the human body that do not contain 46 chromosomes? A. Eardrum cells B. Hair cells C. Gametes D. Capillaries Answer: C 11. Assume you have very close friends who are trying to get pregnant. To improve their odds you advise them that they should have intercourse when she is closer to ovulation and tell them that women generally ovulate _______________ days into their menstrual cycles. A. 3 B. 7 C. 14 D. 21 Answer: C 12. After ejaculation, sperm can live for _________ days inside the human body. A. 2 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9 Answer: B 13. Females produce ova ______________; whereas, males produce sperm _______________. A. while in the womb; at puberty B. at puberty; while in the womb C. at puberty; at puberty D. while in the womb; while in the womb Answer: A 14. You are at the airport with your twin babies. Your son is dressed in blue and your daughter is dressed in pink. Someone stops you and tells you how beautiful they are and asks if they are "identical twins." You tell them no, but what are you thinking in your head? A. It's impossible to have identical twins of different sexes. B. That's a great question, they could be identical twins. C. Usually fraternal twins are boys. D. Usually fraternal twins are girls. Answer: A 15. If Frank has schizophrenia, how likely is it that his identical twin brother will also have schizophrenia? A. Highly likely B. Very likely C. 50% chance D. Highly unlikely Answer: C Quick Review 1. How many chromosomes from each pair of chromosomes are generally inherited from the mother? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four Answer: A 2. All ova (female eggs) contain which chromosome? A. X B. Y C. O D. A Answer: A 3. A person's ____________ is/are their characteristics; whereas, a person's _______________ is/are their genetic makeup. A. phenotype; genotype B. genotype; phenotype C. nucleotides; DNA D. DNA; nucleotides Answer: A 4. In terms of the nature-nurture debate, most researchers have concluded _______________. A. genetics is more important B. environment is more important C. both are important D. genetics is more important in infancy and environment in childhood Answer: C 5. If schizophrenia had a strong genetic basis, which of the following pairs would have the highest concordance rate? A. monozygotic twins B. dizygotic twins C. adopted siblings D. cousins Answer: A 6. Gametes are formed through what process? A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Osmosis D. Orthosis Answer: B 7. To improve the odds of fertilization occurring, intercourse should occur _______________. A. within two days before and on the day of ovulation B. two days after ovulation C. five days after ovulation D. one week after ovulation Answer: A 8. Over the past 30 years, the average height of adults in many developed countries has not changed much. Having reached a pinnacle, it is clear that adult height in these countries has reached the upper boundary of _______________. A. social-economic range B. health status C. reaction range D. range of variation. Answer: C 9. Which of the following have a 100% similarity of genetic inheritance? A. identical twins B. fraternal twins C. cousins D. adopted siblings Answer: A 10. Studying which of the following would best allow researchers to examine the influence of genetics and environment on specific behaviors or traits? A. Gender B. Temperament C. Chromosomal D. Adoption Answer: D Video Guide Questions Short Answer Questions 1. What are your thoughts on gender selective abortion in other countries? Did your viewing of this clip impact your thoughts? Answer: Gender-selective abortion is a complex and controversial issue, often rooted in deep-seated cultural and societal biases against females. It perpetuates gender inequality and can have severe demographic consequences. Viewing the clip reinforced the ethical concerns and the need for addressing the underlying societal norms that drive such practices. 2. Describe your reaction to IVH gender selection that occurs in some of the countries discussed in this clip. Answer: My reaction to IVH (in vitro fertilization and hormone therapy) gender selection is one of concern, as it often reflects and reinforces gender biases and discrimination in certain cultures. This practice can exacerbate gender imbalances and perpetuate the devaluation of females. The clip highlights the ethical and social implications, emphasizing the need for addressing the root causes of gender preference. 3. What are some of the reasons provided by individuals in this clip why boys are preferred over girls in the countries of Taiwan, India, and South Korea? Answer: Some of the reasons include the following: In some cultures, once a female is married and out of the house she is no longer considered part of the family to contribute or support the family. In these cultures it is appropriate for the family of the female to provide a bride's dowry to the husband's family. The male children will be able to carry on the family name. Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following countries was not mentioned in the video as having a strong preference for male children over female children? A. Taiwan B. Spain C. India D. South Korea Answer: B 2. Which of the following was listed as a reason why female children are not as preferred in these countries? A. Once a female is married, they no longer contribute financially. B. Females are less likely to carry heavy loads. C. Males are better equipped to deal with the weather conditions. D. Males understand the geography of the land much better than females. Answer: A 3. Which of the following was not listed as a reason that increases the pressure to have a son over a daughter? A. A son can carry on the family name. B. A daughter would require a bride’s dowry. C. A son is better able to parent the children. D. A daughter would no longer contribute financially once she has married. Answer: C Section 2 Prenatal Development and Prenatal Care Test Item File Multiple Choice Questions 1. What are the first 2 weeks after fertilization referred to as? A. the germinal period B. the embryonic period C. the fetal period D. the fertilization period Answer: A 2. The first 2 weeks after fertilization is known as _______________. A. conception B. the germinal period C. the embryonic period D. the fetal period Answer: B 3. By the end of the first week following conception the fertilized egg now has approximately 100 cells and is known as the _______________. A. neonate B. fetus C. embryo D. blastocyst Answer: D 4. The structure that will form the structures that will provide protection and nourishment for the newly formed organism is the _______________. A. umbilical cord B. placenta C. embryonic disk D. trophoblast Answer: D 5. The inner layer of blastocyst that will become the embryo is the _______________. A. umbilical cord B. placenta C. embryonic disk D. trophoblast Answer: C. embryonic disk Correct: This is part of the blastocyst that is formed about one week after conception. B. placenta Incorrect: The inner layer of the blastocyst is the embryonic disk. 6. Which of the following is a correct sequence of development during the germinal period? A. placenta, implantation, blastocyst B. blastocyst, implantation, placenta C. placenta, blastocyst, implantation D. implantation, placenta, blastocyst Answer: B. blastocyst, implantation, placenta Correct: During the germinal period, the zygote divides and forms blastocyst, which implants in the uterus and begins forming the amnion, placenta, and umbilical cord. A. placenta, implantation, blastocyst Incorrect: During the germinal period, the zygote divides and forms blastocyst, which implants in the uterus and begins forming the amnion, placenta, and umbilical cord. 7. The blastocyst will implant itself into the uterine wall during the _______________ after conception? A. first day B. second day C. first week D. second week Answer: D 8. When the blastocyst becomes firmly embedded into the lining of the uterus, what has happened? A. implantation B. fertilization C. conception D. pregnancy Answer: A. implantation Correct: This occurs during the second week after conception. B. fertilization Incorrect: When the blastocyst becomes embedded into the uterus, implantation has occurred. 9. When does implantation of the blastocyst occur? A. at conception B. during the second week after conception C. during the second month after conception D. during the second trimester after conception Answer: B 10. According to the text, what structure provides a protective environment in which the fetus’s temperature is well regulated and protects the fetus from friction caused by the mother’s movements? A. The placenta B. The umbilical cord C. The amnion D. The germinal structure Answer: C. The amnion Correct: The amnion develops from the trophoblast during the second week during the second week after conception. A. The placenta Incorrect: The amnion protects the fetus. 11. The _______________ is/are the organ(s) that allow(s) nutrients to pass from the mother to the child and allow(s) waste to pass from the child to the mother during the course of pregnancy. A. uterus B. placenta C. fallopian tubes D. ovaries Answer: B 12. What structure provides nutrients from the mother to the fetus, takes waste products away from the fetus, and protects the fetus from bacteria and waste in the mother’s blood? A. the placenta B. the umbilical cord C. the amnion D. the germinal structure Answer: A 13. What percentage of blastocysts do not implant successfully? A. 15% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% Answer: C 14. The embryonic period lasts from the _______________ to the _______________. A. 1st week; 4th week B. 3rd week; 8th week C. 6th week; 16th week D. 12th week; 32nd week Answer: B 15. The embryonic period is _______________ weeks long. A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10 Answer: B 16. During the embryonic period, the ectoderm is formed which will become the _______________. A. skin, hair, nails, sensory organs and nervous system B. muscles, bones, reproductive system and circulatory system C. digestive and respiratory systems D. hormonal and endocrine systems Answer: A. skin, hair, nails, sensory organs and nervous system Correct: The ectoderm is formed within the third week after conception. B. muscles, bones, reproductive system and circulatory system Incorrect: During the embryonic period, the ectoderm will become the skin, hair, nails, sensory organs and nervous system. 17. The outer layer of the embryonic disk will become _______________. A. the brain and spinal cord B. skin, hair, nails, and the nervous system C. muscle, bones, and the circulatory system D. the digestive and respiratory systems Answer: B 18. During the embryonic period, the mesoderm is formed, which will become the _______________. A. skin, hair, nails, sensory organs, and nervous system B. muscles, bones, reproductive system, and circulatory system C. digestive and respiratory systems D. hormonal and endocrine systems Answer: B. muscles, bones, reproductive system, and circulatory system Correct: The mesoderm is formed within the third week after conception. C. digestive and respiratory systems Incorrect: During the embryonic period, the mesoderm is formed, which will become the muscles, bones, reproductive system and circulatory system. 19. During the embryonic period, the endoderm is formed, which will become the _______________. A. skin, hair, nails, sensory organs and nervous system B. muscles, bones, reproductive system and circulatory system C. digestive and respiratory systems D. hormonal and endocrine systems Answer: C. digestive and respiratory systems Correct: The endoderm is formed within the third week after conception. A. skin, hair, nails, sensory organs and nervous system Incorrect: During the embryonic period, endoderm is formed, which will become the digestive and respiratory systems are formed. 20. What embryonic structure will become the brain and spinal cord? A. brain stem B. neuralblast C. neural tube D. cerebral cortex Answer: C. neural tube Correct: The neural tube is formed by the end of the third week after conception. B. neuralblast Incorrect: The neural tube will become the brain and spinal cord. 21. By the end of the third week the neural tube begins to form. This structure will eventually become _______________. A. the skull and torso B. legs and arms C. the spinal cord and brain D. lungs and the digestive system Answer: C 22. At what rate are neurons produced during the embryonic period? A. 25 per minute B. 250 per minute C. 250,000 per minute D. 2 billion per minute Answer: C 23. By the end of the fourth week the embryo’s head is apparent and the eyes, nose, mouth, and ears begin to form. How long is the embryo at this point? A. ¼ inch B. 4 inches C. 8 inches D. 12 inches Answer: A 24. Nearly all of the major organs are formed during what period? A. genetic B. zygotic C. fetal D. embryonic Answer: D. embryonic Correct: This period lasts from the third to eighth week after conception. C. fetal Incorrect: The major organs are formed during the embryonic period. 25. At the end of the eighth week the embryo is only one inch long and weighs just one gram. According to the text, what can the embryo now do? A. Step in place B. Suck its thumb C. Vocalize D. Respond to touch Answer: D. Respond to touch Correct: The embryo’s sense of touch is especially sensitive around its mouth at this point. B. Suck its thumb Incorrect: The embryo can respond to touch during this time. 26. By the end of the eighth week the embryo _______________. A. is unrecognizable as human B. responds to touch and can move C. has yet to develop major organs D. has fully developed sex organs Answer: B. responds to touch and can move Correct: The embryo’s sense of touch is especially sensitive around its mouth at this point. D. has fully developed sex organs Incorrect: By the end of the eighth week, the embryo responds to touch and all of the main organs are formed except the sex organs. 27. The fetal period ends at birth. When does it begin? A. 4 weeks after conception B. 9 weeks after conception C. 12 weeks after conception D. 15 weeks after conception Answer: B. 9 weeks after conception Correct: The fetal period follows the embryonic period. A. 4 weeks after conception Incorrect: The fetal period begins nine weeks after conception. 28. The _______________ period lasts from the ninth week after conception until birth. A. germinal B. embryonic C. fetal D. zygote Answer: C 29. What is the average weight of babies at birth in developed countries? A. 5 pounds B. 7.5 pounds C. 10 pounds D. 12.5 pounds Answer: B. 7.5 pounds Correct: The average length of babies at birth in developed countries is 20 inches. A. 5 pounds Incorrect: In developed countries the average size of babies is 7.5 pounds. 30. Fernando and Rebecca are anxious to know the sex of their baby. It would not be until the end of the _______________ month of pregnancy that they can find out because the genitalia will not have fully formed before then. A. 2nd B. 3rd C. 4th D. 5th Answer: B. 3rd Correct: Fingernails, toenails, and taste buds begin to develop at the same time. C. 4th Incorrect: By the end of the third month, genitalia are formed. 31. According to the text, at what month can the fetus’s heartbeat be heard with a stethoscope? A. during the third week B. during the third month C. during the fifth month D. during the seventh month Answer: B 32. Your friend just had her first pregnancy check-up and is just starting her second month of pregnancy. She is very upset that she was not given the chance to hear her fetus’s heartbeat. Remembering what you learned in developmental class, what should you tell her? A. That probably means that the fetus died. B. She will not be able to hear the heartbeat with a stethoscope until the third month. C. The fetus probably has a heart problem. D. The doctor did not want her to hear the fetal heartbeat. Answer: B. She will not be able to hear the heartbeat with a stethoscope until the third month. Correct: It is not until the third month of pregnancy that a fetal heartbeat can typically be heard using a stethoscope. A. That probably means that the fetus died. Incorrect: It is not likely that the heartbeat can be heard until the third month. 33. At three months the average fetus _______________. A. weighs three ounces and is three inches long B. weighs three pounds and is three inches long C. has developed three brain structures D. has developed three sensory systems Answer: A 34. By the end of the third month the typical fetus can be described as “three times three” because _______________. A. it has been three months, the fetus weighs three ounces, and is three inches long B. it weighs three pounds, is three inches long, and has three senses C. three major systems have developed: brain, heart and, lungs D. all three facial features are clearly distinguishable Answer: A 35. Prenatal development is divided into segments. What are these segments called? A. fetalesters B. prenatal sections C. semesters D. trimesters Answer: D. trimesters Correct: Prenatal development is divided into 3-month trimesters. C. semesters Incorrect: These segments are referred to as trimesters. 36. By the end of what month do pregnant women typically feel the movements of the fetus? A. second B. fourth C. sixth D. eight Answer: B. fourth Correct: The fetus’s movements diversify over the course of the second trimester. C. sixth Incorrect: Pregnant women typically feel the movement of the fetus during the fourth month. 37. Your sister-in-law just finished her fourth month of pregnancy. She swears that she can feel the movements of her fetus. Is this likely? After what month do women generally feel the fetus move? A. Yes, she has probably been feeling the fetus move since the second month. B. Yes, pregnant women can usually begin feeling the fetus’s movements by the fourth month of pregnancy. C. No, the fetus is not developed enough to move very much until the end of the sixth month of pregnancy. D. No, it is very difficult for a pregnant woman to feel the fetus’s movement until the fetus is viable, during the 8th month of pregnancy. Answer: B. Yes, pregnant women can usually begin feeling the fetus’s movements by the fourth month of pregnancy. Correct: The fetus’s movements begin to diversify at this time, and include kicking, hiccupping, and thumb sucking. C. No, the fetus is not developed enough to move very much until the end of the sixth month of pregnancy. Incorrect: Pregnant women typically feel the movement of the fetus during the fourth month. 38. Susan is talking to her friend who is at the end of her second trimester. Lucila wants to be reassured that she is not crazy, but thinks her baby actually kicks, turns, and hiccups. Lucila even thinks that the baby becomes more active if she talks to it. If you were Susan how do you respond to Lucila’s observations? A. “Lucila those activities are normal for the end of the second trimester, and fetuses can hear even in the womb.” B. “Lucila, I think you are going crazy. A fetus really doesn’t kick that early in the pregnancy and it’s crazy to think it can hear.” C. “Lucila all those things do happen, but not really until the end of the third trimester.” D. “Lucila, I think you need to go see your doctor because something is absolutely wrong.” Answer: A. “Lucila those activities are normal for the end of the second trimester, and fetuses can hear even in the womb.” Correct: These are all normal actions and responses for a pregnant woman to feel C. “Lucila all those things do happen, but not really until the end of the third trimester.” Incorrect: During the second trimester, the mother can feel movement from the fetus. The fetus kicks, turns, hiccups, sucks its thumb, breathes amniotic fluid, and responds to sounds, especially music and familiar voices. 39. It has been discovered that the fetus responds to sound at the end of the sixth month. What sound does the fetus prefer at this time? A. Mozart’s music B. rhythmic tapping C. its mother’s voice D. a cat’s meow Answer: C. its mother’s voice Correct: We know this is true because an increase in fetal heart rate is observed when a fetus hears its mother’s voice. A. Mozart’s music Incorrect: At the sixth month, the fetus is likely to respond to its mother’s voice. 40. Your roommate’s sister-in-law is pregnant and is trying to do all that she can to protect her fetus and to make sure that her fetus develops well. She does not like to have any loud music on and even does not talk very loudly for fear that her fetus will be harmed. What would you tell her? A. That her fetus will not be adversely affected and that studies have discovered that fetus’s actually prefer their mothers’ voices. So, she should talk as much as she likes. B. That she is correct, loud music is readily transmitted through the amniotic fluid and will cause damage to the fetus’s cochlea. C. That she should play Mozart really loudly. Fetuses who listen to Mozart are more intelligent than those who do not listen to Mozart. D. Research has shown that fetuses’ love country music. Answer: A. That her fetus will not be adversely affected and that studies have discovered that fetus’s actually prefer their mothers’ voices. So, she should talk as much as she likes. Correct: A fetus’s heart rate has been shown to increase when it hears its mother’s voice. D. Research has shown that fetuses’ love country music. Incorrect: Fetuses have been shown to respond best to the sound of its mother’s voice. 41. What is the name of the white slimy substance that covers the fetus’s skin? A. lanugo B. vernix C. keratin D. ossicles Answer: B 42. A fellow worker was present at his son’s birth. He was really upset because his son was born with a white substance all over his skin and no one told him what the problem was. You should tell him _______________. A. that it was probably cancer B. that his baby probably had something wrong with it. You have never heard of such a thing C. that the white substance was vernix and many babies have that at birth. It protects their skin in utero D. that that was a greasy like substance that is used to help the baby emerge from the birth canal. They will wash it off later Answer: C. that the white substance was vernix and many babies have that at birth. It protects their skin in utero Correct: Vernix caseosa is a normal, white, cheese-like substance that covers the skin of the fetus during the last trimester of pregnancy. It acts as a protective coating, preventing the skin from becoming waterlogged in the amniotic fluid and providing antibacterial protection. It's common for babies to be born with vernix on their skin, and it is not a sign of any health problem. B. that his baby probably had something wrong with it. You have never heard of such a thing Incorrect: The white substance is called vernix and is normal. 43. The purpose of lanugo is to _______________. A. work as a lubricant during the birthing process B. lubricate the lungs C. guide neuro-migration during brain development D. help the vernix stick to the fetus’s skin, which protects against chapping Answer: D 44. What is the name of the downy hair that covers the fetus? A. lanugo B. vernix C. keratin D. ossicles Answer: A 45. What is the term used to describe the fetus’s likelihood of surviving outside of the uterus? A. survival index B. Apgar Score C. Braxton Hicks D. viability Answer: D 46. _______________ is the term for an infant’s ability to survive outside the womb if born preterm/premature. A. Immaturity B. Small for size C. Viability D. Survivability Answer: C 47. What is the likely outcome for a fetus whose mother lives in a developing country that is born before the end of the second trimester? The newborn will _______________. A. not survive B. be healthy C. have an Apgar score of at least 7 D. have a breech birth Answer: A. not survive Correct: Access to the necessary advanced medial care is scarce in developing countries, so the newborn’s chance of survival are not strong. B. be healthy Incorrect: It is more likely that the newborn will not survive. 48. The _______________ is the last major organ system to develop during fetal life? A. heart B. lungs C. intestines D. skeletal muscles Answer: B. lungs Correct: Even a baby born in the seventh or eighth month of pregnancy may need the help of a respirator to breathe. A. heart Incorrect: The last major organs to develop are the lungs. 49. Newborns weighing less than what weight are at risk for a wide range of developmental difficulties? A. 5.5 pounds B. 7.0 pounds C. 8.5 pounds D. 10 pounds Answer: A. 5.5 pounds Correct: Many of these developmental difficulties will be discussed in Chapter 3. B. 7.0 pounds Incorrect: Newborns weighing less than 5.5 pounds are at risk. 50. As a result of evolutionary history, which of the following structures is the most underdeveloped at birth? A. the lungs B. the spinal cord C. the brain D. the digestive system Answer: C 51. Humans are born with immature brains that are incompletely developed. One result is that babies _______________. A. are less vulnerable to environmental difficulties B. learn to care for themselves very quickly C. have a genetic resistance to infection D. require parental care for a longer time than other animals Answer: D. require parental care for a longer time than other animals Correct: As we learned in Chapter 1, this is a result of evolutionary history. A. are less vulnerable to environmental difficulties Incorrect: The environment has a greater effect and parental care is required for a longer period than with other animals. 52. DeCasper and Spence asked mothers to read The Cat in the Hat to their fetuses every day for the last six weeks of their pregnancies. After the birth, babies showed a preference for _______________. A. hearing their mothers read any Dr. Seuss book B. their mother’s voice C. rhymic tapping D. hearing their mothers read The Cat in the Hat Answer: D. hearing their mothers read The Cat in the Hat Correct: The babies preferred this even over similar rhyming stories they had not heard before. C. rhymic tapping Incorrect: The babies showed a preference for The Cat in the Hat. 53. What do fetuses do when their mothers are highly stressed? A. become very still B. move more and have faster heart rates C. suck their thumbs D. hold their hands to their ears Answer: B. move more and have faster heart rates Correct: Fetuses respond in kind to their mothers’ stress levels. A. become very still Incorrect: They generally move more and have faster heart rates when their mothers are stressed. 54. Your roommate is pregnant and she gets very angry and yells quite a bit over the smallest things. What is a good piece of advice that you could give her? A. It is OK if she gets upset, but she should not yell. It will harm the fetus’s hearing. B. Getting angry and yelling is good for the fetus since it will raise the fetus’s heart rate. C. She should probably get a different boyfriend. He is not going to be a very good father . D. That she should try relaxation therapy. Whenever she gets really upset, her fetus gets very upset too. Answer: D. That she should try relaxation therapy. Whenever she gets really upset, her fetus gets very upset too. Correct: Fetuses generally move more and have faster heart rates when their mothers are stressed. C. She should probably get a different boyfriend. He is not going to be a very good father . Incorrect: She should try relaxation therapy. 55. The Beng people of the Ivory Coast have several practices and suggestions for pregnant women. Which of the following is an example of a suggestion that can be very helpful to the pregnant woman? A. avoid eating the meat from a bushbuck antelope B. rub an oil on her belly C. her husband must stop hunting while she is pregnant D. she must not commit any immoral behavior Answer: B. rub an oil on her belly Correct: This will help her skin from feeling uncomfortably tight. D. she must not commit any immoral behavior Incorrect: They rub an oil on her belly to help her skin from feeling uncomfortable. 56. Which of the following is the best practical advice of the Beng people of the West African nation of Ivory Coast? A. Do not drink palm wine during the early months of pregnancy. B. Rub oil on the swelling belly to relief discomfort. C. Avoid eating meat from a bushbuck antelope. D. Do not cast any curse on any enemies because your baby will become a witch. Answer: A. Do not drink palm wine during the early months of pregnancy. Correct: Drinking alcohol when pregnant can cause widespread damage to prenatal development. B. Rub oil on the swelling belly to relief discomfort. Incorrect: This is actually encouraged as it helps skin elasticity. 57. Many traditional cultures do not have access to trained physicians but may rely on which of the following individuals during the prenatal period? A. nurse B. midwife C. staff from the World Health Organization D. paramedics Answer: B. midwife Correct: Midwives assist in prenatal care and the birth process. C. staff from the World Health Organization Incorrect: Midwives are commonly used. 58. Based upon the reading, a midwife might perform a(n) _______________ if the fetus’s feet are pointed towards the vaginal opening. A. diversion B. prenatal massage C. inversion D. amniocentesis Answer: C. inversion Correct: If the fetus is turned in an unfavorable position, so that it would be likely to come out feet first rather than head first, the midwife will attempt an inversion to turn the fetus’s head toward the vaginal opening. B. prenatal massage Incorrect: If the fetus is turned in an unfavorable position, so that it would be likely to come out feet first rather than head first, the midwife will attempt an inversion to turn the fetus’s head toward the vaginal opening. 59. A method of prenatal care that has been used by traditional cultures that is now being used by midwives, nurses, and physicians in developed countries is _______________. A. dancing B. singing C. daily naps D. massage Answer: D. massage Correct: Prenatal massage has a long history in many cultures. In recent years, it has also begun to be used by midwives, nurses, and physicians in developed countries. C. daily naps Incorrect: Prenatal massage has a long history in many cultures. In recent years, it has also begun to be used by midwives, nurses, and physicians in developed countries. 60. In recent years prenatal massage in developed countries has _______________. A. increased B. decreased C. remained the same D. not been statistically tracked Answer: A 61. Recent scientific studies have shown that women should gain _______________ pounds during pregnancy. A. 15–20 B. 25–30 C. 35–40 D. 45–50 Answer: B 62. Women who gain less than 20 pounds are more likely to have babies who are _______________. A. more likely to be obese during childhood B. above average in intelligence C. preterm and have low birth weight D. more likely to have heart disease later in life Answer: C 63. Your friend is worried that she will gain quite a bit of weight since she is now pregnant. She is planning on dieting. What would be your advice? A. Tell her to definitely diet, this will insure that her children will not be obese. B. Tell her that dieting increases intelligence in neonates. C. Tell her that dieting could lead to her baby being born preterm and having a low birth weight. D. That it would be a good idea to keep her weight gain under 20 pounds. Answer: C. Tell her that dieting could lead to her baby being born preterm and having a low birth weight. Correct: Women should gain 25–35 pounds during pregnancy. B. Tell her that dieting increases intelligence in neonates. Incorrect: Dieting leads to low birth weight and prematurity. 64. What are possible side effects for the baby of a woman who gains less than 20 pounds during her pregnancy? A. Down syndrome and Fragile X B. gestational diabetes C. high blood pressure and gastrointestinal problems D. the baby may be born preterm with a low birth weight Answer: D. the baby may be born preterm with a low birth weight Correct: Scientific studies have shown that adequate weight gain during pregnancy is crucial for the health of both the mother and the baby. C. high blood pressure and gastrointestinal problems Incorrect: Scientific studies have shown that women should typically gain 25–35 pounds during pregnancy, and women who gain less than 20 pounds are at risk for having babies who are preterm and low birth weight. 65. Based upon the accumulated scientific knowledge on prenatal care, which of the following is the greatest thing a woman who is pregnant can do? A. avoid drinking of any alcohol B. minimize as much stress as possible C. receive regular evaluations from a health care professional D. cut all caffeine from her diet Answer: C. receive regular evaluations from a health care professional Correct: The percentage of woman who receive regular prenatal care beginning early in pregnancy varies greatly based on ethnicity and SES. A. avoid drinking of any alcohol Incorrect: Most professionals agree that regular prenatal care is the greatest thing a pregnant woman can do. 66. Compared to developed countries, what percentage of maternal and infant deaths occur in developing countries? A. 99% B. 75% C. 50% D. 25% Answer: A 67. _______________% of maternal and infant deaths occur in developing countries; whereas, _______________% occur in developed countries. A. 1; 99 B. 25; 75 C. 75; 25 D. 99; 1 Answer: D 68. The guidelines for prenatal care focus mostly on three key areas _______________. A. rest, stress reduction, and the avoidance of fatty foods B. diet, exercise, and avoidance of teratogens C. exercise, mental state, and relaxation D. prenatal vitamins, exercise, and avoidance of caffeine Answer: B 69. Although many people say that pregnant women should be “eating for two,” how many more calories should a pregnant woman eat each day? A. 2,000 B. 1,000 C. 800 D. 300 Answer: D 70. Your sister has been pregnant for a few months. She jokes that she is “eating for two” and has been eating quite a bit. You know that this is really not a good idea and are concerned that she will gain too much weight. How many more calories a day would you tell her that she would need to consume while she is pregnant? A. 2,000 B. 1,000 C. 800 D. 300 Answer: D. 300 Correct: A healthy weight gain during pregnancy is typically 25–35 pounds. C. 800 Incorrect: Pregnant women should only eat 300 additional calories on average, during her pregnancy. 71. Rosa is in her first trimester and her mother continually encourages her to eat more reminding her that she is now eating for two. Based upon the text, is Rosa’s mother giving her sound advice? A. Yes, women who are pregnant should double their caloric intake. B. No, women who are pregnant only need about 300 more calories. C. Yes, pregnant women should eat more but it should come from grains. D. No, pregnant women should not eat more as their bodies do not need any more calories than an average woman. Answer: B. No, women who are pregnant only need about 300 more calories. Correct: A healthy weight gain during pregnancy is typically 25–35 pounds. A. Yes, women who are pregnant should double their caloric intake. Incorrect: Pregnant women should eat somewhat more than they did prior to pregnancy, but only by about 300 calories a day. 72. Iron-rich foods such as beef, duck, potatoes, spinach, and dried fruits are important in what way for the pregnant mother and fetus? These foods help to _______________. A. build the blood supply of the mother and fetus B. increase the muscle mass of the fetus C. assist in visual development of the fetus D. provide nutrients for proper brain development Answer: A. build the blood supply of the mother and fetus Correct: Iron deficiencies place women at risk of delivering preterm or low-birth-weight babies. C. assist in visual development of the fetus Incorrect: Iron-rich foods help to build the blood supply of the mother and fetus. 73. Low iodine intake during pregnancy increases the risks of miscarriage, stillbirth, and abnormalities in fetal brain development. As a result, what has been done since the 1920s in developed countries? A. women receive iodine injections B. salt has been iodized C. babies are given iodine baths after birth D. fetuses are examined with ultrasound Answer: B. salt has been iodized Correct: Iodine deficiencies are still a risk in developing countries. A. women receive iodine injections Incorrect: Salt has been iodized. 74. As compared with developing nations, the rate of miscarriage, stillbirth, and abnormalities in fetal brain development have been lowered because iodine has been added to _______________. A. salt B. school lunches C. bread D. the water supply Answer: A 75. Shantel is talking to her grandmother about how she is continuing her moderate exercise program while she is pregnant. However, Grandma warns her not to exercise because she holds the outdated belief, once common in developed countries, that Shantel is _______________. A. in a physical state similar to a disability or illness B. too physically weak and could fall C. going to harm the baby while exercising D. going to stimulate a preterm birth Answer: A. in a physical state similar to a disability or illness Correct: Until a few decades ago, it was widely believed in developed countries that pregnant women were too fragile to walk or carry groceries. D. going to stimulate a preterm birth Incorrect: Until a few decades ago, it was widely believed in developed countries that pregnancy was a kind of disability or illness. 76. According to the text, what enhances the health of the pregnant woman and her fetus? A. mild to moderate exercise B. drinking several cups of tea each day C. eating herbs D. conserving energy Answer: A. mild to moderate exercise Correct: One benefit is that mild to moderate oxygen increases a woman’s ability to process oxygen for herself and her fetus. D. conserving energy Incorrect: Mild to moderate exercise enhances the health of the pregnant woman and her fetus. 77. What is an example of an aerobic exercise? A. walking/jogging B. weight lifting C. sprinting D. jumping Answer: A. walking/jogging Correct: These stimulate a woman’s muscular and circulatory systems. C. sprinting Incorrect: Walking/jogging are examples of aerobic exercise. 78. Why is aerobic exercise important to a pregnant woman? It helps to _______________. A. lower muscle mass B. increase fetal heart rate C. stops dangerous teratogens from reaching the fetus D. increase the woman’s ability to process oxygen Answer: D. increase the woman’s ability to process oxygen Correct: This in turn benefits her fetus. A. lower muscle mass Incorrect: It increases the woman’s ability to process oxygen. 79. Your best friend has just learned that she is pregnant. She is a healthy person and is planning on engaging in aerobic exercise during her pregnancy. What would be your advice to her? She should _______________. A. be very careful in that this type of exercise during pregnancy could lower muscle mass B. not run too quickly in that it could dangerously increase fetal heart rate C. exercise regularly since it will stop dangerous teratogens from reaching the fetus D. exercise regularly in that she will increase her ability to process oxygen Answer: D. exercise regularly in that she will increase her ability to process oxygen Correct: Moderate aerobic exercise increases a pregnant woman’s ability to process oxygen, a benefit for both her and the fetus. A. be very careful in that this type of exercise during pregnancy could lower muscle mass Incorrect: Aerobic exercise increases a pregnant woman’s ability to process oxygen, a benefit for both her and the fetus. 80. According to the text, what type of exercise stimulates the circulatory and muscular systems of the woman’s body and increases her ability to process oxygen? A. meditation B. active Stretching C. weight training D. aerobic exercise Answer: D. aerobic exercise Correct: Moderate aerobic provides benefit for both a pregnant woman and her fetus. C. weight training Incorrect: Aerobic exercise stimulates the circulatory and muscular systems. 81. What exercise strengthens the vaginal muscles and helps prepare the mother for the delivery of the fetus? A. bench presses B. squats C. Kegels D. abdominal crunches Answer: C 82. How are Kegel exercises performed? By tensing the _______________. A. muscles of the vagina and anus repeatedly for 10-second intervals B. abdominal muscles repeatedly for 15-second intervals C. quadriceps and hamstrings repeatedly for 10-second intervals D. muscles of the lower back repeatedly for 10-second intervals Answer: A. muscles of the vagina and anus repeatedly for 10-second intervals Correct: This strengthens the vaginal muscles in preparation for delivery of the fetus. B. abdominal muscles repeatedly for 15-second intervals Incorrect: Kegel exercises are performed by tensing the muscles of the vagina and anus. 83. Your aunt is pregnant for the first time. She has heard that Kegel exercises are a good idea, but does not know how to perform them. You would tell her to tense the _______________. A. muscles of the vagina and anus repeatedly for 10-second intervals B. abdominal muscles repeatedly for 15-second intervals C. quadriceps and hamstrings repeatedly for 10-second intervals D. muscles of the lower back repeatedly for 10-second intervals Answer: A. muscles of the vagina and anus repeatedly for 10-second intervals Correct: This strengthens the vaginal muscles in preparation for delivery of the fetus. B. abdominal muscles repeatedly for 15-second intervals Incorrect: Kegel exercises involve tensing the muscles of the vagina and anus repeated for 10-second intervals. 84. Which of the following exercise should be avoided during pregnancy? A. any contact sports B. walking C. light jogging D. swimming Answer: A. any contact sports Correct: Contact sports are too traumatic for pregnant women. C. light jogging Incorrect: Light jogging is recommended for pregnant women. 85. Your sister works at the post office. She is pregnant and stands at the service desk for her entire shift. You are worried that this will affect her fetus’s health. What do you tell her? That she should _______________. A. take a break and sit for a couple of minutes every half an hour. Continuous standing has been linked to miscarriages and premature births B. try to relax, being pregnant is great C. continue working, staying active is great for pregnant women and their fetuses D. get a new job; working with the public exposes her to teratogens on a daily basis Answer: A. take a break and sit for a couple of minutes every half an hour. Continuous standing has been linked to miscarriages and premature births Correct: Continuous standing has been linked to an increased risk of miscarriages and premature births. Therefore, it's advisable for pregnant women, especially those in jobs that require standing for extended periods, to take regular breaks and sit down to reduce the strain on their bodies and the potential risk to their fetus. C. continue working, staying active is great for pregnant women and their fetuses Incorrect: She should take frequent breaks. 86. Heavy lifting, continuous standing, and strenuous physical exertion raise the risks of _______________. A. postmaturity in the fetus B. difficulties associated with neuronal development C. miscarriages and premature births D. chromosomal errors in the fetus Answer: C. miscarriages and premature births Correct: Pregnant women are advised to reduce strenuous physical activity. A. postmaturity in the fetus Incorrect: These activities raise the risks of miscarriage and premature birth. 87. _______________ is described as behaviors, environments, and bodily conditions that could be harmful to a fetus. A. Lanugo B. Teratogens C. Vernix D. Trophoblast Answer: B 88. What term refers to malnutrition, disease, alcohol, tobacco, and other drugs that are harmful to the fetus? A. teratogens B. pathogens C. carcinogens D. fetogens Answer: A 89. Which of the following are examples of teratogens? A. calcium, iron, and iodine B. prenatal vitamins and micronutrients C. meats, grains, and legumes D. alcohol, tobacco, and other drugs Answer: D Short Answer Questions 90. In what prenatal period are the lanugo and vernix formed? Explain what they are. Answer: Both are formed during the fetal period. The vernix is the waxy coating that protects the skin while floating in the amnionic fluid; the lanugo is the fine hair that helps the vernix to stick to the skin. 91. Give an example of pregnancy advice that reflects cultural wisdom in traditional cultures. What is a plausible explanation that this advice is passed down from generation to generation? Answer: Among the Beng people of West Africa, women are warned against drinking palm wine during pregnancy and also to avoid eating the meat of the bushback antelope (or the baby may be born with stripes). These warnings reflect the fact that people in these cultures know that many things can go wrong during pregnancy and these tips may offer a sense of control. 92. Who usually performs prenatal massages in traditional cultures? Are there benefits to prenatal massage besides making the mother feel good and more relaxed? Explain. Answer: It is usually performed by a midwife. Benefits to mother include less back pain, less swelling of joints, better sleep, and a better chance that the fetus will come out head first. Neonates score better on physical and social measures. 93. Recall the World Health Organization’s guidelines for prenatal care. Name one nutrient that is of critical importance during pregnancy, where women would get it, and what the consequences would be of not having it. Answer: Iodine. In developed countries, iodine is added to salt. Without it, there is increased risk of miscarriage, stillbirth, or abnormal brain development. Iodine is more readily available in developed countries. 94. How much weight should a woman gain during pregnancy (provide an approximate range)? Provide one diet or exercise recommendation. Answer: Women should gain between 25-35 pounds. They should drink more fluids and they should eat plenty of fruits and vegetables, especially iron-rich foods, such as leafy greens. Essay Questions 95. Choose one prenatal period and provide a detailed overview of what happens. Include when it occurs. Answer: The germinal period (0-2 wks. After conception) includes the formation of the zygote, rapid cell division forming a 100-celled blastocyst, and implantation. The outer layer of the blastocyst, the trophoblast, develops into the structures that will house and nourish the embryo (amnion, placental, umbilical cord). The inner layer becomes the embryonic disk which eventually forms the embryo. 96. What does viability mean, and how likely is a fetus to be viable at 22 weeks? At 26 weeks? Why would this vary depending upon whether a person lives in a developed or a developing country? What is the main obstacle to viability even by the beginning of the third trimester? Answer: This is when a fetus would be able to survive outside the womb. Survival is unlikely before 22 weeks, even with medical intervention. Even if babies do survive when they are premature, they are at greater risk for birth defects and disabilities compared to full-term babies. In developing countries, there is less access to medical supplies and facilities, so the age of viability is later than in developed countries (some time in the third trimester, depending on the country and its technology). The reason babies are so vulnerable even in the third trimester is their immature lungs. MyDevelopmentLab Question Bank Pre-Test 1. After fertilization, the first 2 weeks of pregnancy is called _______________. A. the germinal period B. the embryonic period C. the fetal period D. Sequence-one pregnancy period Answer: A 2. The _______________ form from the outer layer of the embryonic disk. A. skin, hair, nails, sensory organs, and nervous system B. brain and spinal cord C. lungs and heart D. digestive and respiratory systems Answer: A 3. What is the last major organ system to develop during the fetal period? A. lungs B. heart C. intestines D. kidneys Answer: A 4. According to the text, when a pregnant mother becomes highly stressed a fetus may _______________. A. develop a faster heart rate and move more frequently B. become very ill and sick C. hold their hands over their eyes, covering them D. suck their fingers and bite their nails Answer: A 5. There is a rumor that pregnant women should dramatically increase their caloric intake and "eat for two"; however, it is known that pregnant women need about _______________ more calories than those who are not pregnant. A. 300 B. 600 C. 900 D. 1200 Answer: A 6. For women who are pregnant, heavy lifting, strenuous physical exertion, and continuous standing can raise the risk of _______________. A. miscarriages, preterm birth, and stillbirth B. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome C. difficulties associated with neuronal migration D. chromosomal errors in fetal development Answer: A 7. The embryonic disk forms from the _______________ of the blastocyst and develops to become the embryo. A. inner layer B. outer layer C. right-lateral side D. dorsal-lateral side Answer: A 8. During the embryonic period, the ectoderm develops to become _______________. A. skin, hair, nails, sensory organs, and nervous system B. muscles, bones, reproductive system, and circulatory system. C. the digestive and respiratory systems D. the limbic system Answer: A 9. Your friend is pregnant and worried that she will gain weight. Having been extremely thin, she is planning to diet to maintain her figure. After reading the text what is your advice to her? A. Avoid dieting. It could lead to her baby being born preterm and having low birth weight. B. Definitely diet as this will insure that her children will not be obese. C. Definitely diet; it increases intelligence and test scores later in life. D. Dieting is a good idea because it increases muscle tone in the baby. Answer: A 10. Low iodine intake during pregnancy increases the risks of miscarriage, stillbirth, and abnormalities in fetal brain development. Since the 1920s the United States has required table salt to have iodine, which is a similar practice to many countries that have economic wealth and resources. In what county is the lack of iodine most likely still an issue for pregnant women? A. Cambodia, which is a developing country. B. Canada, which is a developed country. C. Great Britain, which is a Western country. D. Japan, which is a Non-western country. Answer: A Post-Test 1. By the 8th day after conception, the fertilized egg has approximately 100 cells and is known as the _______________. A. blastocyst B. fetus C. embryo D. neonate Answer: A 2. _______________ is the embryonic structure that develops into the brain and spinal cord. A. Neural tube B. Cerebral cortex C. Neuroblast D. Brainstem Answer: A 3. Recent scientific studies have concluded that most women should gain _______________ pounds during pregnancy. A. 15 to 20 B. 25 to 35 C. 35 to 40 D. 45 to 50 Answer: B 4. As compared to developed countries, _______________ percent of maternal and infant deaths occur in developing countries. A. 99 B. 75 C. 50 D. 15 Answer: A 5. _______________ provides a protective environment in which the fetus' temperature is regulated and protects the fetus from friction caused by the mother's movements. A. The amnion B. The placenta C. The umbilical cord D. The germinal structure Answer: A 6. Which of the following enhances the health of a pregnant woman and the fetus? A. Mild to moderate exercise B. Drinking several cups of tea each day C. Consuming coffee and eating herbs D. Conserving energy and eating fatty foods Answer: A 7. Aerobic exercise is important to pregnant women because it helps to _______________. A. lower muscle mass and increase fat mass B. increase fetal heart rate and blood pressure C. stop dangerous teratogens from reaching the fetus D. increase the woman's ability to produce oxygen Answer: D 8. Your sister is pregnant. She has always been health-conscious and exercises regularly. She is planning on engaging in aerobic exercise by continuing to go to her exercise classes. What would be your advice to her? She should _______________. A. exercise regularly as she will increase her ability to process oxygen B. be very careful as this type of exercise during pregnancy could lower muscle mass C. not run too quickly as it could dangerously increase fetal heart rate D. exercise regularly since it will stop dangerous teratogens from reaching the fetus Answer: A 9. Your niece is pregnant. She has heard that Kegel exercises are a good idea, but does not know how to perform them. Having a very close relationship, you would tell her to tense the _______________. A. muscles of the vagina and anus repeatedly for 10-second intervals B. abdominal muscles repeatedly for 15-second intervals C. quadriceps and hamstrings repeatedly for 10-second intervals D. muscles of the lower back repeatedly for 10-second intervals Answer: A 10. Samantha has always been a very active person and exercises regularly. During pregnancy she was concerned that maybe she was doing too much and it could be harmful for the fetus. Her physician told her that her exercise routine, which consisted of meditation, active stretching, Yoga, and aerobic exercise, was fine. He even suggested that one of the activities positively stimulated her circulatory and muscular systems. According to the text, which of the following is Samantha's physician referring to? A. Meditation B. Active stretching C. Yoga D. Aerobic exercise Answer: D Chapter Exam 1. Your sister is pregnant and has a job where she is constantly on her feet and works with the public. You are worried about her. What advice do you give your sister? A. Take a break and sit for a couple of minutes every half hour. Continuous standing has been linked to miscarriages and premature births. B. Continue working, staying on your feet all day is good for pregnant women and their fetuses. C. Get a new job, working with the public exposes her to teratogens on a daily basis. D. Try to relax, being pregnant is awesome! Answer: A 2. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of development during the germinal period? A. blastocyst, implantation, placenta B. placenta, implantation, blastocyst C. placenta, blastocyst, implantation D. implantation, placenta, blastocyst Answer: A 3. The blastocyst generally implants itself to the uterine wall during _______________. A. the 2nd week after conception B. at conception C. the 5th week after conception D. the 7th week after conception Answer: A 4. It is during the _______________ period of prenatal development that nearly all the major organs are formed? A. embryonic B. zygotic C. fetal D. chromosomal Answer: A 5. After what month do women generally feel the fetus move? A. 2nd B. 4th C. 6th D. 8th Answer: B 6. Researchers DeCasper and Spence asked pregnant mothers to read The Cat in the Hat every day for the last six weeks of their pregnancies. After birth, babies showed a preference for _______________. A. hearing their mothers read The Cat in the Hat. B. seeing their mothers read The Cat in the Hat. C. hearing their mothers read any book. D. seeing their mothers read any book. Answer: A 7. Your cousin is hot-tempered and gets very angry and yells quite a bit; even over little things. Which of the following is good advice for your cousin? A. She should try to relax. Whenever she gets really upset, her fetus' heart beats faster. B. It is okay if she gets upset, but she should not yell. It will harm the fetus' hearing. C. Getting angry and yelling is good for the fetus since it will raise the fetus' heart rate. D. She should probably get a different job. Her current job doesn't pay very well and makes her upset. Answer: A 8. Many traditional cultures do not have access to trained physicians but rely on _______________ during the prenatal period? A. midwives B. paramedics C. nurses D. staff from the World Health Organization Answer: A 9. Based upon scientific studies, the average female should gain _______________ pounds during pregnancy. A. 15-20 B. 25-35 C. 35-40 D. 40-45 Answer: B 10. The Beng people have several suggestions for pregnant women. Which of the following is an example of a Beng suggestion that can be helpful for any pregnant woman? A. Rub oil on your belly. B. Avoid eating any meat. C. Have your husband refrain from hunting. D. Use mud to protect your skin from biting insects. Answer: A 11. _______________ has been used by many traditional cultures as a method of prenatal care and is now in vogue with many midwives, nurses, and physicians in developed countries. A. Massage B. Dancing C. Daily napping D. Singing Answer: A 12. Which of the following is the single greatest thing a woman who is pregnant can do to take care of herself and her unborn child? A. Receive regular evaluations from a healthcare professional. B. Avoid drinking alcohol. C. Minimize exercise. D. Cut out all caffeine from her diet. Answer: A 13. During pregnancy, iron-rich foods help to _______________. A. build the blood supply of the mother and fetus B. increase the muscle mass of the fetus C. assist in visual development of the fetus D. provide nutrients for proper brain development Answer: A 14. Your nephew was present at the birth of his new brother. Immediately after the baby traveled through the birth canal, your nephew looks horrified when he sees his new sibling. Looking at you, he asks, "What is that white, fuzzy stuff all over the baby?" You tell him _______________. A. that it is amniotic fluid B. it is lanugo, and that many babies have it at birth as it protects their skin in utero C. that it is lactate because the baby was suckling while in vitro D. that it is probably an excess of white blood cells that became stuck to the baby Answer: B 15. Researchers have concluded that by the end of the sixth month, fetuses respond to environmental noises. At birth, which of the following do most infants prefer? A. the sound of their mother's voice B. the sound of classical music C. the sound of rock and roll music D. the sound of naturescapes and animals Answer: A Quick Review 1. _______________ is described as behaviors, environments, and bodily conditions that could be harmful to a fetus. A. Teratogens B. Lanugo C. Hypertension D. Tachycardia Answer: A 2. _______________ is the structure that forms into the organ that protects and allows nourishment to pass from the mother to the newly formed organism during the prenatal period. A. The trophoblast B. The umbilical cord C. The umbryonic disk D. The amnion fluid Answer: A 3. The white slimy substance that covers the fetus' skin is known as: A. lanugo B. vernix C. keratin D. tendons Answer: B 4. Which of the following are 3 key areas that are the guidelines for prenatal care focus? A. Avoidance of teratogens, diet, and exercise B. Prenatal vitamins, exercise, and avoidance of caffeine C. rest, stress reduction, and the avoidance of fatty foods D. exercise, psychological wellbeing, and relaxation Answer: A 5. _______________ is the term that refers to malnutrition, disease, alcohol, tobacco and other drugs that are harmful to the fetus. A. Teratogens B. Pathogens C. Carcinogens D. Phellogens Answer: A 6. For those who are pregnant, which of the following exercises should be avoided? A. Any contact sport B. Walking C. Light jogging D. Yoga Answer: A 7. When does the fetal period of prenatal development begin? A. Eight weeks after conception B. Four weeks after conception C. Twelve weeks after conception D. Sixteen weeks after conception Answer: A 8. During pregnancy Kegel exercises are recommended, and they are performed by tensing the _______________. A. muscles of the vagina and anus repeatedly for 10-second intervals B. abdominal muscles repeatedly for 15-second intervals C. quadriceps and hamstrings repeatedly for 10-second intervals D. muscles of the lower back repeatedly for 10-second intervals Answer: A 9. Newborns weighing less than _______________ pounds are at risk for a wide range of developmental difficulties. A. 5.5 B. 7.5 C. 9.5 D. 11.5 Answer: A 10. At birth, which of the following is a result of newborn's immature and underdeveloped brain? A. Newborns are less vulnerable to environmental difficulties. B. Newborns learn to care for themselves very quickly. C. Newborns have a genetic resistance to infection. D. Newborns require parental care for a longer time than other animals. Answer: D Video Guide Questions Short Answer Questions 1. Do you think the American expectant mother’s experience is typical of most expectant mothers in the U.S.? Why or why not? Answer: No, the experience of the American expectant mother may not be typical for all expectant mothers in the U.S. as pregnancy experiences can vary widely based on factors such as socioeconomic status, access to healthcare, cultural background, and individual health conditions. 2. Compare and contrast the American expectant mother’s experience with the Mayan expectant mother’s experience. Answer: The expectant American mother and the Mayan mother both seem very up-beat and excited about being pregnant. Both of the expectant mothers discuss eating healthy fruits and vegetables. Both expectant mothers discuss the fact that they see a doctor for routine visits. The Mayan expectant mother tells the viewers that she is also seeing a midwife for massage. The American expectant mother tells the viewers that she has a number of routine tests performed at her doctor visits as well as two ultrasounds that have been conducted to view the baby. The American expectant mother discusses exercise and yoga. 3. Describe the role of the midwife interviewed here. What are some advantages of seeing a doctor vs. a midwife as listed by the mothers in this clip? Answer: The role of the midwife from this video is to provide, quite literally, a hands-on experience to the expectant mothers. She discusses that she checks the baby with her hands and massages to help maintain a good position. She can reposition the baby if it is not in the appropriate position. She also discusses the use of an herb that can very effectively change the gender of the fetus. One of the expectant mothers in the clip states that she is seeing a physician because it is her first child and therefore more risk is involved. She adds that if there is trouble while she is in labor the doctor can perform a Caesarian section while a midwife would not have that capability. The American expectant mother discusses the testing that her physician is able to perform, and does not make mention of the use of a midwife. Multiple Choice Questions 1. According to the video, which of the following is an important part of prenatal care in rural Mayan Mexico? A. drinking 10 glasses of water a day B. prenatal massage C. prayer D. eating two additional meals Answer: B 2. Which of the following was not mentioned by the American expectant mother as part of the routine visits to her doctor? A. cardiovascular check B. blood pressure check C. weight check D. measure fundal height Answer: A 3. The American expectant mother mentioned all of the following ways that she maintains her healthy pregnancy except for which of the following? A. goes to the gym twice per week B. yoga C. jogging D. eating a healthier diet Answer: C Section 3 Pregnancy Problems Test Item File Multiple Choice Questions 1. During meiosis, at times chromosomes sometimes fail to divide properly and as a result the person may have 45 or 47 chromosomes. Which of the following best describes this phenomenon? A. chromosomal disorder B. genetic misprinting C. mitosis error D. gene displacement Answer: A 2. It is estimated that half of all conceptions have too many or too few chromosomes. According to the text, what happens to most of the zygotes that are formed in these situations? A. They are spontaneously aborted. B. They result in neonates with birth defects. C. They result in twins. D. They have no problems. Answer: A 3. Approximately how many neonates have a chromosomal disorder? A. 1 in 10 B. 1 in 200 C. 1 in 500 D. 1 in 1,000 Answer: B 4. Your friend just found out that she is pregnant after trying for six months. But she is paranoid that she is going to have a baby with a chromosomal disorder. You try to reassure her by telling her that the rate of babies born with chromosomal disorders is _______________. A. 1 in 10 B. 1 in 200 C. 1 in 500 D. 1 in 1,000 Answer: B. 1 in 200 Correct: There are two main types of chromosomal disorders: ones that involve sex chromosomes and ones that take place on the twenty-first pair of chromosomes. C. 1 in 500 Incorrect: Approximately 1 in 200 neonates have a chromosomal disorder. 5. Approximately how many neonates have some type of sex chromosome disorder? A. 1 in 10 B. 1 in 200 C. 1 in 500 D. 1 in 1,000 Answer: C 6. What are two common consequences of sex chromosome disorders? A. Shortened stature and the likelihood to develop nonorganic failure to thrive. B. An increased likelihood to have a pregnancy that is preterm and an infant with low birth weight C. The infant is more likely to have a difficult temperament and an insecure attachment D. Cognitive deficits and abnormal development of the reproductive system at puberty Answer: D. Cognitive deficits and abnormal development of the reproductive system at puberty Correct: Mental retardation, learning disabilities, and speech impairments are all common. C. The infant is more likely to have a difficult temperament and an insecure attachment Incorrect: Cognitive deficits tend to be a side effect of various sex-linked disorders. 7. One of the consequences of having a sex chromosomal disorder is that it might disrupt development of the reproductive system at puberty. What can be done about the difficulty at puberty? A. Role playing therapy B. Hormone replacement treatment C. Group therapy D. Strenuous exercise Answer: B. Hormone replacement treatment Correct: This can often effectively correct the problems caused by a sex chromosomal disorder. A. Role playing therapy Incorrect: The type of treatment would be hormone replacement therapy. 8. An individual with Down syndrome has how many chromosomes? A. 45 B. 46 C. 47 D. 48 Answer: C 9. Down syndrome is also known as trisomy-21 because individuals with Down syndrome _______________. A. have three distinct facial features by the 21st week of pregnancy B. show three distinct temperament patterns by the 21st week of infancy C. have a third chromosome on the 21st pair D. have 21 genes on the 3rd pair of chromosomes Answer: C. have a third chromosome on the 21st pair Correct: Individuals with Down syndrome have an extra chromosome on the 21st pair. D. have 21 genes on the 3rd pair of chromosomes Incorrect: Individuals with Down syndrome have an extra chromosome on the 21st pair. 10. What is another name for trisomy-21? A. Non Sex-linked-21 B. intellectual disability C. Edward’s syndrome D. Down syndrome Answer: D 11. What disorder includes the following characteristics: short, stocky build; flat face; a large tongue; extra fold of skin on the eyelids; and possible cognitive deficits, hearing impairments, and heart defects? A. Non Sex-linked-21 B. Down syndrome C. Edward’s syndrome D. intellectual disability Answer: B 12. What helps children with trisomy-21 develop more favorably? A. hormone replacement therapy B. weekly motor treatments C. a heart transplant D. supportive and encouraging parents Answer: D. supportive and encouraging parents Correct: Intervention programs in infancy and childhood have also been shown to have positive effects. B. weekly motor treatments Incorrect: Children with trisomy-21 need supportive and encouraging parents. 13. Adult individuals with trisomy-21 are _______________. A. often able to hold a job that is highly structured with simple tasks B. most likely institutionalized C. not likely to make it to age 30 D. as likely as individuals who do not have trisomy-21 to enter college Answer: A. often able to hold a job that is highly structured with simple tasks Correct: With adequate social support an adult with Down syndrome can often successfully hold a job, B. most likely institutionalized Incorrect: Adults with trisomy-21 can hold jobs that are highly structured with simple tasks. 14. Individuals who have what disorder are more likely to develop leukemia, cancer, Alzheimer’s disease, or heart disease at earlier ages than usual (in their thirties and forties)? A. Non Sex-linked-21 B. Down syndrome C. Edward’s syndrome D. intellectual disability Answer: B 15. Children born with chromosomal problems are almost always born to parents with _______________. A. the very same chromosomal problem B. similar genetic disorders C. above average intelligence D. no genetic or chromosomal problems Answer: D 16. Which of the following increases the risk of having a child with Down syndrome? A. smoking while pregnant B. alcohol consumption C. maternal age D. paternal stress Answer: C 17. How old are the ova of a 42 year-old woman trying to conceive? A. 2 weeks B. 2 months C. 2 years D. 42 years Answer: D. 42 years Correct: As we learned earlier in the chapter, a female produces all the ova she will ever have while she is still in the womb. B. 2 months Incorrect: A 42-year-old woman’s ova are 42 years old. 18. Which period of prenatal development is considered the critical period and also a time in which teratogens can have a profound effect that endure into adulthood? A. conception B. germinal period C. embryonic period D. fetal period Answer: C. embryonic period Correct: The embryonic period lasts from the third to the eighth week after conception. B. germinal period Incorrect: The placenta is not fully formed during the embryonic period. 19. What describes the profound and enduring effect on later development that teratogens can have during the embryonic period? A. critical period B. sensitive period C. embryonic period D. fetal period Answer: A. critical period Correct: The embryonic period lasts from the third to the eighth week after conception. B. sensitive period Incorrect: The profound and enduring effect on later development that teratogens can have during the embryonic period describes a critical period. 20. During which period are the major organs being formed at a rapid rate? A. zygotic B. embryonic C. fetal D. infancy Answer: B 21. What are the major teratogens during the fetal period? A. lack of maternal sleep and lack of exercise B. excessive maternal weight gain and maternal age C. malnutrition and tobacco D. sugar and starch Answer: C. malnutrition and tobacco Correct: Malnutrition and tobacco use are the major teratogens during the fetal period. D. sugar and starch Incorrect: The major teratogens during the fetal period are malnutrition and tobacco. 22. According to the text, what is the most common teratogen worldwide? A. malnutrition B. tobacco C. alcohol D. infectious disease Answer: A 23. From a global perspective, which of the following is the most common teratogen to affect pregnancies? A. lead B. malnutrition C. alcohol D. rubella Answer: B 24. Prenatal health depends on proper prenatal nutrition. Since approximately 50% of the world’s population is rural, pregnant women _______________. A. have access to fruits and vegetables year round B. are malnourished regardless year round C. cannot afford required vitamins recommended by their physicians D. may only eat well only during the summer and fall Answer: D. may only eat well only during the summer and fall Correct: The diet of people in rural areas can vary dramatically depending on the season B. are malnourished regardless year round Incorrect: Pregnant women who live in rural areas may only eat well during the summer and fall when the crops have been harvested. 25. What is the condition when infants are born with parts of their brain missing? A. spina bifida B. anencephaly C. microcephaly D. exoancephaly Answer: B 26. What is the condition in which the neonate is born with an extreme distortion in the shape of the spinal column? A. spina bifida B. anencephaly C. microencephaly D. exoancephaly Answer: A 27. During pregnancy, deficiencies in folic acid may result in _______________. A. low birth weight and premature delivery B. anencephaly and spina bifida C. Down syndrome and Turner syndrome D. HIV and malaria Answer: B. anencephaly and spina bifida Correct: Folic acid is the key to preventing these conditions. A. low birth weight and premature delivery Incorrect: Pregnancies result in a higher rate of spina bifida due to a lack of folic acid. 28. What dietary substance has been found to reduce spina bifida and anencephaly? A. pectin B. vitamin D C. iodine D. folic acid Answer: D 29. Many countries have a lower rate of pregnancies resulting in spina bifida because _______________. A. iodine is added to table salt B. fluoride is added to drinking water C. folic acid is added to grain products D. school immunizations are required Answer: C. folic acid is added to grain products Correct: Many countries passed laws requiring folic acid to be added to grain products such as cereals, bread, pasta, flour, and rice. A. iodine is added to table salt Incorrect: Many countries passed laws requiring folic acid to be added to grain products such as cereals, bread, pasta, flour, and rice. 30. Research conducted in Finland has shown that prenatal malnutrition is a risk factor in what disorder in emerging adulthood? A. dissociative disorder B. depression C. schizophrenia D. bipolar disorder Answer: C 31. What is another name for the German measles? A. cephalopelvic disproportion B. rubella C. anencephaly D. neurofibromatosis Answer: B. rubella Correct: The embryonic period is a critical period for exposure to rubella. D. neurofibromatosis Incorrect: German measles is also known as rubella. 32. Infants born with the effects of rubella (German measles) within the United States have greatly decreased since the 1960s because _______________. A. vaccinations for infectious diseases have increased B. funding for Medicaid and Medicare have increased C. fluoride has been added to the water D. folic acid has been added to grain products Answer: A 33. What sexually transmitted infection is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus? A. syphilis B. herpes C. gonorrhea D. AIDS Answer: D 34. What sexually transmitted infection can be transmitted to the fetus during prenatal development and to the neonate during birth and later through breast milk? A. syphilis B. herpes C. gonorrhea D. AIDS Answer: D. AIDS Correct: HIV/AIDS damages brain development prenatally and increases the risk that an infant will not live to adulthood. B. herpes Incorrect: AIDS can be transmitted from mother to child during prenatal development through the blood, during birth, or through breast milk. 35. HIV/AIDS can be transmitted from the mother to the child _______________. A. during prenatal development, birth, or through breast milk B. through casual skin-to-skin contact such as hugs and kisses C. via bacterial infections during times of illness while pregnant D. through HIV bacteria being transmitted via contaminated environmental objects Answer: A. during prenatal development, birth, or through breast milk Correct: HIV/AIDS damages brain development prenatally and increases the risk that an infant will not live to adulthood. B. through casual skin-to-skin contact such as hugs and kisses Incorrect: HIV/AIDS can be transmitted from mother to child during prenatal development through the blood, during birth, or through breast milk. 36. Where do 95% of all HIV infections take place? A. North America B. Asia C. Africa D. Europe Answer: C 37. What percentage of pregnant women in Africa is estimated to be HIV positive? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 95% Answer: A 38. What teratogen causes the most widespread damage to prenatal development in developed countries? A. tobacco B. infectious diseases C. cocaine D. alcohol Answer: D. alcohol Correct: Alcohol is considered the teratogen that causes the most widespread damage to prenatal development in developed countries. This is due to the fact that alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to a range of severe developmental issues in the fetus, collectively known as Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders (FASDs). These disorders can include physical abnormalities, such as facial dysmorphology and growth deficiencies, as well as cognitive and behavioral impairments that can persist throughout the child's life. A. tobacco Incorrect: Alcohol causes more damage to prenatal development in developed countries. 39. According to the text, which of the following is a safe amount of alcohol an individual can consume during pregnancy? A. 1 glass of wine per week B. 1 glass of wine per week only after the second trimester C. 1 glass of wine per week only after the third trimester D. none at all Answer: D. none at all Correct: Research has shown that the only safe level of alcohol during pregnancy is none at all. C. 1 glass of wine per week only after the third trimester Incorrect: A pregnant woman should not drink at all during her pregnancy. 40. What condition might occur in the fetus and later in the child if the pregnant mother consumes alcohol during her pregnancy? A. fibromyalgia B. alcoholism C. neuromuscular disorder D. fetal alcohol spectrum disorder Answer: D. fetal alcohol spectrum disorder Correct: This disorder can result in facial deformities, heart problems, and cognitive problems. B. alcoholism Incorrect: Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder can result if a pregnant woman drinks alcohol during her pregnancy. 41. An infant born with facial deformities, heart problems, misshapen limbs, and a variety of cognitive problems, such as mental retardation, has characteristics of which of the following? A. fetal alcohol spectrum disorder B. autism C. Prader-Willi syndrome D. rubella Answer: A. fetal alcohol spectrum disorder Correct: Rubella, also known as German measles, is caused by the rubella virus and can cause a constellation of birth defects in infants when contracted by a pregnant woman. D. rubella Incorrect: These conditions are characteristics of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. 42. What is the leading cause of low birth weight in developed countries? A. smoking B. cocaine use C. drinking alcohol D. mega-dosing of vitamins Answer: A 43. What maternal behavior during pregnancy was related to conduct disorders and substance abuse in adolescence? A. mega-dosing of vitamins B. drinking alcohol C. cocaine use D. smoking Answer: D 44. You notice that your pregnant friend just lit a cigarette and you ask her, “What the heck are you doing?” Your friend replies that her doctor said that it was okay to smoke during pregnancy. Which of the following statements should be your reply? A. “There are known side effects to smoking and no responsible physician would tell you that you can smoke if you are pregnant.” B. “Okay, research has shown that smoking is harmless.” C. “Most physicians would recommend that you wait until the third trimester to begin smoking again.” D. “That makes sense; smoking is harmful if it is secondhand smoke.” Answer: A. “There are known side effects to smoking and no responsible physician would tell you that you can smoke if you are pregnant.” Correct: Maternal smoking is the leading cause of low birth weight in developed countries. C. “Most physicians would recommend that you wait until the third trimester to begin smoking again.” Incorrect: Pregnant women should not smoke at any time during their pregnancy. 45. What paternal behavior during pregnancy leads to higher risks of low birth weight and childhood cancer? A. mega-dosing of vitamins B. drinking alcohol C. smoking D. cocaine use Answer: C 46. Which of the following are three techniques used to monitor pregnancy? A. fetal heart rate, blood pressure, and CT scans B. ultrasounds, amniocentesis, and chorionic villus sampling C. genetic counseling, amniocentesis, and epidural D. fMRI, CT, and PET scans Answer: B. ultrasounds, amniocentesis, and chorionic villus sampling Correct: All three of these methods are commonly available in developed countries. C. genetic counseling, amniocentesis, and epidural Incorrect: Genetic counseling is not used to monitor pregnancy. 47. What prenatal technique uses high-frequency waves to examine the characteristics of the fetus in-utero? A. amniocentesis B. chorionic villus sampling C. alphafetal protein D. ultrasound Answer: D. ultrasound Correct: Today ultrasound is used for most pregnancies in developed countries. A. amniocentesis Incorrect: Ultrasound uses high-frequency sound waves to examine the fetus in-utero. 48. _______________ uses high-frequency sound waves that are directed toward the uterus and as they bounce off the fetus they are converted by a computer to an image that can be viewed on a screen. A. Genetic counseling B. Ultrasound C. Chorionic villus sampling D. Amniocentesis Answer: B 49. Which of the following is the cheapest, easiest, and safest way for physicians to monitor fetal development? A. genetic counseling B. amniocentesis C. ultrasound D. chorionic villus sampling Answer: C. ultrasound Correct: Today ultrasound is used for most pregnancies in developed countries. A. genetic counseling Incorrect: Ultrasounds can be used during routine appointments are relatively inexpensive. 50. What prenatal technique uses a long hollow needle to extract amniotic fluid to examine the fetus’s genotype? A. amniocentesis B. chorionic villus sampling C. alphafetal protein D. ultrasound Answer: A 51. What prenatal technique can be used to examine the status of the fetus by taking samples of the cells that are beginning to form the umbilical cord? A. amniocentesis B. chorionic villus sampling C. alphafetal protein D. ultrasound Answer: B 52. Which of the following techniques is used sparingly because there is a slight but genuine risk of miscarriage or damage to the fetus; however, it has a 99% accuracy in diagnosing genetic problems? A. CT scan B. ultrasound C. amniocentesis D. chorionic villus sampling Answer: D 53. Why would some couples seek genetic counseling before attempting a pregnancy? A. They believe that they might be carriers for a genetic disorder. B. They live in a high-risk area. C. They want to have a high-IQ baby. D. They want a particular characteristic in their offspring. Answer: A. They believe that they might be carriers for a genetic disorder. Correct: Genetic counseling involves analyzing the family history and genotype of prospective parents. D. They want a particular characteristic in their offspring. Incorrect: Couples who believe that they might be carriers for genetic disorders might consider genetic counseling. 54. Latasha and Brett are having their first child and are concerned that their child may have Down syndrome because Latasha is over 40 years old. Which of the following would most likely be used to help Latasha and Brett through this process? A. an amniocentesis and PET scan B. an ultrasound and genetic counseling C. an amniocentesis and ultrasound D. a chorinic villus sampling and fMRI Answer: B. an ultrasound and genetic counseling Correct: Those who are at risk for Down syndrome would use an ultrasound because it the safest approach. D. a chorinic villus sampling and fMRI Incorrect: Those who are at risk for Down syndrome would use an ultrasound because it the safest approach. 55. Genetic counseling would be appropriate for which of the following couples? A. JJ and Jennifer, who are in their early 30s and have just completed an unsuccessful round of artificial insemination. B. Stephen and Kerry, who are in their early 20s and have been trying to become pregnant but have been unsuccessful for the last two months. C. Merriam and Samir, who are in their early 40s and have a history of miscarriages and infertility. D. Ngyuen and Pham, who are in their early 30s and both have a history of diabetes. Answer: C. Merriam and Samir, who are in their early 40s and have a history of miscarriages and infertility. Correct: People with risks that merit genetic counseling include those who have an inherited genetic condition or a close relative who has one, couples with a history of miscarriages or infertility, and older couples. A. JJ and Jennifer, who are in their early 30s and have just completed an unsuccessful round of artificial insemination. Incorrect: People with risks that merit genetic counseling include those who have an inherited genetic condition or a close relative who has one, couples with a history of miscarriages or infertility, and older couples. 56. How is infertility defined? A. the presence of endometriosis B. when the male has a low sperm count C. inability to conceive after trying for a year D. no desire to have children Answer: C. inability to conceive after trying for a year Correct: Most women of reproductive age will become pregnant with a year or two of trying to conceive. B. when the male has a low sperm count Incorrect: Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after trying of a year. 57. According to the text, infertility rates have remained constant over the past century at the rate of _______________. A. 1–5% B. 10–15% C. 20–25% D. 30–35% Answer: B 58. Over the past century, the rate of infertility in the United States has _______________. A. remained the same at 35% B. declined to 5% C. remained the same at 10–15% D. declined to 10–25% Answer: C 59. What percent of infertility problems are related to the male? A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 70% Answer: C 60. It is a misconception that females are primarily responsible for infertility, because _____________% of the time it is the male who is the source of a couple’s infertility. A. 40 B. 50 C. 60 D. 70 Answer: B 61. Which of the following are three main sources for male infertility? A. erectile difficulties, decreased libido, and low sperm count B. sperm death, poor sperm mobility, and low seminal fluid C. low sperm production, poor sperm quality, and poor sperm movement D. low sperm production, increased libido, and poor sperm movement Answer: B 62. It takes approximately three times longer for men over the age of 40 to impregnate a partner than it does for men under age 25. Why? A. lack of libido B. endometriosis C. decrease in the quantity and quality of their sperm D. their partner’s fertility Answer: C. decrease in the quantity and quality of their sperm Correct: Men’s sperm count decreases with age. A. lack of libido Incorrect: It takes longer because of the decrease in the quantity and quality of their sperm. 63. Rashid and Varsha are seeking fertility treatment and were informed by their physician that Rashid’s sperm-count is low and the quality is poor. Which of the following suggestions were made to help increase his sperm production and quality? A. Quit smoking, decrease alcohol consumption, and do not abuse drugs. B. Start a calcium regimen, consume more iron, and take a multivitamin. C. Exercise daily, increase caffeine consumption, and reduce stress, D. Avoid wearing boxers shorts and switch to tighter underwear, Answer: A. Quit smoking, decrease alcohol consumption, and do not abuse drugs. Correct: These behavioral factors are among the most common sources of infertility. B. Start a calcium regimen, consume more iron, and take a multivitamin. Incorrect: Drug abuse, alcohol abuse, and cigarette smoking are sources of infertility. 64. _______________ is the most common cause of infertility in women. A. Alcohol B. Stress C. Age D. Smoking Answer: C 65. In most cultures and throughout history, infertility has been regarded mostly as a problem that originates from _______________. A. a lack of spiritual commitment B. the male C. the female D. both the male and female Answer: C 66. Based on historical misconception of infertility, which of the following was one of the most dangerous treatments as described by the text? A. encouraging men to refrain from climaxing too quickly B. the practice of bloodletting to increase fertility C. encouraging women to reach orgasm D. encouraging men to bring more attention to sexual pleasure for their wife Answer: B 67. Of the following, which is a modern technique used for fertility treatment? A. artificial insemination B. an infertility belt C. a chastity belt D. colonoscopy Answer: A 68. What is the oldest effective treatment for infertility? A. in vitro fertilization B. nutritional supplements C. surrogate motherhood D. artificial insemination Answer: D 69. _______________ is the process in which sperm is injected directly into the uterus, and is the simplest and most effective reproductive treatment. A. In vitro fertilization B. Artificial insemination C. Amniocentesis D. Infertility injections Answer: B 70. What is the success rate of artificial insemination? A. 10% B. 40% C. 70% D. 100% Answer: C 71. What is the most common approach to female infertility if the woman cannot ovulate properly? A. eliminating nutritional deficiencies B. fertility drugs C. increasing the frequency of intercourse D. herbal therapy Answer: B 72. More than half of the women who take fertility drugs become pregnant in how many cycles (months)? A. 2 B. 6 C. 10 D. 20 Answer: B 73. The use of fertility drugs increases the likelihood of all of the following except _______________. A. blood clots B. decreased bone density C. kidney damage D. damage to the ovaries Answer: B 74. Which of the following are known risks associated with fertility drugs? A. hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, and gastrointestinal problems B. depression, anxiety, and suicidal thoughts C. blood clots, kidney damage, and damage to the ovaries D. diabetes, endometriosis, and eczema Answer: C 75. Depending on the drug, what percentage of multiple births results from using fertility drugs? A. 1–2% B. 10–25% C. 40–55% D. 60–75% Answer: B 76. A friend tells you that she is on a fertility drug to increase the number of follicles during ovulation and is so excited about the possibility of having twins. Based upon the reading, would you agree that she has an increased possibility of conceiving twins? A. Yes, fertility drugs increase the rate of multiple births by increasing the probability of releasing more than one ovum; which might lead to fraternal twins. B. No, the use of fertility drugs is in no way related in giving birth to twins. C. No, having twins is unpredictable and modern medicine has not been able to alter the process in any way. D. Yes, infertility drugs have shown to increase the rate of identical twins; however these pregnancies have a much higher rate of miscarriage than non-multiple pregnancies. Answer: A. Yes, fertility drugs increase the rate of multiple births by increasing the probability of releasing more than one ovum; which might lead to fraternal twins. Correct: Depending on the drug, 10–25% of multiple births result from using fertility drugs. D. Yes, infertility drugs have shown to increase the rate of identical twins; however these pregnancies have a much higher rate of miscarriage than non-multiple pregnancies. Incorrect: Fertility drugs increase the possibility of more than one ovum being released. 77. What fertility technique extracts ova, combines them with sperm, and, after a few days, implants two or three blastocysts into the woman’s uterus? A. in vitro fertilization B. nutritional supplements C. surrogate motherhood D. artificial insemination Answer: A 78. In vitro fertilization, or IVF, has improved in recent years. What is the current rate of success of IVF? A. 15% B. 35% C. 55% D. 75% Answer: B. 35% Correct: Success rates for IVF are about 35% for women under 35. C. 55% Incorrect: The current rate of success of IVF is 35% for women under 35. 79. What theory argued that for conception to occur, both the man and the woman had to emit a “seed” and that the “seed” was only released through orgasm? A. mutual orgasm theory B. animal theory C. ovist theory D. semence theory Answer: D. semence theory Correct: This was the dominant theory of conception in the West for more than two millennia. C. ovist theory Incorrect: The semence theory argued for conception to occur that both the man and the woman had to emit a “seed” and that the seed was only released during orgasm. 80. Which of the following countries are included within the infertility belt across central Africa? A. Ethiopia, South Africa, and Liberia B. Cameroon, Sudan, and the Republic of the Congo C. Cambodia, Thailand, and Vietnam D. Nigeria, Chad, and Libya Answer: B 81. _______________ are two possible causes for the higher rates of infertility in countries found in Africa. A. Malnutrition and sexually transmitted infections B. Warmer climate and higher levels of libido C. Religious attitude on sexuality and encouragement of larger families D. Poor sanitation and dietary habits Answer: A 82. In most collectivist cultures, motherhood is an essential part of a female’s identity and if infertility occurs she may _______________. A. travel to the city and seek fertility treatment B. use herbal remedies and consult a shaman C. become anxious and overly depressed D. divorce her husband and seek another who is more fertile Answer: B Short Answer Questions 83. In addition to characteristic facial features, what other types of medical/physical complications might a person caring for an individual with Down Syndrome expect? Answer: They are more at risk of heart problems, leukemia, cancer and their life expectancy is lower than average. 84. Which prenatal period is considered a critical period when teratogens are most likely to have severe and enduring effects? Why? Answer: The embryonic period because this is when all the major organs and systems are forming. 85. What are two consequences of a folic acid deficiency? Answer: Anencephaly: • part of the brain is missing or deformed. • Spina bifida- the spine is deformed and does not close. 86. What are the long-term effects FASD (in addition to characteristic physiological features)? Answer: In childhood, there are cognitive deficits that put them behind academically and socially. In addition, in adolescence, they are at risk for delinquency, substance abuse, and depression. 87. Which test can be done earlier: amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling (CVS)? Explain each. Answer: CVS can be done earlier, at about 5-10 weeks gestation versus 15-20 weeks. CVS entails inserting a tube through the vagina and into the uterus to remove cells from what will eventually the umbilical cord. Amniocentesis involves inserting a needle into abdomen to remove amniotic fluid which contains cells that have been sloughed off from the developing organism. Both are used to detect genetic problems. Essay Questions 88. Explain how prenatal health can depend on when the child was conceived in places where diet varies greatly depending upon which foods are available at different times of the year. Answer: If there are little or no fruits or vegetables available, as in China in the ‘80’s, babies can be born with folic acid deficiencies. This caused anencephaly and spina bifida. 89. You are out to dinner with your friend who is in her second trimester of pregnancy. You order a beer and she proceeds to order a glass of wine. When you raise a concern about alcohol being dangerous for the developing fetus, she replies, “My doctor told me it was okay to have a glass of wine once in a while.” What is your evaluation of this advice? Answer: No safe amount of alcohol has been determined during pregnancy. Even a few drinks can put a developing fetus at risk for lower height, weight, and head size and heavy drinking causes FASD. There is a dose-response relation between alcohol and negative effects. MyDevelopmentLab Question Bank Pre-Test 1. One in _______________ children has a chromosomal disorder. A. 20 B. 200 C. 2,000 D. 20,000 Answer: B 2. Which of the following is a correlating factor with Down syndrome? A. Maternal exposure to radiation B. A family's socioeconomic status C. The mother's age D. The father's sperm count Answer: C 3. Drugs that are used for infertility have been shown to increase the likelihood of _______________. A. blood clots B. diabetes C. near sightedness D. ear infections Answer: A 4. Infertility is defined as _______________. A. low sperm count B. the presence of endometriosis C. the inability to conceive after trying for a year D. low desire to conceive Answer: C 5. The _______________ theory proposed that conception occurs when both the male and female emit their "seeds" during intercourse. A. Mutual orgasm B. Animal C. Ovist D. Semence Answer: D 6. Which of the following is the cheapest, easiest, and safest way for physicians to monitor fetal development? A. Ultrasound B. Amniocentesis C. Spinal tap D. Genetic counseling Answer: A 7. Down syndrome is sometimes referred to as trisomy-21 because individuals who have Down syndrome _______________. A. have 3 distinct facial features by the 21st week of pregnancy B. show 3 distinct temperament patterns by the 21st week of infancy C. have a third chromosome on the 21st pair D. have 21 genes on the 3rd pair of chromosomes Answer: C 8. Your sister, who is pregnant, is smoking a cigarette. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice for your sister? A. There are known side effects to smoking while pregnant. She needs to stop. B. Research has shown that smoking is harmless. C. She needs to put the cigarette out and wait until the 3rd trimester to begin smoking again. D. Only second hand smoke is harmful, she can continue. Answer: A 9. Which of the following couples is most suited for genetic counseling? Merriam and Samir who are in their early 40s and have a history of miscarriages and infertility. JJ and Jennifer who are in their early 30s and have just completed an unsuccessful round of artificial insemination. Stephen and Kerry who are in their early 20s and have been trying to become pregnant but have been unsuccessful for the last two months. Ngyuen and Pham who are in their early 30s but both have a history of diabetes. A. Merriam and Samir B. JJ and Jennifer C. Stephen and Kerry D. Ngyuen and Pham Answer: A 10. In speaking with a friend, she tells you that she is on an infertility drug and is excited to have twins. Which of the following is the most appropriate based upon the text? A. Fertility drugs increase the rate of multiple births by increasing the probability of releasing more than one ovum, which might lead to fraternal twins. B. The use of fertility drugs is in no way related to giving birth to twins. C. Having twins is unpredictable and modern medicine has not been able to alter the process in any way. D. Infertility drugs have been shown to increase the rate of identical twins; however these pregnancies have a much higher rate of miscarriage than non-multiple pregnancies. Answer: A Post-Test 1. During meiosis, which of the following best describes a chromosome's failure to divide properly resulting in a person having 45 or 47 chromosomes? A. Chromosomal disorder B. Genetic misprinting C. Mitosis air D. Gene displacement Answer: A 2. Individuals with Down syndrome have _______________ chromosomes. A. 45 B. 46 C. 47 D. 48 Answer: C 3. According to the text, _______________ is the most common cause of infertility in women. A. alcohol B. stress C. inability to ovulate D. smoking Answer: C 4. If a woman cannot ovulate properly, which of the following is the most common approach to her infertility? A. Fertility drugs B. Herbal therapy C. Stress management and reduction D. Eliminating nutritional deficiencies Answer: A 5. In regards to pregnancy and infertility, why does it take a male who is 40 longer than a male who is 25 to impregnate his partner? A. Decrease in the quantity and quality of sperm B. Lack of libido C. Endometriosis D. Partner's fertility Answer: A 6. A known teratogen, _______________ is another name for German measles. A. Cephalopelvic disproportion B. Rubella C. Mumps D. Hydroencephalitis Answer: B 7. Adding _______________ to grain products has greatly reduced the number of infants born with spina bifida. A. iodine B. fluoride C. folic acid D. high fructose corn syrup Answer: C 8. You have a couple with whom you are friends and they are trying to conceive their first child. The wife is over 40 years old and they are concerned that they may have a child with Down syndrome. Which of the following would be most beneficial for your friends? A. An ultrasound and genetic counseling B. An amniocentesis and PET scan C. An amniocentesis and ultrasound D. A Chorinic villus sampling and fMRI Answer: A 9. While volunteering at a local hospital you notice an infant who has facial deformities, misshapen limbs, and are told that he has heart problems and is diagnosed with mental retardation. Based upon the reading, which of the following might this infant have? A. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder B. Autism C. Prader-Willi syndrome D. Measles Answer: A 10. The following are couples who are attempting to conceive a child. Based upon your understanding of the text, which of the following couples would be the most appropriate candidate for genetic counseling? Jennifer and Jess who are in their early 30s but both have a history of diabetes. Vicky and Steven who are in their early 40s and have a history of miscarriages and infertility. Lashandra and Lamar who are in early 20s and have been trying to become pregnant but have been unsuccessful for the last two months. Billy Ray and Miley who are in their early 30s and have just completed an unsuccessful round of artificial insemination. A. Vicky and Steven B. Lashandra and Lamar C. Billy Ray and Miley D. Jennifer and Jess Answer: A Chapter Exam 1. From a global perspective, _______________ is the most common teratogen to affect pregnancies? A. lead B. malnutrition C. alcohol D. rubella Answer: B 2. According to the text, during conception what happens to most zygotes that have too many or too few chromosomes? A. They are spontaneously aborted. B. They result in neonates with birth defects. C. They result in twins. D. They have no problems. Answer: A 3. _______________ are known risk factors associated with fertility drugs. A. Blood clots, kidney damage, and damage to the ovaries B. Hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, and gastrointestinal problems C. Diabetes, endometriosis, and eczema D. Depression, anxiety, and suicidal thoughts Answer: A 4. Which of the following are 2 possible causes for high infertility rates in some African countries? A. Malnutrition and sexually transmitted infections B. Warmer climates and higher levels of libido C. Religious attitude on sexuality and encouragement of large families D. Poor sanitation in dietary habits Answer: A 5. Which of the following best describes possible routes for HIV/AIDS transmission from a mother to her child? A. during prenatal development through blood, during birth, or through breast milk B. through casual skin-to-skin contact such as hugs and kisses C. via bacterial infections during times of illness while pregnant D. through HIV bacteria being transmitted via contaminated environmental objects Answer: A 6. In which the following areas do 95% of all HIV infections take place? A. Australia B. Asia C. Europe D. Africa Answer: D 7. Which of the following is a paternal behavior that, if committed during pregnancy, can lead to a higher risk of low birth weight and childhood cancer for the unborn child? A. Mega dosing of vitamins B. Drinking of alcohol C. Smoking cigarettes D. Cocaine use Answer: C 8. Which of the following is a reason for a couple to seek genetic counseling before attempting to conceive? A. They might be carriers for a genetic disorder. B. They live in a high-risk area. C. They want to have a high IQ baby. D. They want a particular characteristic in their offspring. Answer: A 9. What percent of infertility problems can be traced back to the male? A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50% Answer: D 10. Mehrak and Emma are seeking fertility treatment and were informed by their physician that Mehrak's sperm-count is low and the quality is poor. Which of the following suggestions might help increase his sperm production and quality? A. Quit smoking, decrease alcohol consumption, and do not abuse drugs B. Start a vitamin C regimen, consume more folic acid, and take a multivitamin C. Exercise daily, increase nicotine consumption, and reduce stress D. Avoid wearing boxer shorts and switch to tighter underwear Answer: A 11. Throughout history and in most cultures, infertility has been regarded mostly as a problem originating from _______________. A. a lack of spiritual commitment B. the male C. the female D. both the male and the female Answer: C 12. Sara was informed by her physician that she is not ovulating properly. Which of the following is her physician's most likely course of treatment? A. Fertility drugs B. Eliminating nutritional deficiencies C. Increasing herbal consumption D. Decreasing stress and increasing caffeine intake Answer: A 13. For many cultures, if a female is childless and desires to conceive, she may: A. Use herbal remedies and consult a Shaman. B. travel to the city and seek fertility treatment. C. become depressed or even suicidal. D. divorce her husband and seek a younger partner. Answer: A 14. Your sister just gave birth to a new baby. In speaking with her, she tells you that the baby was born with an extremely deformed spinal column and continues by calling it _______________. A. spina bifida B. endometriosis C. microencephaly D. cleft palate Answer: A 15. Your sister just found out that she is pregnant after trying for nine months. Now she fears that she is going to have a baby with a chromosomal disorder. You try to assure her by telling her that the rate of babies born with chromosomal disorders is _______________. A. 1 in 200 B. 1 in 2,000 C. 1 in 20,000 D. 1 in 20 Answer: A Quick Review 1. In developed countries, _______________ is the leading cause for low birth weight A. smoking B. cocaine use C. drinking alcohol D. mega-dosing of vitamins Answer: A 2. Which of the following is a treatment for a sex chromosomal disorder during adolescence? A. role playing therapy B. hormone replacement therapy C. group therapy D. behavioral cognitive therapy Answer: B 3. A person with Down Syndrome has _______________ chromosomes. A. 45 B. 46 C. 47 D. 48 Answer: C 4. _______________ maternal behavior during pregnancy is related to a higher prevalence of conduct disorder and substance abuse during adolescence. A. Smoking cigarettes B. Cocaine use C. Excessive alcohol consumption D. Mega-dosing of vitamins Answer: A 5. _______________ are 3 primary sources of male infertility. A. Sperm death, poor sperm mobility, and low seminal fluid B. Erectile difficulties, decreased libido, and low sperm count C. Low sperm production, poor sperm quality or poor sperm movement D. Low sperm production, increase libido, and poor sperm movement Answer: A 6. What are two common consequences of sex chromosome disorders? A. Cognitive deficits and abnormal development of the reproductive system at puberty. B. The infant may have a shortened stature and the likelihood to develop nonorganic failure to thrive. C. An increased likelihood to have a pregnancy that is preterm and an infant with low birth weight. D. The infant is more likely to have a difficult temperament and an insecure attachment. Answer: A 7. What is another name for Down syndrome? A. Trisomy-21 B. Quint-36 C. Quad-29 D. Hex-12 Answer: A 8. _______________ is the period of prenatal development that is considered the critical period where teratogens can have a profound effect. A. Embryonic period B. Conception C. Germinal period D. Fetal period Answer: A 9. During pregnancy, deficiencies in _______________ may result in anencephaly and spina bifida. A. folic acid B. fluoride C. calcium D. vitamin E Answer: A 10. During prenatal development, which of the following sexually transmitted infections can be transmitted from the mother to the fetus? A. HIV/AIDS B. Syphilis C. Herpes D. Gonorrhea Answer: A Practice Test Questions from the Textbook 1. Keisha has inherited one recessive gene for the sickle-cell trait along with one normal dominant gene. As a result of this _______________ , she is resistant to malaria and does not have sickle-cell anemia. A. dominant-recessive inheritance B. incomplete dominance C. polygenic inheritance D. reaction range Answer: B 2. Who has the greatest risk of developing hemophilia, which is an X-linked recessive disorder? A. a female who has one X chromosome that contains the gene for this disorder B. a male who has one X chromosome that contains the gene for this disorder C. males and females with one X chromosome that contains the gene for the disorder will have equal risk D. only Native Americans, due to their unique genetic makeup Answer: B 3. Which of the following questions would a behavioral geneticist be most likely to ask? A. “Why are children in the same family so different from one another?” B. “Are preterm babies more likely to have learning difficulties during the school years?” C. “How can prenatal tests be used to detect Down syndrome?” D. “What effects does alcohol have on the developing organism?” Answer: A 4. Why has there has been little change in the average height in Western countries over the last few decades? A. The population has become overweight or obese, which negatively affects height. B. People in Western countries have been exposed to more diseases. C. People have reached the upper boundary of their reaction range for height. D. Evolutionary influences are causing all populations to decrease in height. Answer: C 5. John is short for his age and is very coordinated. Although exposed to a variety of activities, none has particularly interested him. His father, who used to wrestle when he was younger, signs John up for wrestling thinking this could be the perfect sport. He convinces John to give it a try and John goes on to become a champion wrestler. This is an example of A. passive genotype → environment effects. B. evocative genotype → environment effects. C. active genotype → environment effects. D. heritability. Answer: A 6. As a result of the process of crossing over A. the risk of Down syndrome is increased. B. boys are more likely to be born with a learning disability. C. women are at increased risk for infertility. D. each child born to a set of parents is genetically unique (with the exception of identical twins). Answer: D 7. S. J. is most likely to have DZ twins if A. she has Asian biological parents. B. she is in her late teens. C. she is concerned about gaining too much weight and severely restricts her calorie intake. D. her mother had DZ twins. Answer: D 8. If a woman learns that her infertility problem is due to a problem with the _____________ successfully implanting, something went wrong during the germinal period. A. zygote B. blastocyst C. fetus D. trophoblast Answer: B 9. During the embryonic period A. the blastocyst forms. B. the zygote is created. C. the zygote attaches to the uterine wall. D. the nervous system develops. Answer: D 10. Saad, a baby born 6 weeks prematurely is more at risk of not surviving than Nona, a baby who is full term because Saad’s _______________ is/are still immature. A. small intestines B. heart C. lungs D. spleen Answer: C 11. In traditional cultures, prenatal massage A. is usually done only when there is reason to believe that the fetus is not developing properly. B. is usually considered dangerous. C. has beneficial effects for both mother and fetus. D. is almost exclusively performed by the pregnant mother herself in complete isolation. Answer: C 12. K. M. is an American woman of healthy weight who went to the doctor for her second prenatal checkup. What would be LEAST LIKELY recommended by her physician? A. to increase her fluid intake B. to avoid exercise as much as possible, especially aerobic activities C. to increase her caloric intake D. to be sure she is getting enough iron and folic acid in her diet Answer: B 13. A child who has an X0 chromosomal makeup (where 0 denotes a missing chromosome where there is supposed to be a 23rd pair) will most likely: A. be a male with Down syndrome. B. be a female who will later experience problems in the development of the reproductive system. C. be a typical female who will not experience cognitive or physical problems. D. not survive past the age of 3. Answer: B 14. K. L.’s baby was born blind, deaf, and with mental retardation. It is most likely that during her pregnancy she. A. contracted AIDS. B. had rubella. C. had a severe nutritional deficiency. D. ate foods that were too high in folic acid. Answer: B 15. Carissa has a family history of Down syndrome and is in her 5th week of pregnancy. She decides that she would like to find out as early as possible whether her unborn child has Down syndrome or any other genetic abnormality. What test is she most likely to get? A. fetal monitoring B. ultrasound C. amniocentesis D. chorionic villus sampling Answer: D 16. Sam would be LEAST LIKELY to be infertile if A. his sperm have been found to be low in motility. B. he is under the age of 25. C. he smokes marijuana and binge drinks. D. his sperm count has been found to be low. Answer: B 17. Fertility drugs A. lead to pregnancy in virtually all women if they take them long enough. B. decrease a woman’s chances of having DZ twins. C. are also known in the medical community as in vitro fertilization. D. carry risks such as blood clots and kidney damage. Answer: D 18. A married woman from a non-Western, collectivist culture has been unable to have a child for over 3 years. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY? A. She will have a lower status relative to her husband. B. She will get a lot of social support from her mother- and father-in-law. C. She will try an herbal remedy. D. She will be blamed for this “problem.” Answer: D Video Guide Questions Short Answer Questions 1. What are your thoughts on genetic counseling after viewing this clip? Did you have any thoughts or opinions on genetic counseling prior to viewing the clip? If so, did viewing this clip change your opinion? Answer: Genetic counseling plays a crucial role in helping individuals and families navigate genetic conditions and make informed decisions. Prior to viewing the clip, I recognized its importance in providing support and education. The clip likely highlighted its value in facilitating understanding, managing expectations, and empowering individuals with genetic information, reinforcing its significance in healthcare. 2. Would you/Did you seek genetic counseling during your pregnancy? Why or why not? Would you recommend it to others? Answer: However, if I were facing a pregnancy, I would consider genetic counseling to understand potential risks and make informed decisions. I would recommend it to others for its role in providing personalized information and support during such critical times. 3. The professional interviewed in this clip lists several reasons why individuals might consider genetic counseling. List and describe at least three of these reasons. Answer: Genetic counselors can provide information about a diagnosis to help individuals better understand it. They can provide testing to help in the diagnosis of a child. Genetic counseling can help diagnose an adult onset disorder, or conduct prenatal testing. Individuals carry approximately 5-8 lethal recessive genes, and genetic counseling can help individuals better understand through testing and physical exams as well as information gathering. 1. Family History of Genetic Disorders: Individuals with a family history of genetic conditions seek counseling to understand their risk of inheriting or passing on these disorders. 2. Abnormal Prenatal Test Results: Expectant parents with unusual prenatal screening results pursue genetic counseling to assess potential genetic conditions in the fetus. 3. Personal or Partner's Genetic Concerns: People concerned about their own or their partner's genetic health seek counseling to make informed reproductive decisions. Multiple Choice Questions 1. How many lethal recessive genes would a typical person carry? A. 0-1 B. 5-8 C. 25-50 D. 100-200 Answer: B 2. According to the genetic counselor interviewed in this video segment, about how many human genes are there? A. 20,000 B. 30,000 C. 45,000 D. 90,000 Answer: B 3. Who generally has the right to decide the course of treatment, should a genetic condition be diagnosed prenatally? A. the doctor B. the genetic counselor C. the family D. It depends on the severity of the condition and the cause of the condition. Answer: C Test Bank for Human Development: A Cultural Approach Jeffrey J. Arnett 9780205987887, 9780134641348