This Document Contains Chapters 17 to 22 Chapter 17 Decision Making Workbook Exam and Review Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. The manager’s job is to manage the decision process by _____. a. not letting other decisions influence the process b. guiding decision makers to the only possible solution based on the facts c. assessing which information and which employees need to be involved d. streamlining the process e. none of the above 2. Research has found that two commonly used managerial tactics are less likely to result in successful decisions. They are _____. a. intervention and subversion b. rationalization and persuasion c. edicts and intervention d. persuasion and edicts e. none of the above 3. In the garbage can model of decision making, the factors floating randomly inside the organization include all the following except for _____. a. data b. solutions c. problems d. participants e. none of the above 4. To avoid decisions such as Ford’s disastrous decision to produce the Edsel, what should groups do about their decision-making process? a. assign a devil’s advocate to challenge assumptions and arguments b. adopt the perspectives of other constituencies with a stake in the decision c. “sleep on it” before a tentative decision becomes finalized d. answer choices a, b and c e. none of the above 5. The leader-participation model is based on evidence that the choice of leadership styles can affect these four outcomes _____. a. cost, effectiveness, time, and quality b. quality, implementation, costs, and development c. commitment, cost, conflict, and effect on culture d. effectiveness, conflict, time, and development e. none of the above 6. In groups, people are sometimes more cautious or more risky decision makers than they would be individually. According to the text, the determining factor about which way groups shift is _____. a. the persuasive abilities of group members b. the environmental factors c. the financial factors d. the pre-meeting position of the members e. none of the above 7. Bounded rationality is based on the following assumptions except _____. a. managers select the first alternative that is satisfactory b. managers use judgment shortcuts c. managers prefer to look at all the alternatives before making a decision d. both the available information and the definition of the situation are incomplete and inadequate to some degree e. none of the above 8. One of the situational contingencies that determines the appropriate leadership style concerns whether or not the problem is _____. a. controversial or non-controversial b. expensive or inexpensive c. structured or unstructured d. product-oriented or process-oriented e. none of the above 9. You are designing an innovative spaceship with brand new technology. In terms of Vroom’s model, what kind of problem is this and what kind of leadership style would be most effective? a. structured-autocratic b. structured-participative c. unstructured-autocratic d. unstructured-participative e. none of the above 10. When a decision maker overweighs initial information and fails to adequately take into account new information, the decision making is demonstrating which of the following decision biases? a. anchoring and adjusting b. representativeness c. availability d. emotional involvement e. none of the above 11. What can be done to avoid the availability decision-making bias? a. expand your experiences so that you have a variety of events readily available in memory b. get additional data about how frequently events occur c. check your mood d. answer choices a and b e. none of the above 12. Employees generally estimate that they perform better than about 75% of their peers. This is an example of which decision-making bias? a. availability b. overconfidence c. anchoring and adjusting d. emotional involvement e. representativeness 13. Symptoms of groupthink include which of the following? a. illusion of invulnerability b. illusion of morality c. collective rationalization d. stereotyping of out-groups e. all of the above 14. The “zone of indifference” refers to the area within which employees _____. a. will carry out directives without commitment b. will passively resist decisions c. willingly accept decisions made by their boss d. don’t care whether the boss makes bad decisions e. none of the above 15. According to the leader-participation model, a manager should choose to delegate a decision to a group when _____. a. the manager has enough information to make the decision alone b. the decision is insignificant c. the team has the ability to work together to solve the problem d. team commitment to the decision is not important e. none of the above 16. When should the Recognition-Primed Decision Model not be used? a. when decisions are structured and certain b. when the decision maker has sufficient expertise c. when the decision maker’s experience base is limited d. when the decision maker has multiple ways of looking at the situation and multiple frames of reference e. none of the above True or False Questions 17. In Sweden, as in the United States, rationality is highly valued. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False. Swedes are more comfortable with intuitive decision making. 18. Escalation of commitment occurs when people continue to commit resources to a failing course of action. _____ True or _____ False? Why? True. This is the correct definition. Short Answer Questions 19. _____ are rules of thumb based on past experience that managers use to simplify decision making. Heuristics 20. It’s important for leaders to understand that decision making is not an individual process but a _____ process. social 21. _____ is the tendency for members of a highly cohesive group to seek consensus so strongly that they fail to do a realistic appraisal of other alternatives. Groupthink 22. According to Vroom, under what circumstances would an autocratic decision be justified? When the leader has all the necessary information and the problem is structured, subordinates are likely to accept an autocratic decision. 23. _____ is a cognitive conclusion based on a decision maker’s previous experiences and emotional inputs. Intuition Essay Questions 24. What are some of the managerial tactics that have very high success rates? • Setting realistic objectives for the decision before moving on to consider options • Intervention-pointing out performance gaps and the need for the decision, networking, calling attention to ideas that might work, and identifying and justifying new performance norms • Participation-task forces with key individuals • Integrated benchmarking-studying several organizations to learn from their best practices 25. What are the pros and cons of group decisions? Pros: • More complete information and knowledge • Diverse views • Increased commitment to the decision • Increased legitimacy of the decision Cons: • Time consuming • Influenced by conformity pressures • Influenced by a dominant person or subgroup 26. Define a PreMortem Exercise and discuss the steps taken to conduct such an exercise. A PreMortem Exercise is designed to expose vulnerabilities in planning. It uses mental simulation to identify the weaknesses of a plan and design ways to counter those problems. The steps are: • Preparation • Imagine a fiasco • Generate reasons for failure • Consolidate the lists of reasons for failure • Revisit the plan • Review the lists of concern and reasons for failure Chapter 18 Power and Influence Workbook Exam and Review Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. In the lateral relationships found in staff positions, self-managed work teams and network organizations, power does not come from ______. a. expertise b. position c. effort d. charisma e. none of the above 2. Which of these influence styles is least preferred by managers? a. consultation b. pressure tactics c. inspirational appeals d. rational persuasion e. ingratiation 3. The two “pull” influence styles as identified by Berlew and Harrison are _____. a. common vision and assertive persuasion b. assertive persuasion, participation and trust c. assertive persuasion, reward and punishment d. common vision, participation and trust e. none of the above 4. Which of the following is not one of the steps used to establish sustained managerial influence? a. balance the time spent in each critical relationship based on habit or social reference b. develop a network of resource persons who can be called on for assistance c. implement influence tactics with sensitivity, flexibility and adequate levels of communication d. develop a reputation as a knowledgeable person or expert e. none of the above 5. Individuals who are high in socialized power _____. a. are unconcerned about group goals b. use a win-win approach c. use a win-lose approach d. desire personal dominance e. none of the above 6. Influence attempts have both ____ and ____ outcomes. a. participation, laissez faire b. political, financial c. reward and punishment d. content and relationship e. none of the above 7. Demonstrating how many people agree with a decision would be an example of which influence strategy? a. social proof b. reciprocity c. consistency d. expertise e. none of the above 8. Doing favors is an example of which influence strategy? a. social proof b. reciprocity c. consistency d. expertise e. none of the above 9. Making commitments to a decision active, public and voluntary is an example of which influence tactic? a. social proof b. reciprocity c. consistency d. expertise e. none of the above 10. Which influence style is this? I am direct and positive in asserting my own wishes and requirements. I let others know what I want from them, and I am quick to tell others when I am pleased or dissatisfied with their performance. I am willing to use my influence and authority to get others to do what I want. I skillfully use a combination of pressures and incentives to get others to agree with my plans and proposals, and I follow up to make sure they carry out agreements and commitments. I readily engage in bargaining and negotiation to achieve my objectives, using both tough and conciliatory styles according to the realities of power and position in each situation. a. participation and trust b. reward and punishment c. common vision d. assertive persuasion e. none of the above 11. I am open and non-defensive, being quick to admit when I do not have the answer, or when I have made a mistake. I listen attentively to the ideas and feelings of others, actively communicating my interest in their contributions, and my understanding of their points of view. I am willing to be influenced by others. I give credit to others for their ideas and accomplishments. I make sure that everyone has a chance to be heard before decisions are made, even when I do not agree with their position. I show trust in others, and I help them to bring out and develop their strengths and abilities. a. participation and trust b. reward and punishment c. common vision d. assertive persuasion e. none of the above 12. I produce detailed and comprehensive proposals for dealing with problems. I am persistent and energetic in finding and presenting the logic behind my ideas and in marshalling facts, arguments, and opinion in support of my position. I am quick to grasp the strengths and weaknesses in an argument and to see and articulate the logical connections among various aspects of a complex situation. I am a vigorous and determined seller of ideas. a. participation and trust b. reward and punishment c. common vision e. assertive persuasion e. none of the above 13. I appeal to the emotions and ideals of others through the use of forceful and colorful words and images. My enthusiasm is contagious and carries others along with me. I bring others to believe in their ability to accomplish and succeed by working together. I see and can communicate my vision of the exciting possibilities in an idea or situation. I get others to see the values, hopes, and aspirations that they have in common, and I build these common values into a shared sense of group loyalty and commitment. a. participation and trust b. reward and punishment c. common vision d. assertive persuasion e. none of the above True or False Questions 14. Push styles are more likely to result in commitment than in compliance. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False. Pull styles are more likely to result in commitment. 15. If managers give up power to their employees, they will always have less power for themselves. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False. This is only true if managers view this in a win-lose framework. Managers have more power when they give it away. Short Answer Questions 16. Briefly distinguish among the three possible outcomes of an influence attempt and provide an example of each one. • Commitment—implies internal agreement • Compliance—going along with a request or demand but not believing in it • Resistance—rejection of influence attempt; refusal or passive-aggressive behavior or seeking out a third party or superior to overrule the request 17. Active listening is associated with the _____ influence style. participation and trust 18. Conger identified four steps that managers used to effectively persuade. Describe them. Answer:• Establish credibility • Frame goals that emphasize common ground • Use vivid language and compelling evidence • Connect emotionally with the audience 19. _____ refers to unwelcome advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature. Sexual harassment 20. _____ is socializing/politicking and interacting with outsiders. Networking Essay Questions 21. What is the difference between power and influence? Power is defined as the capacity to influence the behavior of others; influence is the process by which people successfully persuade others to follow their advice, suggestions, or orders. A manager cannot “make a difference” without exerting power and influence over employees. 22. List two artifacts of power in an organization you know well and explain what they symbolize. 1. Executive Office Layout: In many organizations, the layout and location of executive offices symbolize power and status. For instance, executives often have corner offices with expansive views, indicating their high rank and authority. 2. Reserved Parking Spaces: Designated parking spots for top management symbolize their high status and importance. These spots are often closer to the building entrance, signaling their privileged position within the organization. 23. What are the questions that managers should ask themselves as they design their influence strategies? Apply these questions to an influence situation in your own life. • What is my objective? • Whose cooperation is needed? • What motivates those people? Why might they resist? • What type of relationship do I have with them? • What sources of power and influence do they have? • Can I live with the outcomes of my strategies? 24. How does sexual harassment relate to power? Subjects of harassment, female or male, find themselves in especially difficult situations when their superiors, with their power to reward and punish them, are the ones doing the harassing. People sometimes fear that refusing to go along with sexual advances will result in termination, poor performance appraisals, and decreased promotion opportunities and salary. Therefore, power can be a factor in sexual harassment when those in higher positions abuse their power to harass people in lower ranking positions. Sometimes, however, the initiators are people in lower-ranking positions who offer sexual favors to obtain advantages at work from a powerful person. 25. Are men and women different in the way they use influence tactics? There are contradictory findings concerning gender differences in the use of influence tactics; some studies find no differences between men and women, whereas others find that the only difference is that women are less assertive with their superiors and more likely to appeal to altruism and rationale-based strategies than threats of punishment with their subordinates. The longitudinal study of AT&T employees revealed the following gender differences with regard to power. Women are more consensus-oriented than men, which has been confirmed in many other studies. Women and men view and utilize power in different ways. Women see it as a resource that can be used to influence outcomes on the job and to focus the competencies of the people who work for them. Men in the study, by contrast, tended to think of power more as an end in itself, as something they can use to react against or take power away from others in authority. Men saw power as a way to supersede others in power, women rarely did. Recent interviews in an on-going study found that both male and female high-tech managers in the Silicon Valley viewed power as something to be used sparingly and only as a last resort. Chapter 19 Empowerment and Coaching Workbook Exam and Review Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. In which management approach do managers make decisions, give orders, and make sure they are obeyed? a. involvement-oriented b. empowerment c. command and control d. coaching e. none of the above 2. Organizations can encourage and foster empowerment by doing all of the following except _____. a. reducing bureaucracy b. increasing access to power sources in the organization c. training employees to enjoy empowerment d. encouraging an organizational culture that values empowerment e. establish direction and boundaries relating to empowerment 3. Which of the following is not an aspect of empowerment? a. coaching b. meaning c. impact d. competence e. self determination 4. Which of the following is not one of the “seven R’s” used by AT&T to create a high performance culture? a. respect b. risk taking c. rightsizing d. role modeling e. none of the above 5. Which of the following is not a skill required of employees in the involvement-oriented approach? a. basic problem solving b. quantitative techniques c. communication d. commitment to learning and self-development e. none of the above 6. Which of the following is not a characteristic of high performance/high commitment work cultures? a. centralized decision making b. delegation c. shared sense of purpose d. teamwork across boundaries e. empowerment 7. Even if they empower their employees, managers still have to do all except which of the following? a. know what’s going on b. ensure employees are on track c. make major decisions alone d. assess performance e. set the direction True or False Questions 8. Empowerment is more likely to increase employee job satisfaction in high power distance cultures. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False. It is more likely to do this in low power distance cultures. 9. A command-and-control management approach is never appropriate in today’s business world. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False. It is appropriate if a company has simple products or services in a stable environment. 10. Committed workers are less productive but more satisfied. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False, they are more productive. Short Answer Questions 11. _____ is granting employees the autonomy to assume more responsibility within an organization and strengthening their sense of effectiveness. Empowerment 12. _____ is unconditional acceptance and liking for others. Positive regard 13. _____ is a conversation that follows a predictable process and leads to superior performance, commitment to sustained improvement, and positive relationships. Coaching 14. _____ is the individual’s belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. Self efficacy 15. Which type of coaching would you use with an employee selected for a team who does not know how to run a meeting? Tutoring. 16. Which type of coaching would you use with an employee who is consistently late to work? Confronting. 17. The _____ approach is based on the belief that the best way to organization is to give employees the freedom and responsibility to manage their own work as much as possible. involvement-oriented 18. Max knows that his work unit will listen to his suggestions for improving the way they work. Which aspect of empowerment is this? Impact. 19. Distinguish between the impact and meaning aspects of empowerment. Impact is having a voice in one’s work unit and meaning is believing that your work is significant. 20. Fill in the blanks for these statements about feedback. Effective feedback is: • _____ rather than evaluative descriptive • solicited rather than _____ imposed • _____ rather than delayed immediate • _____ rather than prescribes suggests • intended to help rather than _____ punish Essay Questions 21. What are the five types of coaching? • Tutoring • Counseling • Mentoring • Confronting • High performance coaching 22. What are the four characteristics of today’s high performance companies? • Cost competitiveness • High-quality products and services • Innovation • Speed 23. What strategies can managers use to encourage an empowerment mindset? • Solicit input from employees • Ask employees for help in solving problems • Teach employees to make sound decisions • Remove bureaucratic obstacles that prevent them from taking initiative • Provide employees with the information they need to make decisions • Give them authority to do whatever is necessary within reason to serve customers • Provide a positive emotional atmosphere • Reward achievements • Serve as a role model • Coach them so they can successfully master tasks • Ask questions that encourage them to come up with answers 24. What are the steps of the professional coaching process? • Discover the client’s real need • Assess the client’s situation • Set target goals • Identify the steps that will achieve the client’s goals 25. Why did Mary Parker Follett say “the situation is the boss”? She wanted to depersonalize authority because she observed that workers react to receiving orders by becoming more passive and taking less and less responsibility. By examining the situation, it becomes evident to everyone, regardless of hierarchical position, what needs to be done. Chapter 20 Performance Management Workbook Exam and Review Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. Performance appraisal should be viewed as _____. a. an ongoing process b. a chance to rank and compare employees c. a once-a-year management task d. a chance to punish underperforming employees e. none of the above 2. Performance appraisal requires that managers take on the role of a _____. a. interrogator b. therapist c. coach d. friend e. all of the above 3. One way organizations can stimulate attention from managers to the performance appraisal process is to _____. a. reward managers with the least staff turnover b. evaluate managers on the number of subordinates who receive high appraisals c. evaluate managers on how well they develop their subordinates d. answer choices a, b and c e. none of the above 4. When doing performance appraisals, managers tend to rate those who are similar to them _____. a. lower than those who are different from them b. higher than those who are different from them c. about the same as those who are different from them d. on a different scale e. none of the above 5. Effective appraisal systems should measure _____. a. results b. behaviors c. personality traits d. answer choice a or b e. none of the above 6. When employees receive feedback from supervisors, peers, subordinates, and customers as well as themselves, this is known as _____. a. MBO feedback b. BARS feedback c. 360-degree feedback d. SWOT analysis e. none of the above True or False Questions 7. 360-degree feedback is defined as multirater assessment or multisource feedback (MSF). _____ True or _____ False? True. 8. Employees in low-power distance cultures are less willing to question their superiors than employees in high-power distance cultures. _____ True or _____False? Why? False. Employees in high-power distance cultures are less willing to question superiors because they automatically grant them respect and view them as a different breed that deserves more perks) Short Answer Questions 9. Performance appraisals are intended to improve performance and _____ employees. motivate 10. Saving up negative feedback and “dumping” on an employee in an appraisal can cause a negative and _____ reaction. defensive 11. What do total quality management proponents suggest instead of formal performance appraisals? Continuous feedback and coaching. 12. What are the three recommendations of critics of performance appraisal? • Eliminate traditional performance appraisals • Eliminate forced distribution systems • Develop strengths not weaknesses 13. Name an advantage of providing immediate feedback. Feedback is generally most effective at the earliest opportunity after the behavior in question has occurred. It does employees little good to hear months later that they made a mistake. 14. What steps should be implemented after the performance appraisal interview? 1. Fill out the performance appraisal form after the interview so the employee sees that his or her input was included. 2. Follow up on training and coaching needs identified in the interview. 15. What are some of the cultural values that should be taken into consideration when appraising people from other cultures? Harmony, face-saving, power distance, uncertainty avoidance, and individualism-collectivism Essay Questions 16. The ideal performance appraisal system is designed to achieve five objectives. What are they? • Provide feedback to employees to facilitate their ability to achieve organizational and personal goals. • Provide management with data to make salary and promotional decisions. • Identify areas for improvement to facilitate employee career development. • Motivate employees to be more effective workers. • Comply with equal opportunity regulations and ensure fairness. 17. Describe the characteristics of effective feedback. Effective feedback should be: • Descriptive rather than evaluative • Specific and data-based • Directed toward controllable behavior • Solicited, if possible, rather than imposed • Well timed • Immediate and continual • Suggestive rather than prescribing avenues for improvement • Intended to help 18. What steps should be taken before the performance appraisal interview? 1. Set a time and date for the interview that allows the employee enough time to prepare the self-appraisal. 2. Ask the employee to prepare the self-appraisal and provide an outline for doing so. 3. Don’t postpone the interview or come late to it. Employees interpret these actions as a lack of interest in them and the appraisal process. To do any good, appraisals have to be taken seriously by managers. 4. Choose a private location where you will not be interrupted. 5. Set aside enough time (one to two hours) so that you will have time to complete your discussion. 6. Gather all the materials and relevant information about the employee’s performance. Some managers also give copies of this information to the employee in advance. 7. Determine which aspects of the employee’s performance (e.g., strengths, areas for improvement) should be addressed in the interview. Decide how to phrase these points. 19. What are guidelines that should be followed during the performance appraisal interview? 1. Explain the format and purpose of the performance appraisal interview: a. To discover the employee’s opinions regarding his or her performance and career goals. b. To provide the supervisor’s appraisal of the employee’s performance. c. To problem solve together about performance if necessary. d. To plan for the next period. 2. Ask the employee to present his or her self-appraisal. 3. Respond to the employee’s self-appraisal and convey feedback. First, tell the employee the parts of the self-appraisal with which you agree and then identify parts with which you disagree, if there are any. Next, provide other feedback that would impact performance. In doing this, a. Be appreciative of the employee’s accomplishments. b. Support the employee even when you are criticizing his or her behavior. c. Avoid defensiveness (on both your parts). d. Encourage participation. 4. Ask if there are any conditions or problems that have been hindering the employee’s work. 5. Problem solve with the employee regarding what both of you could do to improve the employee’s performance. 6. Set objectives and design a plan for the next period together. 7. Discuss the employee’s long-term career goals and the training and experience needed to reach them. 20. How can feedback be effectively received? • View it as helpful information that deserves consideration • Ask for clarification if feedback is ambiguous • Ask for a second opinion if it seems inaccurate • Avoid becoming defensive • Avoid rationalizing your behavior • Assume the person giving the feedback is manipulative or does not like you Chapter 21 Organization Design Workbook Exam and Review Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. In the 7-S Model for organizational analysis, staff is _____. a. distinctive capabilities of key personnel b. line staff c. administrative personnel d. demographic description of personnel categories e. none of the above 2. Which is not a hard S in the 7-S model? a. strategy b. skills c. systems d. structure e. none of the above 3. The text describes three traditional organizational structures. Which of the following is not one of them? a. matrix b. process c. functional d. divisional e. none of the above 4. When the legal department develops a particular mind-set toward their work that is quite different than people in the sales department, this is known as _____. a. formality vs. informality b. differentiation c. interpersonal orientation d. goal horizon e. individuality 5. New organizational forms such as horizontal and network organizations increase this capability according to Galbraith. a. marketing capability b. communication capability c. training capability d. lateral capability e. none of the above 6. What structure is differentiated by both product and function? a. horizontal b. parallel c. matrix d. process e. none of the above 7. Which type of organization structure is also called modular, hollow and virtual? a. network b. horizontal c. matrix d. functional e. divisional 8. Champy suggests that the design principle “form follows function” be modified to _____. a. form follows environment b. form follows customers c. form follows boundaries d. form follows resources e. none of the above 9. In terms of environmental complexity, a high-moderate uncertainty environment indicates that the organization’s environment is _____. a. stable and simple b. unstable and complex c. unstable and simple d. stable and complex e. none of the above 10. Network structures have which of the following benefits? a. They allow managers and organizations to focus on what they do well. b. They make it easy to control subcontractors. c. They work best in stable environments. d. They prevent new entrants into markets. e. none of the above 11. In a high uncertainty, complex environment, what type of structure would be most effective? a. formal, centralized b. decentralized, mechanistic c. formal, mechanistic d. decentralized, organic e. none of the above 12. Integrated network models have which of the following characteristics? a. local, general resources and capabilities b. large flows of components, products, and resources among interdependent units c. simple coordination processes d. centralized global decisions e. answer choices a and c True or False Questions 13. Hierarchical corporations are flat structures with minimal layers of management and self-managing multidisciplinary teams organized around core processes. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False. This is the description for horizontal corporations. 14. Boundaryless organizations work at eliminating or diminishing the boundaries between both internal and external entities in order to be more effective. True or False? True. Short Answer Questions 15. Organization _____ is the pattern of roles, authority, and communication that determines the coordination of the technology and people within an organization. structure 16. The _____ structure is becoming less popular because it does not facilitate responsiveness to variety and speed. functional 17. _____ structures focus on a complete flow of work. Horizontal 18. _____ are initially non-profit entrepreneurs who develop organic, cellular distributed network structures to accomplish their work. Networked idealists 19. What are three of the strategic alliances companies may choose to minimize the risk of uncertainty in global markets? • Joint ventures • Licensing • Consortia 20. _____are the most common form of business organization throughout the world. Family businesses Essay Questions 21. What are the categories of the 7-S model? List all and explain three as they apply to your college or university. • Strategy—the goals and objectives to be achieved as well as the values and missions to be pursued, the basic direction of the organization • Structure—the anatomy of the organization that shows the formal reporting relationships and how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated • Systems—the formal and informal procedures that make the organization work: compensation system, training systems, accounting procedures, etc. • Style—the way managers behave to achieve the organizations goals; how they generally interact with employees • Staff—a demographic description of important personnel categories • Skills—the distinctive capabilities of key personnel or the competencies for which the firm is noted • Superordinate goals/shared vision—the guiding concepts of the organization, the values and aspirations that are taught to members 22. What are the characteristics of networked idealists? • Guerilla infrastructures and radical architectures • Winning by not trying • Value-based motivations • Attack strengths • Knowledge from the people 23. Describe the characteristics of network structures. • Vertical disaggregation • Use of brokers • Market mechanisms • Full-disclosure information systems 24. Describe the network organization structure and give an example of one. Network organizations consist of brokers who subcontract needed services to designers, suppliers, producers, and distributors linked by full-disclosure information systems and coordinated by market mechanisms. Examples are Nike, Apple Computer, Reebok, Emerson Radio, Benetton, etc. 25. What design questions should managers consider when designing organization structure? • What structure is likely to support development of required organizational capability? • What new roles are required and what are the points of interface? • How can the design be tested before doing a full-scale implementation? • How should others be involved in mapping the design? • How should others be involved in implementing the design? 26. Contrast mechanistic and organic organizations and provide examples of each. Chapter 22 Managing Change Workbook Exam and Review Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is not a recommended characteristic of change announcements? a. be brief and concise b. identify key things that will not be changing c. appeal to the heart and emotions as well as the mind d. predict some negative aspects that people should anticipate e. all of the above are recommended characteristics 2. The smallest number of people and/or groups who must be committed to a change for it to occur is called _____. a. sponsorship size b. sponsorship mass c. critical mass d. change mass e. constant mass 3. What is the first step in the change process? a. developing a shared vision b. forming a guiding coalition c. analyzing potential resistance to change d. determining the need for change e. none of the above 4. C = (D x S x P) > X is a formula for determining the readiness for change where P stands for _____. a. number of people to change b. number of processes to change c. a practical plan for achieving the desired end state d. number of people to remain constant e. none of the above 5. Which of the following is not part of the manager’s role in the change process, according to Beer et al.? a. mobilize commitment to change through joint diagnosis of business problems b. announce your personal vision for the change along with your implementation plan c. institutionalize revitalization through formal policies, systems, and structures d. monitor and adjust strategies in response to problems in the change process e. spread revitalization to all departments without pushing it from the top 6. A system-wide process of data collection, diagnosis, action, planning, intervention, and evaluation aimed at enhancing organizational fit, problem solving, effectiveness, health, and self-renewal is known as _____. a. organizational change b. organizational behavior c. organizational development d. organizational transformation e. none of the above 7. Which of the following statements about change is not true? a. change is simple if you follow the steps chronologically in the change process. b. trust is an important aspect of any change effort. c. changes often upset the political system in organizations. d. cultures vary in terms of their comfort with change. e. all of the above 8. The members of the guiding coalition should have which of the following characteristics? a. expertise b. power c. respected reputation d. good relations e. all of the above True or False Questions 9. Change can be referred to as event or a managerial edict. _____ True or _____ False? Why? False. Change is a process rather than an event or a managerial edict. 10. Creative tension, results from perceiving the gap between the ideal situation and an honest appraisal of its current reality. _____ True or _____ False? Why? True. This is accurate. This gap motivates people to work toward the ideal. Short Answer Questions 11. _____ change is linear, continuous, and targeted at fixing or modifying problems or procedures. Incremental 12. _____ change is radical, discontinuous, multidimensional, and multilevel, and modifies the fundamental structure, systems, orientation, and strategies of the organization. Transformational 13. _____ are people who act as catalysts and assume the responsibility for managing change activities. Change agents 14. According to Tichy, what are the three roles of transformational leaders? • Envisioning • Energizing • Enabling 15. What is the positive contribution of resistance to change? Resistance helps us perceive the potential problems of a planned change and ensures that plans for change and their ultimate consequences are thought through carefully. 16. List three tactics for dealing with resistance to change that are most likely to result in commitment to change rather than compliance. • Education and communication • Participation and involvement • Facilitation and support 17. _____ is a good example of a program that was treated like a fad in some companies and later dropped, while it produced—and is still producing-impressive results at other organizations. TQM–Total Quality Management Essay Questions 18. Describe 4 ways to increase the sense that change is urgently needed. • Create a crisis • Eliminate obvious examples of excess • Set targets that can’t be reached by doing business as usual • Share more information with employees • Insist that people talk with unsatisfied customers, suppliers, and shareholders • Put more honest discussions of the problems in company publications and management speeches 19. Describe the three-step process of change as defined by Lewin. Unfreezing is a stage accompanied by stress, tension, and a strong felt need for change. Moving is a stage when old ways of behavior are relinquished and new behaviors, values, and attitudes are tested. Refreezing is the stage when new behavior is either reinforced, internalized, and institutionalized or rejected and abandoned. 20. List three reasons why people resist change. • Inadequate change goal • Inadequate process • Personal resistance • Political resistance • Systemic resistance 21. List three recommendations for making change stick that were identified by Kotter and Cohen. • Use new employee orientation to inculcate recruits with new values and inspire them • Promote people who act according to the new norms into influential and visible positions • Continually tell stories about the new change, what it does, and why it succeeds • Ensure continuity of results and behavior that help a new culture grow Test Bank for Organizational Behavior: An Experiential Approach Joyce S. Osland, David A. Kolb, Irwin M. Rubin, Marlene E. Turner 9780131441514, 9780138961923
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