This Document Contains Chapter 19 and Appendix A to C Chapter 19 Applying and Interviewing for Employment 1) The approach you take for an application letter depends on A) how badly you want the job. B) whether or not your résumé is up to date. C) how long you have been on the job market. D) whether it is a solicited letter or an unsolicited letter. Answer: D Explanation: D) A solicited letter approach is used when you are applying for a job that has been identified either through an ad or a personal connection. An unsolicited approach is the equivalent to prospecting for a job, trying to see if you can create an opening for yourself within the company. 2) Accompany your résumé with ________ when you're responding to an identified job opening. A) a message of inquiry B) an unsolicited follow-up letter C) a solicited application letter D) a letter of intent Answer: C Explanation: C) When you're responding to an identified job opening, send a solicited application message along with your résumé. 3) The ________ must clearly state your reason for writing and give the recipient a compelling reason to keep reading. A) career summary on your résumé B) opening paragraph of your application letter C) word cloud in your employment portfolio D) keyword cluster included in your résumé Answer: B Explanation: B) The opening paragraph of your application letter must clearly convey the reason you're writing and give the recipient a good reason to keep reading. 4) Unsolicited application letters to prospective employers A) require more research than solicited letters. B) irritate the personnel office staff. C) are never read. D) are none of the above. Answer: A Explanation: A) Unsolicited letters require a great deal of research. To capture the interest of a company without having prior contact with them requires the applicant to get an excellent feel of what the company does and how he or she might fit in. This can only be done through researching the company via websites, blogs, news articles, and other forms of information. 5) You'll impress prospective employers with your application letter if you A) use a flashy, eye-catching layout that demonstrates how you might be able to upgrade the company's correspondence. B) show that you know something about the company and its place in the market. C) use a personal, "chummy" tone. D) do all of the above. Answer: B Explanation: B) Companies are generally looking for only one type of person—someone who is professional, thorough, and competent. The only way you can demonstrate these qualities to a company who doesn't know you is to show that you can go about researching them in a professional, thorough, and competent way. The more you show you know about the company, the more impressed they will be with your letter. 6) The best salutation for an application letter is A) "Dear Hiring Manager." B) "To Whom It May Concern." C) one that addresses a specific individual by name. D) one that addresses a specific individual by first name only. Answer: C Explanation: C) Addressing your letter to a specific person means that it is much more likely that your letter will be read and seriously considered—as opposed to being tossed in a pile with other applicants. Individuals are much more likely to respond when they are addressed as individuals, not as generic titles. 7) Because application letters are ________ messages, the AIDA approach is ideally suited for them. A) positive B) negative C) persuasive D) routine Answer: C Explanation: C) Any persuasive document can employ the AIDA approach successfully—capturing the audience's attention, creating interest, cultivating desire, and inspiring action. Since an application letter is an attempt to be considered for a job, it clearly qualifies as a persuasive document. 8) Which of the following would be the best opening sentence for a solicited application letter? A) "I am clearly the best person for the job you've advertised." B) "I'm sure you get these letters all the time, but I hope you'll read mine carefully." C) "I need a job, and I am very hard worker, so in my opinion you can't go wrong in hiring me for any number of different positions." D) "Based on my extensive training in forensic accounting, I think I may be of help to your rapidly expanding forensic department." Answer: D Explanation: D) The key to catching the recipient's attention is to be able to offer something that could be of potential benefit to the company. Extensive training in forensic accounting is something that clearly could benefit a company that specializes in that field. The knowledge that the company's forensic department is expanding shows that the applicant has done her homework. The combination of possible benefit and an applicant who demonstrates knowledge of the company is highly likely to pique the interest of the recipient. 9) In the middle section of a job application letter, A) present your strongest selling points in terms of their potential benefit to the organization. B) include your entire work history, in case the employer doesn't have time to review your résumé. C) address your shortcomings but stress that you're willing to learn. D) ask for an interview and include your contact information. Answer: A Explanation: A) In the middle section, build interest in you as a job candidate. Present what you can do to benefit the company, and support your assertions with strong reasoning and details. 10) In the final paragraph of your application letter you should A) show the reader you mean business and demand an interview. B) say something philosophical. C) request an interview and provide contact information. D) cover your bases by saying something like, "If I've left anything important out, I'm sorry." Answer: C Explanation: C) The final paragraph has one primary function: to initiate action on the part of the recipient, usually in the form of scheduling an interview. Provide as much information as possible about yourself for the recipient to make the interview easy to set up. For example, offer to be ready to come in at the recipient's earliest convenience. 11) If your application letter and résumé fail to bring a response within a week or so after the position close date, A) call the highest-ranking employee at the company and complain that you are being mistreated. B) follow up by email or telephone. C) cross this particular job possibility off your list. D) send another copy of your application letter and résumé. Answer: B Explanation: B) You may feel awkward in contacting the recipient, but it is important to push ahead if you haven't heard a response after a reasonable amount of time. Keep in mind that most employers are extremely busy and may have intended to respond to you but just haven't gotten around to it. In that case, you are doing the recipient a Favor with your follow-up. Remember—the squeaky wheel is the one that gets the attention. 12) Most employers interview an applicant ________ before deciding to make a job offer. A) once B) multiple times C) via email D) anonymously Answer: B Explanation: B) Employers want to get a three-dimensional view of their applicants before deciding to take them on. This can require multiple interviews. So don't be discouraged if instead of being hired right away you are called for a second interview—it's a sign of keen interest. 13) An employment interview is A) an unplanned dialogue with a representative from a potential employer. B) a monologue about your knowledge, skills, and abilities. C) a formal meeting during which you and the interviewer ask questions and exchange information. D) a one-way communication pipeline in which the interviewer asks questions and you answer them. Answer: C Explanation: C) An employment interview is a formal meeting in which you and a potential employer ask questions and exchange information. 14) During a behavioral interview, you'll be asked to A) answer a specific sequence of questions. B) deal with questions that are intended to upset you. C) relate specific incidents or experiences from your past. D) perform a number of work-related tasks. Answer: C Explanation: C) In a behavioral interview, you're asked to describe how you handled situations from your past. 15) During ________ the interviewer will adapt the line of questioning according to the answers you give and the questions you ask. A) a stress interview B) a behavioral interview C) a situational interview D) an open-ended interview Answer: D Explanation: D) In an open-ended interview, the interviewer adapts his or her questions based on the answers you give and the questions you ask. 16) During the selection stage of the interview processes, you should A) ask the interviewer when you can start the job. B) differentiate yourself from the other candidates. C) use short answers to respond to the interviewer's questions. D) relate your knowledge, skills, and experience to the organizations' needs. Answer: D Explanation: D) During the selection stage, continue to show how your skills and attributes can help the company. 17) Employers use preliminary screening interviews to A) find out as much as possible about each job candidate just in case the person they are interested in turns them down. B) give employment tests. C) filter out applicants who are unqualified or otherwise not a good fit for the organization. D) offer jobs to the best candidates. Answer: C Explanation: C) Companies are looking for a good fit, both for the job at hand and within their general corporate culture. To find the best fit, companies use the screening interview process to weed out individuals who are not well-suited to their way of doing things. 18) During a screening interview, your best approach is to A) ask as many questions as possible. B) keep your answers short, providing a few key details to distinguish you from other candidates. C) expand on your answers as much as possible so that the interviewer knows you are at ease. D) keep as low a profile as you can; this is not the time to try to differentiate yourself from other candidates. Answer: B Explanation: B) During screening interviews, time is limited so answers should be brief. The goal of screening interviews is to weed out individuals who are a poor match for the company, so researching the company can pay off if you can provide a few responses that show knowledge of the company and demonstrate how you'll fit in with their goals. 19) Your goal in the initial screening interview is to A) explain your greatest strengths in depth. B) distinguish yourself from other candidates. C) clinch the deal. D) show the interviewer that your personality fits well with the job. Answer: B Explanation: B) Interviewers during a screening interview are looking for ways that you stand out. Do you have special skills that could be valuable to the company? Do you have any creative ideas that you can share with the company regarding its products or marketing? Anything that makes you look special in the eyes of the interviewer can help you make the cut. 20) In the second stage of interviews, your best approach is to A) stick to brief yes and no answers to the interview questions. B) relate your training and experience to the organization's needs. C) inquire about salary and benefits. D) do all the above. Answer: B Explanation: B) During the second stage, the company looks to select the best candidates from the group of qualifiers. The key in this situation is to be flexible and show that your skills and experience fit what the company is looking for. Does the interviewer seem to be interested in innovation and new ways of thinking? Then subtly shade your answers to emphasize creativity. Alternatively, if the interviewer seems to be looking for specific skills such as analysis, focus on your excellent problem-solving ability. 21) If you are asked back for a final job interview, you should expect the interviewer to focus on A) your previous job experience. B) selling you on the advantages of joining the organization. C) your educational background. D) checking your references. Answer: B Explanation: B) During the final stage of the interview process, the company has decided that it wants you. Now you are the "buyer" and the company is the "seller." Try to stay relaxed and focused while you listen to their pitch. Remember to think critically and ask good questions—if you start acting smug or self-satisfied, the company could still change its mind and decide not to make you an offer. 22) Interviews in which job candidates are asked how they would respond to various hypothetical situations on the job are known as ________ interviews. A) stress B) structured C) screening D) situational Answer: D Explanation: D) In a situational interview, the interviewer might pose a problem that you might encounter on the job and ask you how you would handle the situation. Keep in mind that the interviewer is trying to test two things here—first, if you can solve the problem that she poses, and second, how cool you can stay under pressure. 23) Which type of interview would be likely to include a question such as, "You seem wholly unqualified for this job, and your answers so far have been terrible. Why should we continue with this?" A) Stress B) Structured C) Screening D) Situational Answer: A Explanation: A) The point of a stress interview is to ask unsettling questions and see how you handle them. Most interviewers are looking for subjects to stay even-tempered and to be able to make the best of a difficult situation. 24) When you're participating in a video interview with a prospective employer A) focus on your computer screen. B) read from a prepared script. C) speak to the camera. D) multitask via Twitter and Facebook. Answer: C Explanation: C) In a video interview, remember to sit up straight and focus on the camera. 25) In general, employers are looking for two things: proof that a candidate can handle the responsibilities of the position and A) excellent references. B) high employment test scores. C) evidence that the person will fit in with the organization. D) long-term commitment to the organization. Answer: C Explanation: C) Like people, different companies tend to have different personalities. Some companies, for example, are highly competitive, others thrive on teamwork. During the interview the interviewer will be looking to see if your personality is a good match for the company's personality. 26) If you're asked to submit to alcohol testing and drug screening during the hiring process, remember that A) only government agencies can require those tests. B) a majority of companies require all applicants to submit to such tests. C) what you do in your free time will not affect how you'll perform on the job. D) the Supreme Court has determined that those tests violate workplace privacy laws. Answer: B Explanation: B) Most companies perform some level of drug and alcohol testing, in order to promote workplace safety, maintain productivity, and forestall lawsuits. 27) When responding to questions during a job interview, you should A) stick to neutral topics such as the weather. B) look for opportunities to frame your answers as brief stories rather than simple declarative answers. C) limit yourself to yes or no answers only. D) not be afraid to ask, "Could we move on?" if the employer asks a question you don't like. Answer: B Explanation: B) The narrative structure of a story is more likely to stick in the interviewer's mind than a simple answer to a question. For that reason, try to frame your answers in story form. Be extremely careful to keep your stories short. 28) When you're staging mock interviews to polish your interview style, pay attention to A) your nonverbal behavior. B) the quality of your voice. C) the length and clarity of your answers. D) all of the above. Answer: D Explanation: D) After each practice session, evaluate the length and clarity of your answers, your nonverbal behavior, and the quality of your voice. 29) For most interviews, asking your own questions is A) necessary only if you are interviewing for a management position. B) risky and a bad idea unless you are certain the interview is going well. C) just as important as answering the employer's questions effectively. D) usually viewed as a sign of arrogance—after all, the employer is in charge. Answer: C Explanation: C) Keep in mind that an interview is a two-way conversation. The interviewer is looking for you to ask questions that show insight into the goals and workings of the organization. It is usually a good idea to plan some of your questions ahead of time. 30) When you're responding to questions during an interview, you're more likely to answer them successfully if you A) begin speaking before the employer finishes asking the question. B) reply in a terse, matter-of-fact style throughout the interview. C) pause for a moment before answering each question. D) treat all questions as an opportunity to clarify your personal preferences. Answer: C Explanation: C) Use your pauses to gather your thoughts regarding the question. Sometimes just a brief delay can help you see the best way to respond to a question. 31) When choosing the clothing you will wear for an interview, the best policy is to A) pick something that will make you stand out from the crowd. B) wear only bright colours. C) dress as comfortably as possible. D) dress conservatively. Answer: D Explanation: D) Your dress should be conservative in every way—even if the people in the company are dressed casually. You will have plenty of time after you are hired to express your "true" personality. For the interview, the watchwords are conservative and professional. 32) A recent survey of hiring professionals revealed that A) most employers understand that candidates may need to answer their mobile phones during the interview, and that doing so has no effect on the outcome. B) candidates who answer mobile phone calls during interviews are more likely to get the job because they are perceived as busy and important. C) answering mobile phone calls or texting in the middle of an interview is the most common mistake candidates make during their interviews. D) candidates who warn the interviewer ahead of time that they might have to answer a call during the interview have a better chance of getting the job than those who do not. Answer: C Explanation: C) Answering phones can be almost a reflex with some people. The only way to make sure you are not interrupted by a call or message is to turn off your phone before you enter the interview room. 33) When going to a job interview for a graphic artist job, you may choose A) to take along samples of your work. B) not to bring copies of your résumé; you can assume the interviewer already has one. C) not to be more than five or ten minutes late. D) do all of the above. Answer: A Explanation: A) Bring anything that you think is relevant to an interview. If you are a designer, bring some of your designs. If you create computer apps, bring samples of your apps. Be sure that anything you bring is relevant to the job you are applying for. 34) If you are a smoker and must go to a job interview A) ask the interviewer politely if you can smoke. B) smoke only if the interviewer smokes. C) refrain from smoking before the interview. D) smoke just prior to the interview to calm yourself. Answer: C Explanation: C) In today's world, many people frown on smoking. Nonsmokers can usually smell smoke on your clothing if you have smoked just before the interview and may consciously or unconsciously hold that against you. 35) Many interviewers begin making a decision about the applicant A) within the first 20 seconds of the interview. B) during the question-and-answer stage. C) during the final minutes of the interview. D) after the candidate has left. Answer: A Explanation: A) Fair or not, many interviewers make up their minds about a candidate prematurely. For that reason, it is important to be in "performance mode" even before the interview officially starts. Don't let your guard down if the interviewer wants to make small talk. Make sure that you are "on" during the entire interview process, from start to finish. 36) During the question-and-answer stage of an interview A) control the conversation and stress your achievements. B) let the interviewer lead the conversation. C) respond to all questions without hesitation. D) don't ask any questions of your own. Answer: B Explanation: B) Let the interviewer led the conversation and never answer a question before he or she has finished asking it. 37) The longest phase of a job interview is usually A) the warm-up. B) the question-and-answer stage. C) the close. D) none; all are about the same length. Answer: B Explanation: B) During the question-and-answer stage you might be asked about qualifications, points in your resume, and how you handle situations. You can also ask questions yourself during this phase of the interview. 38) The employer should not ask you questions about A) your marital status. B) your ethnicity. C) your religion. D) any of the above. Answer: D Explanation: D) Race, religion, age, and ethnicity are all out of bounds as interview questions. Age can be an exception if you're clearly younger than forty or older than seventy. 39) If your interviewer asks you a potentially unlawful question, A) you are required by law to end the interview and report it to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. B) it is often a sign that the interview is going well. C) you may choose to answer or not to answer. D) you should ignore it unless it happens more than once. Answer: C Explanation: C) You are free to report the unlawful question after the interview, but in most cases, it will do little except cause problems for the interviewer and the company. If you end up getting an offer from the company, think carefully before accepting. 40) When a job interviewer indicates, the interview is coming to a close, you should A) try to prolong the interview, since the more the interviewer interacts with you, the better impression you'll make. B) leave as quickly as possible. C) find out what will happen next. D) press for an immediate decision on whether or not you got the job. Answer: C Explanation: C) You should not expect the interviewer to make a decision on the spot. You should expect the interviewer to explain the next step, including when and how you will hear the company's decision. 41) When the interviewer makes an offer to you A) you need to decide whether or not to accept the offer immediately. B) say yes immediately no matter how much she offers. C) thank the interviewer and inform her that you will take some time to make your decision. D) hold out for more money, no matter how much she offers. Answer: C Explanation: C) Accepting a job offer is a big decision and you should be allowed to take time for proper consideration of the decision. Therefore, the best option is to thank the interviewer and inform her that you will give her an answer as soon as you can. 42) If the interviewer makes you a job offer and you begin to discuss salary you should A) be sure to raise the topic before the interviewer. B) pick a salary number that is 20 percent higher than the industry standard. C) say that your salary requirements are negotiable. D) do all of the above. Answer: C Explanation: C) When it comes to salary demands, rushing into a decision is a mistake. For the moment, the best thing you can do is announce that your salary requirements are negotiable, and that you expect the salary to be competitive with industry standards. Once the interview is over and you have had time to consider and research the situation, you should initiate a salary discussion. 43) Within two days after an employment interview, you should A) have a friend call to see whether you got the job. B) write a follow-up letter (using the format for persuasive messages) and include another copy of your résumé. C) send the interviewer a short note of thanks. D) assume that you didn't get the job if you haven't heard anything. Answer: C Explanation: C) Even if you don't think you got the job, be sure to send a short note to the interviewer, thanking him for his time. Showing that you are polite and professional almost always pays dividends. For example, though you may not have been chosen for this job, the interviewer might see you as a good candidate for other positions that might come up in the future. 44) You could send ________ after an interview if you haven't received the interviewer's decision by the promised date or within two weeks. A) a thank-you note B) another version of your résumé C) a message of inquiry D) a message of intent Answer: C Explanation: C) If you're not advised of the interviewer's decision by the promised date or within two weeks, you might make an inquiry. 45) Use the model for positive messages when you write a A) letter of resignation. B) letter of acceptance. C) letter declining a job offer. D) none of the above. Answer: B Explanation: B) When you're responding to a job offer that you want to accept, base your acceptance message on the model for positive messages. 46) Unsolicited application letters are sent in response to advertised job openings. Answer: False Explanation: When you send an unsolicited application letter, you are "prospecting" for an unadvertised job opportunity. 47) An unsolicited job application letter should begin with a statement designed to get the reader's attention. Answer: True Explanation: In an unsolicited job application letter, you are "selling" yourself, so catching the attention of your recipient is crucial. If you can arouse interest, the recipient is likely to read the rest of your letter and spend some time considering whether her company has a place for someone like you. 48) An application letter can follow the AIDA format for persuasive messages. Answer: True Explanation: Whether solicited or unsolicited, an application letter is clearly a persuasive document so it can follow an AIDA model. AIDA stands for: attention, interest, desire, and action. In an ideal situation, you need to grab the attention of the reader, build interest in yourself, stimulate desire to find out more about you, and provoke action to write back to you and schedule an interview. 49) In the middle part of an application letter, you should spell out your "selling points" and other potential benefits to your employer. Answer: True Explanation: Once you have attracted the attention of the recipient in your opening paragraph, the middle section of the letter needs to provide the details needed to build a case that you are someone who merits serious consideration. Focus on how you might be able to help the recipient in some way, using the skills, abilities, and experience you have. 50) In the final paragraph of your application letter, you should forcefully demand an interview. Answer: False Explanation: The goal of the final paragraph is to make a final pitch for yourself, and to initiate action on the part of the recipient, preferably in the form of the scheduling of an interview. Make sure you make it easy for the recipient to respond by providing several ways in which you can be available: in person, by telephone, as part of a group, and so on. Though your ultimate goal here is an interview, any kind of additional contact should be considered a success, because it allows you to get your "foot in the door." 51) In application letters it is acceptable to mention that you will follow up with a phone call in a few days. Answer: True Explanation: Announcing that you will follow up with a phone call is a confident move. If your letter has managed to arouse the interest of your recipient, your call is likely to be answered. Otherwise, don't be surprised if your call is routed to voicemail. 52) Many employers interview an applicant multiple times before deciding whether to offer a person a job. Answer: True Explanation: For good jobs, expect more than one interview before the employer makes an offer. In today's job market, companies like to make sure that you fit in before they make an investment in you. 53) Preliminary screening interviews are often conducted via telephone or Skype. Answer: True Explanation: Preliminary screening interviews are used to weed out inappropriate candidates and assemble a pool of qualified candidates. Since there are often dozens of candidates for these interviews, they are frequently conducted from remote locations via telephone, Skype, or similar programs. 54) One challenge in a screening interview is to keep your answers short while distinguishing yourself from other candidates. Answer: True Explanation: In a screening interview time is short so you do not get a chance to provide lengthy answers. At the same time, you want to use the interview to show that you stand out from the field of candidates. 55) During a stress interview, you might be asked pointed questions designed to anger or unsettle you. Answer: True Explanation: The purpose of a stress interview is to see how you respond to stressful situations. The interviewer is looking for you to be cool and calm in difficult situations. 56) You should prepare for a video interview in much the same way you would prepare for an in-person interview. Answer: True Explanation: A video or phone interview requires pretty much the same preparation that a live interview requires. With a video interview, you should take time to make sure that you are comfortable with the equipment and have identified a good camera angle. For example, don't place a bright window behind you during the interview because it will cause you to be backlit and your face will appear dark and hard to discern during the interview. 57) During the question-and-answer phase of an interview, keep your answers short and to the point. Answer: False Explanation: As much as possible, avoid one-word "yes" or "no" responses during this phase. Instead, use this opportunity to expand on your positive qualities and overcome negative impressions. 58) When applying for jobs, you should assume that every interested employer will conduct a general online search on you. Answer: True Explanation: A typical background check will verify college transcripts, credit records, and social networking sites to make sure you don't have any moral, legal, or ethical issues. You can avoid problems by doing a self-check and correcting any issues that come up before prospective employers have a chance to see them. 59) Part of preparing for a job interview involves anticipating the questions that will be asked and rehearsing answers to each one. Answer: True Explanation: Questions are obviously hard to predict, but most interviewers rely on at least some stock questions, such as, "Where do you want to be five years from now?" or "How do you think you can help this company?" Beyond that, it is helpful to think in general categories about how you will respond to questions about such topics as: your qualifications, your past employment, your special skills and abilities, and your character and sense of integrity. 60) Staging mock interviews can help you identify undesirable nonverbal behaviours and speech mannerisms. Answer: True Explanation: Mock interviews can help you get comfortable with the interview format and get used to answering the kinds of questions you will face. If possible, get someone you don't know very well to pose as the interviewer to add realism to your session. 61) Part of your preparation for job interviews is an evaluation of your vocal tone and speaking habits. Answer: True Explanation: Your speaking style can be a crucial element to your success in an interview. You may want to videotape yourself so you can work on your delivery, tone, and style. In general, most people are helped in interviews if they are able to slow down and think about their answers before they begin giving them. 62) The appropriate clothing for most job interviews is something conservative, such as a dark blue suit. Answer: True Explanation: Conservative dress is mandatory for a job interview, no matter what the dress style is for the company. Your goal in dress and grooming is to present a thoroughly professional appearance. 63) It's a good idea to take extra copies of your résumé with you to an interview. Answer: True Explanation: Your interviewer should already have a copy of your résumé in most cases. However, you may be introduced to other individuals in the company—such as the department head of where you might work—during your interview, so it could be useful to be able to hand them a printed résumé. 64) Most interviewers will make allowances for applicants to be a few minutes late for their appointment. Answer: False Explanation: Being late to an interview appointment is a major mistake. It signals disrespect for both the interviewer personally and the company in general. More importantly, being late to an interview marks you as someone who is unprofessional that doesn't understand how the business world works. 65) If you get off to a bad start in a job interview, you can usually turn things around with an impressive close. Answer: False Explanation: Keep in mind that many interviewers make up their mind about a candidate during the first few seconds of the interview. So be determined to get off to a good start. 66) Body language is particularly important during the warm-up phase of a job interview. Answer: True Explanation: Body language is critical for giving signals to the interviewer that you can fit into the situation. Sit up straight, but avoid seeming rigid. Think of the interview as an "athletic" event in which you need to have your body poised, yet highly alert. Maintain natural eye contact, and avoid fidgeting or indulging in nervous habits. 67) It is potentially illegal for an interviewer to ask about your religious affiliation or marital status. Answer: True Explanation: Race, religion, marital status, and ethnicity are all out of bounds as interview questions. Theoretically, you can refuse to answer these kinds of questions, but practically speaking, the situation may call for you to answer the question to avoid jeopardizing your chances for a job. If such questions arise, consider taking action after the interview has ended. 68) At the close of an interview, you should impress the interviewer with your assertiveness by pressing for an immediate decision. Answer: False Explanation: Pressing for an immediate decision is likely to make you seem pushy and overly aggressive—it could even cause the interviewer to change her mind about you and retract an offer she was otherwise going to make. Instead of pressing for an immediate decision, simply inquire about when the decision will be made and how you will be notified. 69) A job interviewer will expect you to raise the issue of salary. Answer: False Explanation: You are not expected to raise salary issues during the interview. Wait for the interviewer to bring up the subject after a job offer has been made. 70) You've just finished a job interview, and you know that you're not going to get the job. So, don't worry about sending a thank-you message to the interviewer. Answer: False Explanation: Be polite and professional in all of your interactions when job hunting. That means sending a thank-you note, even if you feel that you have no chance of getting the job. 71) ________ interviews, such as those on college campuses, are a means of eliminating unqualified applicants and identifying promising candidates. Answer: Screening Explanation: Screening interviews canvass large numbers of job seekers for the purpose of assembling a pool of candidates who meet all of the basic qualifications for the job. 72) In ________ interviews, the interviewer controls the situation by asking a series of prepared questions in a predetermined order. Answer: structured Explanation: Structured interviews are common when interviews are conducted with multiple candidates for the same position. Asking the same questions in the same order of all candidates allows the interviewer to be able to compare answers side by side. 73) In ________________ interviews, the interviewer poses broad questions and encourages the applicant to talk freely. Answer: open-ended Explanation: The answers of the interview subject guide the interview during an open-ended interview. The interviewer conducts the session like a conversation, using answers to bridge from one topic to another. 74) In ________ interviews, several candidates are interviewed simultaneously. Answer: group Explanation: The purpose of a group interview is two-fold. First, it allows the interviewer to become acquainted with the candidates in person. Second, it allows the interviewer to observe how candidates behave in the presence of potential peers. 75) In ________ interviews, candidates are asked pointed questions designed to upset or unsettle them. Answer: stress Explanation: Stress interviews are designed to put candidates into upsetting situations to see how they respond to adversity. 76) In ________ interviews, candidates are asked how they would handle hypothetical work problems. Answer: situational Explanation: As an example, in a situational interview a candidate for an executive position might be asked how she would handle a situation in which a talented member of the company needed to be fired for ethical violations. 77) In ________ interviews, candidates are asked to describe real situations in the past and explain how they responded. Answer: behavioral Explanation: In a behavioral interview, the interviewer asks you to relate specific incidents from your past to interview questions. For example, the interviewer might ask you how you might use lessons learned from your favourite college professor to solve a vexing problem that involves the current situation of the company and its products. 78) ________ language is especially crucial during the warm-up stage of an employment interview. Answer: Body Explanation: Positive body language is critical to making a good impression during the all-important warm-up stage of an interview. Try to sit or stand as erectly as possible while remaining poised and relaxed. Make appropriate eye contact and avoid all fidgeting and unnecessary movements. 79) Inquiries about an applicant's religious affiliation, national origin, marital status, and so on are considered to be potentially ________ interview questions. Answer: unlawful Explanation: Interviewers are not allowed to ask personal questions about race, age, ethnicity, sexual orientation, marital status, religious affiliation, or national origin. If they do ask questions of you on these topics, they are breaking the law. 80) Following a job interview, you should send a(n) ________ message even if you feel you have little chance of landing the job. Answer: thank-you Explanation: An email thanking the interviewer for his or her time will suffice for most situations. Staying polite and professional is important, even if you think you have no chance to land the job. 81) If you haven't heard from an employer by the promised date or within two weeks after an interview, you should send a message of ________. Answer: inquiry Explanation: The message of inquiry can be sent by email in most cases to find out the status of your application. The message of inquiry is especially important if you have received an offer from another company. 82) If you receive a job offer but are waiting to hear from other possible employers, request a time ________. Answer: extension Explanation: When asking for a time extension explain your situation clearly and honestly and assure the recipient that you will respond by a specific date. 83) When you receive a job offer that you want to accept, you should reply within ________ days. Answer: five Explanation: A letter of acceptance officially acknowledges that you have accepted a job. You may also wish to call your contact person at the company and inform him or her of your decision. 84) A letter declining a job offer follows the organizational model for ________ messages. Answer: negative Explanation: Declining a job offer is an example of a message that delivers negative news. Be as warm and tactful as possible in your letter, leaving the door open for future contact. 85) When resigning from your current job, it is vital to give your employer at least ________ notice. Answer: two weeks Explanation: Two weeks’ notice is standard in almost all job categories. Include the final day that you will be leaving the organization in your resignation letter. Be as polite and tactful as possible in your letter. 86) Briefly explain the primary differences between solicited application letters and unsolicited application letters. Answer: Whereas a solicited application letter is written in response to an announced job opening, an unsolicited letter is sent to an organization that has not announced an opening. Writing unsolicited letters is more challenging because you don't have a position announcement from which to work. 87) List the two functions of an application letter's final paragraph. Answer: This paragraph is designed to (1) ask the reader for a specific action (usually an interview) and (2) facilitate a reply. 88) Explain the dual purposes of employment interviews. Answer: The organization is trying to find the best person available for the job, while the applicant is trying to find the best job for his or her goals and capabilities. 89) Explain what you should strive to achieve during a selection interview. Answer: You should show keen interest in the job, relate your skills and experience to the organization's needs, listen attentively, ask insightful questions, and show you've done your research. 90) Briefly explain the difference between a structured interview and an open-ended interview. Answer: In structured interviews, the employer asks a series of prepared questions in a set order. In less formal open-ended interviews, the employer asks broad questions, encouraging the applicant to talk freely. 91) What two essential questions do employers seek to answer about each candidate in interviews? Answer: Employers seek to answer two questions: (1) Can he or she handle the responsibilities of the position? and (2) Will the candidate be a good fit with the organization? 92) What six tasks do you need to complete to prepare for a successful job interview? Answer: (1) Learn about the organization and your interviewers. (2) Think ahead about questions. (3) Bolster your confidence. (4) Polish your interview style. (5) Present a professional image. (6) Be ready when you arrive. 93) In evaluating your performance in mock interviews, what sorts of things should you (and your interview partner) pay particular attention to? Answer: Critique the quality and length of your answers, your nonverbal behavior, your speaking voice, your use of filler words (such as "uh" and "um"), and whether or not you pause to formulate coherent responses before answering. 94) List four guidelines to follow when deciding what to wear for an employment interview. Answer: (1) Dress conservatively. (2) Wear limited jewellery (men should wear especially little jewellery). (3) Wear stylish but professional looking shoes. (4) Avoid flamboyant styles, colours, and prints even in companies where interviewers may dress casually. (Answers may vary.) Here are four guidelines to follow when deciding what to wear for an employment interview: 1. Research the Company Culture: • Understand the company's dress code by researching its website, social media profiles, or talking to current employees. This helps ensure that your attire aligns with the company's culture, whether it's formal, business casual, or casual. 2. Choose Professional and Conservative Attire: • opt for professional and conservative clothing to make a positive impression. For men, this typically means a suit and tie or a dress shirt with slacks. For women, a tailored dress, pantsuit, or skirt with a blouse is appropriate. Avoid overly flashy or trendy clothing. 3. Ensure Clothing is Clean and Well-Fitted: • Make sure your outfit is clean, wrinkle-free, and fits properly. Ill-fitting or sloppy clothing can give the impression of a lack of attention to detail and professionalism. Pay attention to grooming and personal hygiene as well. 4. Accessorize Minimally and Appropriately: • Keep accessories simple and minimal. Avoid excessive jewellery, strong perfumes or colognes, and flashy items that can distract from your qualifications and the conversation. A professional watch, subtle earrings, and a neat hairstyle can complement your attire without being overpowering. 95) List at least five items to you should take to every interview. Answer: (1) Small notebook, (2) pen, (3) list of the questions you want to ask, (4) several copies of your résumé, (5) an outline of what you have learned about the organization, (6) any past correspondence about the position. 96) Explain the function of each phase of an application letter written in the AIDA format. Answer: (1) Getting attention: The opening paragraph of your application letter has two important jobs to do: clearly stating your reason for writing and giving the recipient a reason to keep reading. (2) Building interest and increasing desire: The middle section of the application letter presents your strongest selling points in terms of their potential benefit to the organization, thereby building interest in you and creating a desire to interview you. (3) Motivating action: The final paragraph of your application letter has two important functions: to ask the reader for a specific action and to facilitate a reply. In almost all cases, the action you request is an interview. 97) Describe the typical sequence of employment interviews, and what employers tend to look for at each stage. Answer: (1) Screening stage—these interviews usually occur on campus or via phone. They are short; the focus is on screening out unqualified applicants. Try to make yourself memorable while giving short, relevant examples about your experience. (2) Selection stage—these are onsite interviews with several employees of the organization. They allow the applicant and the organization to decide if they will be a good fit for one another. (3) Final stage—this is usually an interview with a higher-level executive who can make the final decision and negotiate the terms of an offer. 98) Describe at least five types of employment interviews. Answer: (Answers may vary.) (1) Structured interviews—Generally used in the screening stage, these interviews ask a series of prepared questions in a set order. All applicants are asked the same questions, and their answers are compared. (2) Open-ended interviews—Applicants are asked a series of unstructured, open-ended questions. These interviews are meant to bring out an applicant's personality and test professional judgment. (3) Panel interviews—During this type, several interviewers ask questions of the candidate during a single session. (4) Group interviews—To judge interpersonal skills, some employers meet with several candidates simultaneously to see how they interact. (5) Stress interviews—These interviews try to put applicants in a difficult or stressful situation and then observe how well they can handle that. (6) Video interviews—These interviews are set up via videoconferencing to save time and money. (7) Situational interviews—This is a hands-on meeting between an employer who needs a job done and a worker who must be fully prepared to do the work. Interviewers describe a situation and ask applicants how they would handle it. (8) Online interviews—These can range from simple structured questionnaires and tests to sophisticated job simulations. Here are five types of employment interviews: 1. Behavioral Interview: • Description: This interview focuses on past behavior and experiences to predict future performance. Candidates are asked to provide examples of how they handled specific situations in previous jobs, often using the STAR method (Situation, Task, Action, Result). • Example Question: "Can you describe a time when you had to resolve a conflict with a coworker?" 2. Technical Interview: • Description: This interview assesses a candidate's technical skills and knowledge related to the specific job role. It may include problem-solving exercises, coding tests, or technical questions relevant to the field. • Example Question: "Can you solve this coding problem?" or "How would you troubleshoot this technical issue?" 3. Panel Interview: • Description: A panel interview involves multiple interviewers who ask questions and evaluate the candidate. It provides different perspectives on the candidate's suitability for the role and can simulate interactions with various team members. • Example Question: Panel members may ask questions related to their individual areas of expertise, such as project management, team collaboration, or technical skills. 4. Structured Interview: • Description: In a structured interview, each candidate is asked the same set of predetermined questions, allowing for consistent evaluation criteria across all interviewees. This method helps reduce bias and ensures fairness in the selection process. • Example Question: "Describe your experience with project management software." 5. Unstructured Interview: • Description: An unstructured interview is more informal and flexible, with questions that can vary widely between candidates. The conversation often flows more naturally, allowing the interviewer to explore various aspects of the candidate's background and personality. • Example Question: "Tell me about yourself and how you got into this field." Each type of interview serves different purposes and can provide unique insights into a candidate's qualifications, skills, and fit for the role. 99) Describe each of the three stages of a successful employment interview. Answer: (1) The warm-up: This is the most important stage. Interviewers will make important decisions about you based on their first impression. Sell yourself nonverbally. Offer a firm but gentle handshake; use the interviewer's name; smile. Let the interviewer begin the discussion. (2) The question-and-answer stage: Let the interviewer lead the conversation. Try to tailor your answers to make a favourable impression. Be sure to ask questions of your own about the job and the company. Explain how you will be able to help the company meet its needs. (3) The close: Pay attention to the interviewer's signals that the interview is coming to a close. Thank the interviewer and express your enthusiasm for the job and the organization. 100) Describe at least three common employment messages that follow an interview. Answer: (1) Thank-you letter: Send this type of message within two days of the interview. Acknowledge the interviewer's time and courtesy and express your continued interest in the job. (2) Message of inquiry: If you have not heard back from the company within two weeks of your interview, you should send them a letter asking to be notified about the decision. Doing so shows that you are still interested in the position. (3) Request for a time extension: If you receive an offer while still waiting to hear back from another interview, you may write to the offering company and ask for a time extension on your decision. (4) Letter of acceptance: Like the job offer itself, this message is legally binding. (5) Letter declining a job offer: The indirect approach for negative messages is ideal for this type of letter. Appendix A Format and Layout of Business Documents 1) The quality of paper is measured by A) length and width. B) weight and cotton content. C) colour and texture. D) style of letterhead and corporate logo. Answer: B Explanation: B) Generally speaking, the heavier the paper and the greater its cotton content, the greater the quality the paper has. Cotton gives paper strength and texture, and it doesn't yellow over time like pure wood pulp paper. 2) The proper sequence for the standard parts of a letter is A) heading, date, inside address, salutation, body, complimentary close, signature block. B) date, heading, inside address, salutation, body, typewritten name, complimentary close. C) salutation, date, heading, inside address, body, complimentary close, signature block. D) inside address, heading, date, salutation, body, complimentary close, typewritten name. Answer: A Explanation: A) This sequence is the standard arrangement. If you are using company letterhead you can skip the heading. The use of letterhead indicates to your recipient that you are officially representing the company. 3) Which of the following is a Salut opening? A) Dear Professor Milford: B) Dear Esteemed Professor Milford, It has come to our attention that you are interested in joining our research team in Winslow, Arizona. We think you can be a good fit! C) Thank you, Professor Milford, for your prompt response. D) Attention: Professor J. J. Milford Answer: C Explanation: C) A "Salut opening" combines a salutation with an opening. The first line of the Salut opening addresses the recipient directly, omitting Dear. This is followed by a second line that briefly begins the body of the letter. 4) If you include an attention line in a business letter, you should place it A) at the top of the page, cantered under the letterhead. B) below the salutation. C) two lines below the complimentary close. D) on the first line of the inside address. Answer: D Explanation: D) The attention line directs the correspondence you are sending to a particular individual or department within an organization. For example, when sending a letter to The Washington Post you might use an attention line to direct your letter to the cartoon editor, as in: Attention: Cartoon Editor Michael Cavan. 5) When is an enclosure notation required in a business letter? A) All business letters require enclosure notations. B) When the letter is typed by one person to express the sentiments of another person. C) When the letter is sent in printed form rather than electronic form. D) When the letter includes other documents. Answer: D Explanation: D) Enclosures include any additional documents or items that you are sending with the main letter. Additional items might include such things as résumés, photos, brochures, and schedules. 6) The letter format in which all parts begin at the left margin is called A) block. B) modified block. C) simplified. D) mixed. Answer: A Explanation: A) In block format, all paragraphs and sections are flush left with no indentation. New paragraphs are identified by skipping a line between paragraphs. Modified block format is similar to block format, except the date and bottom sections are not flush left. 7) To meet the needs of U.S. Postal Service equipment, envelopes used for bulk mailings A) are never made of coloured paper. B) are addressed in capital letters. C) include all mailing instructions below the address area. D) adhere to all of the above guidelines. Answer: B Explanation: B) In addition to all capital letters, mass mail envelopes omit punctuation, and place all mailing instructions above the address area. 8) The top of a memo usually includes headings for A) to, from, date, subject. B) department, date, subject. C) attention, to, from, date. D) subject, to, date. Answer: A Explanation: A) In a written memo, the TO supplies the recipient's address, the FROM is the sender's address, and the SUBJECT functions like the subject line of an email. 9) In memos, a courtesy title A) should always be used. B) is never appropriate. C) is required if you are discussing confidential matters. D) should be used only if you would use one in a face-to-face encounter with the reader. Answer: D Explanation: D) A courtesy title such as Mr. or Dr. is required in a memo only when your relationship with the recipient is on a formal level. As a rule, if you use a courtesy title when you say hello to the person in the hallway, use the same title in a memo. 10) When preparing a formal report that will be bound, leave at least a A) uniform 2-inch margin on all sides. B) 2-inch margin at the top and bottom and a 1-inch margin on the sides. C) 1-inch margin on three sides and a 1-1/2-inch margin on the bound side. D) uniform 1-1/2-inch margin on all sides. Answer: C Explanation: C) The bound side of the page needs extra margin space because it will be accommodating the binding itself. 11) Letterhead stationery commonly includes the company's URL. Answer: True Explanation: Letterhead includes all identifiers of a company, including its name, address, telephone and fax numbers, website URL, general email address, and social media URLs. 12) In business documents, abbreviations such as U.S.A. and M.B.A. must always contain periods. Answer: False Explanation: Periods in common abbreviations may be omitted or not. Spaces between letters are never used. 13) "Feb. 10th 2012" is the correct way to type the date in a letter. Answer: False Explanation: The name of the month should be written out in full. The th in 10th should be deleted. A comma should be placed between the day and the year. 14) If you are writing a business letter to someone you know well, it is acceptable to use his or her first name in the salutation. Answer: True Explanation: The salutation depends entirely on your relationship with the recipient. If you feel comfortable with a first name, don't hesitate to use it. 15) Three blank lines are left between the complimentary close and the sender's typed name. Answer: True Explanation: The blank lines are placed between the complimentary close and the sender's name to allow space for the sender's signature. 16) The second page of a letter includes a heading that is different from the heading of the first page. Answer: True Explanation: The second page heading contains the name of the person or organization receiving the letter, the page number, the date, and possibly a reference number. 17) In the simplified letter format, commas follow both the salutation and the complimentary close. Answer: False Explanation: The simplified format does not use a salutation or a complimentary close. 18) No. 10 envelopes used in U.S. businesses measure 8 1/2 inches in length to accommodate standard letters that are 8 1/2 inches wide. Answer: False Explanation: No. 10 envelopes are slightly greater in length than 8 1/2 inches to allow a standard folded 8 1/2 inch wide letter to fit comfortably inside of them. No. 10 envelopes are 9 1/2 inches in length. 19) A memo should always contain a complimentary close and a signature. Answer: False Explanation: Memos are designed to be shorter and less formal than letters. Memos can go unsigned, since the sender's name appears at the top. In many cases, the sender will initial the bottom of the memo for a personal touch. 20) Put a page number at the top of every page in a formal report. Answer: False Explanation: Don't number the first page of a report. Assign lowercase roman numerals to prefatory pages. Begin the official numbering system (usually Arabic numerals) with the first page of body of the report. Appendix B Documentation of Report Sources 1) The Chicago humanities documentation style requires you to use A) the author-date system. B) the author-page number system. C) footnotes or endnotes. D) full citations within the text itself. Answer: C Explanation: C) The Chicago humanities style requires either footnotes to appear at the bottom of the page or endnotes to appear at the end of the document. Those references are listed in standard bibliographic style. 2) The purpose of a superscript in text is to let the reader know A) to read the marked line more carefully. B) how many sources the author consulted. C) that the report is scholarly. D) to look for source information. Answer: D Explanation: D) The superscript number shows that the source of the information is being cited, either in a footnote or endnote. The number of the superscript identifies the source that corresponds to the text you are reading. 3) A content note A) offers additional information or provides a cross-reference. B) documents direct quotes. C) documents paraphrased passages. D) documents visual aids. Answer: A Explanation: A) A content note provides relevant information that was not included in the main body of the text. For example, a content note might inform the reader about a colourful or controversial author who was mentioned in the text of the report. 4) In the Chicago humanities style, the bibliography A) lists only those works actually cited in the text. B) lists works in the order cited in the text. C) can include annotations. D) does all of the above. Answer: C Explanation: C) If the reader is relying on the bibliography as a reading guide, annotations are often helpful. Annotations comment on individual works in the bibliography. For example, an annotation might state, "This source is an excellent place for people who want to find out more about this topic to begin their research." 5) Entries for the bibliography for a report following the Chicago style A) alphabetize magazine articles by the name of the magazine if no author is cited. B) use quotation marks around the titles of articles from newspapers and journals. C) capitalize only the first words of titles of books and articles. D) use only the name of the principal author, followed by "et al." to represent any other authors. Answer: B Explanation: B) According to the Chicago style, put names of newspaper and magazine articles in quotations. List names of journals, newspapers, and books in italics. 6) The American Psychological Association (APA) style uses the ________ to document report sources in text. A) the author-date system. B) the author-page number system. C) superscripts and footnotes or endnotes. D) full citations within the text itself. Answer: A Explanation: A) The American Psychological Association recommends the author-date system of documentation. To document in-text sources, insert the author's last name and the date inside parentheses following the cited material: e.g., (Miller, 1998). 7) When citing journal articles using the APA style A) use quotation marks around the title. B) capitalize only the first word of the title. C) you do not need to include the volume number. D) include only the first page of the article. Answer: B Explanation: B) Capitalize only the first word of the article's title. In addition, capitalize the first word to follow an internal colon in the title. 8) When preparing the list of references in the APA style A) include all the works you consulted, even if you didn't actually cite them anywhere in the text. B) include full information on any personal communications or interviews you conducted in your research. C) include only those works that you specifically cited in the text. D) do all of the above. Answer: C Explanation: C) The APA style includes a "References" section that lists only those works cited in the text of the report. If you consulted a text but did not cite it in the report, don't list it. 9) The MLA style uses ________ to document sources in the text of a report. A) the author-date system. B) the author-page reference system. C) superscripts and footnotes or endnotes. D) full citations within the text itself. Answer: B Explanation: B) To document report sources in text using MLA style, insert the author's last name and a page reference inside parentheses following the cited material: e.g., (Clifton 57). 10) According to the MLA Style Manual, in the list of works cited A) the date comes immediately after the author's name. B) electronic sources are not included. C) the titles of books and periodicals are put in quotation marks. D) all the main words are capitalized in the titles of books and articles. Answer: D Explanation: D) The MLA Style Manual recommends putting quotation marks around titles of periodical articles and capitalizing those titles as if they were book titles. 11) You should always use APA style for documentation in your reports, even if your employer or client normally uses a different form. Answer: False Explanation: Use the style required by your employer or client, even if it differs from standard formats. 12) Unlike source notes, content notes may supplement your main text with comments and/or cross-references. Answer: True Explanation: Content notes provide additional information that was not appropriate for the main body of the text but may be relevant to some readers. For example, when listing the price for a piece of equipment you intend for the company to purchase, you might use a content note to list the prices of alternative equipment that you decided against using. 13) The functions of footnotes and endnotes are identical; the only difference between the two is their placement. Answer: True Explanation: Both types of notes perform the same function. Endnotes can be less intrusive than footnotes because they appear at the end of the document or section. Footnotes can be helpful if the reader wants instant access to information about the source, without having to flip the page. 14) There is no difference between endnotes and a bibliography. Answer: False Explanation: There are important differences between the two. Endnotes appear in the order in which sources appear in the text. Typical bibliographies are arranged in alphabetical order and may be categorized by subject, date, or author. 15) If a newspaper article doesn't have an author, your citation begins with the title of the newspaper. Answer: False Explanation: If the author of an article is anonymous, the title of the article should come first. 16) If you use unpublished materials, such as doctoral dissertations or public speeches, as information resources, you do not need to cite them in your report. Answer: False Explanation: Unpublished works should be listed like published works, with the author's name first, followed by additional information such as "Unpublished doctoral dissertation." 17) The American Psychological Association style uses the author-date system. Answer: True Explanation: The American Psychological Association recommends the author-date system of documentation. The dates distinguish between different publications because the same person may have authored multiple articles with different publication dates. 18) In APA style, titles of articles are put in quotation marks and all important words are capitalized. Answer: False Explanation: In APA style, only capitalize the first word of an article, and don't enclose the title with quotation marks. 19) If you use MLA style, your in-text citations include the author's last name and a page reference. Answer: True Explanation: The MLA style emphasizes locating a reference within a specific source. Thus, if Clifton had written an 870-page book on a topic, you would cite different facts from the book by listing the author's name and the specific page number on which the fact, opinion, or data appeared. 20) The Modern Language Association of America recommends compiling the list of references after you've written your report. Answer: False Explanation: The MLA Style Manual recommends preparing the list of works cited first so that you will know what information to include for in-text parenthetical citations. Appendix C Handbook of Grammar, Mechanics, and Usage 1) Which of the following is a demonstrative pronoun? A) He B) This C) Who D) Anyone Answer: B Explanation: B) Demonstrative pronouns point out particular people, places, or things. Demonstrative pronouns include this, these, that, and those. Examples: That is my dog. I looked for a broom and instead found this. Don't confuse demonstrative pronouns with demonstrative adjectives: That dog is mine. (demonstrative adjective) That is good dog. (demonstrative pronoun) 2) Which of the following possessive phrases is not correct? A) The team's contract with the players B) The teams' contract with the players C) Its advantages to the players D) It's advantages to the players Answer: D Explanation: D) Apostrophes are used for all possessives except possessive pronouns. Possessive pronouns never take apostrophes to show ownership. So it is the possessive form, not it's. 3) What is the tense of the verb in this sentence? "We had given Tim the money a week before he arrived." A) Present B) Past C) Future D) Past perfect Answer: D Explanation: D) The perfect tenses use the auxiliary verb have with a past participle. The past perfect uses have in the simple past tense (had) combined with the past participle (given). The past perfect refers to something in the past that had occurred already at an earlier time. When Tim arrived, he already had the money. 4) Which of the following italicized words is an adjective? A) too dark B) silent movie C) into the theatre D) badly missed Answer: B Explanation: B) An adjective is a word that modifies a noun or a pronoun. The word silent modifies the noun movie, telling you what kind of movie you have, a silent movie. 5) Which of the following is a sentence fragment? A) The bigger they are, the harder they fall. B) He put the package in the mail right away. C) Come here. D) Moxie, depending on his friends for support. Answer: D Explanation: D) If a sentence does not have a subject and a predicate it is a sentence fragment. "Moxie, depending on his friends for support" has a subject, Moxie, but no predicate. To change the fragment to a sentence, simply give it a predicate: Moxie depends on his friends for support. 6) What is the problem with this sentence? "We can give him a small raise, he deserves it." A) Comma splice B) Sentence fragment C) Dangling modifier D) Nothing Answer: A Explanation: A) A sentence with a comma splice uses a comma to separate two independent clauses. To correct a comma splice, insert a period and make two sentences: We can give him a small raise. He deserves it. You can also use a semicolon to correct a comma splice: We gave him a small raise; he deserves it. 7) Which of the following punctuation marks is used to separate a dependent clause at the beginning of a sentence from the rest of the sentence? A) Semicolon B) Colon C) Comma D) Dash Answer: C Explanation: C) Here is an example of a comma separating a dependent clause from the main clause of a sentence: Although we were late, the game was still going on. The dependent clause, Although we were late, cannot stand on its own as an independent sentence. The main clause, the game was still going on, can stand on its own, so it is an independent sentence. The comma separates the two clauses and forms a complete sentence. 8) Which of the following terms should not be hyphenated? A) The relationship was long-term. B) We had a long-term relationship. C) That is one self-confident politician. D) I introduced her as my ex-wife. Answer: A Explanation: A) When a compound adjective comes before the noun it modifies it should be hyphenated as in long-term relationship. When the phrase comes after the noun it should not be hyphenated: The relationship was long term. 9) In the following sentence, which word should not be capitalized? "After talking with President Hilda Bruckner, he decided that the Insurance industry would provide a suitable career for someone who was a graduate of the Department of Business at Gable University." A) Department B) President C) Gable D) Insurance Answer: D Explanation: D) President is capitalized because it is a title of a person. Hilda Bruckner is capitalized because it is a proper noun, the name of a person. The Department of Business is capitalized because it identifies an official organization. Gable University is capitalized because it is a proper noun and the name of an institution. Insurance is neither a proper noun or the name of something. It is an ordinary adjective, so it should not be capitalized. 10) Which of the following words is misspelled? A) Accomodate B) Exaggerate C) Occurrence D) Receive Answer: A Explanation: A) The word accommodate has two m's. 11) The plural of "son-in-law" is "sons-in-law," but the possessive is "son-in-law's." Answer: True Explanation: The plural of a compound hyphenated construction goes on the first word: sons-in-law. The possessive form of a compound hyphenated construction goes on the last word: son-in-law's. 12) The pronoun "who" is in the nominative case; the pronoun "whom" is in the objective case. Answer: True Explanation: The nominative case is typically the subject of a sentence. Consider this sentence: Who likes the Yankees? The word Who is in the nominative case because it is used as a subject. The objective case is used when the word is an object of a verb or preposition. Consider this sentence: Darla is the friend for whom we are waiting. Whom is in the objective case because it is the object of the preposition for. 13) The verb "do" is an example of a regular verb. Answer: False Explanation: A regular verb can be conjugated in a standard way, such as talk: I talk. He talks. They talk. She talked yesterday. The verb do is irregular because it doesn't follow a regular verb pattern: I do. He does. They do. She did yesterday. As you can see, both the present and past have unusual, or irregular, formations. 14) The difference between "lie" and "lay" is that "lie" is an intransitive verb and "lay" is a transitive verb. Answer: True Explanation: Transitive verbs can take an object: I lay the blanket down. The blanket is the object in the previous sentence. The word lie is intransitive; it cannot take an object: I lie on the bed. In the previous sentence, there is no object. 15) Many adverbs are formed by adding "-ly" to adjectives. Answer: True Explanation: Adverbs that are formed by adding "-ly" include: quiet, quietly, soft, softly, quick, quickly, sudden, suddenly, complete, completely. Adverbs that do not use the "-ly" form include: early, fast, well, and hard. 16) A linking verb is always followed by a noun, pronoun, or adjective. Answer: True Explanation: Examples of linking verbs include: Paul is a man (linking verb is followed by noun man). Jan seems tired (linking verb seems followed by adjective tired). 17) A semicolon is used to separate independent clauses when the second clause begins with a conjunctive adverb such as "however" or "therefore." Answer: True Explanation: In the following sentence two independent clauses are separated by a semicolon that is followed by however: The hour is late; however, I am not sleepy. Note that the conjunctive adverb, however, is separated from the clause that follows with a comma. 18) You should include a comma when a date consists only of the month and year. Answer: False Explanation: To express a date of "June 1966" you don't need to place a comma between the month and the year. 19) Punctuation goes inside quotation marks if the whole sentence is quoted but outside the quotation marks if only the last part of the sentence is a quote. Answer: False Explanation: Punctuation should be placed inside of the quotation marks in most cases, for example: It became clear to me that "money doesn't grow on trees." The punctuation goes outside of quotation marks only in specific situations, as when the sentence is a question but the quotation is not a question: Why are people always telling me to "take it easy"? 20) The following sentence uses all words correctly: She was disinterested in paying me a complement. Answer: False Explanation: The word disinterested means unbiased; it should be replaced by uninterested. When you say something nice you pay someone a compliment, not a complement. A complement refers to an addition that makes something complete. Test Bank for Business Communication Today Courtland L. Bovee, John V. Thill 9780132971294, 9780134562186, 9780135900239, 9780132539555
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