CH-17-19 Radioactivity and Nuclear Chemistry – Introductory Chemistry : Exam Guide

This Document Contains Chapters 17 to 19 Chapter 17 Radioactivity and Nuclear Chemistry True/False Questions 1. Radioactivity is the emission of tiny, invisible radio signals by the nuclei of certain atoms. Answer: False 2. Radioactive particles can pass through matter. Answer: True 3. Antoine-Henri Becquerel discovered X-rays. Answer: False 4. Madam Curie discovered two new elements. Answer: True 5. contains 11 protons and 9 neutrons. Answer: False 6. The alpha particle (α) is: . Answer: False 7. When an atom emits an alpha particle, it becomes a different element. Answer: True 8. Alpha particles have lower penetrating power than the other types of radioactive emissions.. Answer: True 9. A beta particle can also be called an electron. Answer: True 10. During beta decay, neutrons are converted to protons and electrons. Answer: True 11. When an atom emits a beta particle, its atomic number increases by one because it now has one additional proton. Answer: True 12. A gamma ray is a high energy photon. Answer: True 13. A gamma ray has no charge and no mass. Answer: True 14. The symbol for a positron is . Answer: False 15. A positron particle comes from the decay of a proton into a neutron and a positron. Answer: True 16. Nuclear equations do not need to be balanced since a new element forms. Answer: False 17. A nuclear reaction typically changes the identity of the element involved. Answer: True 18. In a Geiger-Muller counter, radioactive particles pass through NaI which emits UV-Vis light. Answer: False 19. All elements with atomic numbers above bismuth are naturally radioactive. Answer: True 20. All unstable elements have the same rates of radioactive decay. Answer: False 21. Nuclides that decay slowly have long half-lives. Answer: True 22. A nuclide with a shorter half-life would be considered more active than a nuclide with a longer half-life. Answer: True 23. During the first half-life you lose half of the radioactive material, during the second half life you lose the remaining half. Answer: False 24. Radioactive elements become stable isotopes after emitting one of the radioactive particles (α, β, γ). Answer: False 25. Carbon-14 dating is based on the fact that C-14 is continuously being made in the upper atmosphere. Answer: True 26. C-14 dating has been verified using old iron ore samples of known age. Answer: False 27. Uranium-235 is capable of undergoing a fission chain reaction. Answer: True 28. The effort to build an atomic bomb during WWII was prompted by a fear that Germany was already working on nuclear weapons. Answer: True 29. Nuclear power plants produce energy by fission reactions. Answer: True 30. One danger of a nuclear power plant is that a chain reaction could produce a bomb. Answer: False 31. The hydrogen isotope known as tritium contains three neutrons. Answer: False 32. The energy of the sun comes from fusion reactions. Answer: True 33. The combination of two light nuclei to form a heavier one is known as nuclear fission. Answer: False 34. A fusion reaction emits large amounts of energy while a fission reaction absorbs large amounts of energy. Answer: False 35. Nuclear fission reactions produce ten times more energy per gram than fusion reactions. Answer: False 36. Exposure to nuclear radioactivity can produce genetic defects in offspring. Answer: True 37. One method of nuclear medicine uses radioactive isotopes to scan specific regions of the body. Answer: True 38. A patient having radiotherapy uses radioactivity to kill infected cells while trying to minimize the effect on the healthy cells. Answer: True Multiple Choice Questions 39. Radioactive elements are used for: A) medical diagnosis. B) medical treatment. C) determining age of fossils and rocks. D) generating electricity. E) all of the above Answer: E 40. Who discovered radioactivity? A) Antoine Becquerel B) Pierre Curie C) Marie Curie D) Ernest Rutherford E) Benjamin Franklin Answer: A 41. How was radioactivity discovered? A) Rutherford was investigating the structure of Au atoms and discovered alpha particles. B) Marie Curie was investigating the existence of uranic rays that occurred in some minerals. C) Becquerel was studying X-rays and phosphorescence to see if they were related. D) Benjamin Franklin was studying the creation of electrical current from the ionization of gases due to radioactive particles. E) none of the above Answer: C 42. During the career of Marie Curie, she: A) won a Nobel prize in chemistry. B) won a Nobel prize in physics. C) discovered the element polonium. D) discovered the element radium. E) all of the above Answer: E 43. Which of the following isotopes contains the most number of neutrons? Answer: D 44. How many protons and neutrons are in ? A) 16 p and 34 n B) 16 n and 34 p C) 16 n and 18 p D) 16 p and 18 n E) none of the above Answer: D 45. How many protons and neutrons are in ? A) 92 p and 235 n B) 92 n and 235 p C) 92 n and 143 p D) 92 p and 143 n E) none of the above Answer: D 46. How many protons and neutrons are in ? A) 50 p and 169 n B) 50 n and 69 p C) 50 n and 119 p D) 50 p and 69 n E) none of the above Answer: D 47. Which statement about alpha particles is FALSE? A) symbol is: B) has high ionization power C) has low penetrating power D) are a harmless form of radiation E) All of the above are true. Answer: D 48. If the isotope emits an alpha particle, what would be the atomic number of the resulting atom? A) 90 B) 88 C) 92 D) 228 E) 236 Answer: B 49. What happens to the mass number of a nucleus that emits an alpha particle? A) It remains the same. B) It decreases by two. C) It decreases by four. D) It increases by two. E) It increases by four. Answer: C 50. In a nuclear equation A) the daughter nuclide appears on the right-side of the arrow. B) the sum of the atomic numbers on both sides must be equal. C) the sum of the mass numbers on both sides must be equal. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D 51. What is the main product when undergoes alpha decay? Answer: B 52. What is the main product when undergoes alpha decay? Answer: D 53. Which of the following statements about beta particles is FALSE? A) The symbol is: . B) Beta particles are created when neutrons become protons and electrons. C) They have intermediate ionizing power. D) They have intermediate penetrating power. E) They are a safe form of radioactivity. Answer: E 54. Which of the following types of radiation has the highest penetrating power? A) alpha particles B) beta particles C) gamma rays D) positrons E) none of the above Answer: C 55. Which of the following is NOT a type of radioactive emission? A) alpha rays B) beta rays C) gamma rays D) positrons E) All of the above are types of radioactive emissions. Answer: E 56. Which type of emission has a negative charge? A) alpha B) beta C) positron D) gamma E) none of the above Answer: B 57. What happens to the atomic number of a nucleus that emits a beta particle?. A) It remains the same. B) It increases by one. C) It decreases by one. D) It increases by two. E) It decreases by two. Answer: B 58. What is the main product when undergoes beta decay? Answer: C 59. What is the main product when undergoes beta decay? Answer: B 60. Which of the following nuclides will undergo beta decay to produce ? Answer: C 61. What is the missing particle? A) positron B) beta particle C) alpha particle D) gamma particle E) none of the above Answer: B 62. What is the missing particle? A) positron B) beta particle C) alpha particle D) gamma particle E) none of the above Answer: C 63. What is the missing particle? A) positron B) beta particle C) alpha particle D) gamma particle E) none of the above Answer: A 64. Which statement about gamma radiation is FALSE? A) The symbol is: . B) They have low ionization energy. C) They have high penetrating power. D) They are high energy photons. E) All of the above are true. Answer: E 65. What type of radioactive decay produces a daughter nuclide that is the same element as the parent nuclide? A) alpha B) beta C) gamma D) positron E) none of the above Answer: C 66. How does the emission of a gamma particle effect the radioactive atom? A) The atom has a lower amount of energy. B) The atomic number decreases. C) The atomic mass increases. D) The atom gains energy for further radioactive particle emission. E) All of the above are true. Answer: A 67. Which statement about positron emission is FALSE? A) occurs when a proton is converted into a neutron and a positron B) symbol is: C) occurs with alpha and beta decay D) alternative symbol is β+ E) All of the above are true. Answer: C 68. What happens to the atomic number of nucleus that emits a positron? A) It remains the same. B) It increases by one. C) It decreases by one. D) It increases by two. E) It decreases by two. Answer: C 69. What happens to the mass number of a nucleus that emits a positron? A) It remains the same. B) It increases by one. C) It decreases by one. D) It increases by two. E) It decreases by two. Answer: A 70. The emitted particle with the mass of an electron but carrying a 1+ charge is named the A) proton. B) proelectron. C) positron. D) plusion. E) none of the above Answer: C 71. Radon-219 decays to radon-218 by releasing Answer: C 72. Which type of particle can be emitted by an unstable nucleus? Answer: D 73. A Geiger-Muller counter detects radioactivity by: A) developing film which is exposed by radioactive particles. B) emission of light from a NaI crystal when radioactivity passes through the crystal. C) ionization of argon gas in a chamber which produces an electrical signal. D) analyzing the mass and velocity of each particle. E) none of the above Answer: C 74. A scintillation counter detects radioactivity by: A) developing film which is exposed by radioactive particles. B) emission of light from a NaI crystal when radioactivity passes through the crystal. C) ionization of argon gas in a chamber which produces an electrical signal. D) analyzing the mass and velocity of each particle. E) none of the above Answer: B 75. Atomic nuclei whose atomic number is greater than which element are considered to be radioactive? A) Uranium B) Radium C) Barium D) Bismuth E) Lead Answer: D 76. Which of the following statements regarding radiation are FALSE? A) Radioactivity is a natural part of our environment. B) All elements heavier than bismuth are radioactive. C) All radioactive elements are spontaneously decaying towards formation of a stable element. D) The time for half of the original sample to spontaneously decay is called the half-life (t1/2). E) All of the above are true. Answer: C 77. The rate of spontaneous nuclear decay: A) can be increased by increasing the temperature. B) can be increased by increasing the concentration of the radioactive element. C) is independent of concentration or temperature. D) can be increased by addition of a nuclear catalyst. E) all of the above Answer: C 78. If the half-life of a radioactive isotope is 32 days, how many half-lives must pass before a 3.0 gram sample is less than 0.03 g? A) 2 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 E) More information is needed. Answer: C 79. Iodine-131 has a half-life of 8 days. How much of a 1000 milligram sample of iodine-131 would be left after 32 days? A) 500 milligram B) 250 milligram C) 125 milligram D) 62.5 milligram E) 31.25 milligram Answer: D 80. Tritium ( ) is an isotope of hydrogen that is sometimes used to make the hands of watches glow in the dark. The half-life of tritium is 12.3 years. After 49 years, approximately how much of the original tritium remains? A) 50% B) 25% C) 12.5% D) 6.25% E) 3.12% Answer: D 81. The radioactive gas radon A) is a product of the radioactive decay series of uranium. B) is the single greatest source of human radiation exposure. C) is more hazardous for smokers than nonsmokers. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D 82. Which fact about carbon-14 dating is FALSE? A) C-14 is formed by neutron bombardment of nitrogen in the upper atmosphere. B) C-14 dating can only work on items that come from a living source. C) C-14 dating only works as far back as 50,000 years. D) C-14 accuracy is verified by dating antique items of a known age. E) All of the above statements are true. Answer: E 83. If an object has 6.25% of the C-14 (t1/2 = 5,730 yrs) activity as a living organism, the age of the item is: A) 11,460 years. B) 17,190 years. C) 22,920 years. D) 28,650 years. E) More information is needed. Answer: C 84. If an object has 25% of the C-14 (t1/2 = 5,730 yrs) activity as a living organism, the age of the item is: A) 11,460 years. B) 17,190 years. C) 22,920 years. D) 28,650 years. E) More information is needed. Answer: A 85. If an object is 28,650 yrs old, what is the C-14 (t1/2 = 5,730 yrs) activity as compared to a living organism? A) 6 half-lives B) 5 half -lives C) 4 half-lives D) 3 half-lives E) More information is needed. Answer: B 86. If an object is 17,190 yrs old, what is the C-14 (t1/2 = 5,730 yrs) activity as compared to a living organism? A) 6 half-lives B) 5 half-lives C) 4 half-lives D) 3 half-lives E) More information is needed. Answer: D 87. The first person to artificially cause a nucleus to undergo a fission reaction was: A) Otto Hahn. B) Lise Meitner. C) Fritz Strassman. D) Enrico Fermi. E) all of the above Answer: D 88. The self-amplifying reaction in which neutrons produced by the fission of one nucleus would induce fission in other nuclei is called A) critical mass. B) chain reaction. C) nuclear fusion. D) positron emission. E) none of the above Answer: B 89. Why can U-235 produce a chain reaction? A) Extremely high amounts of energy are released in the reaction. B) Neutrons produce the fission reaction and are also a product of the reaction. C) All elements above bismuth (#83) can undergo fission based chain reactions. D) Chain reactions merely need sufficient mass (critical mass) to start. E) All of the above are true. Answer: B 90. Which of the following statements about the creation of the nuclear bomb is FALSE? A) Einstein lobbied President Roosevelt to pursue creation of the bomb. B) American war intelligence feared the Germans were ahead of the Allies in developing nuclear weapons in WWII. C) J.R. Oppenheimer headed the Manhattan Project. D) The Germans were defeated by the time the bomb had been developed. E) All of the above are true. Answer: E 91. Nuclear power: A) generates 20% of the electricity needed in the US. B) generates heat which boils water and turns a steam turbine to produce electricity. C) generates no air pollution or greenhouse gases. D) uses almost no fuel compared to fossil fuel plants. E) All of the above are true. Answer: E 92. The control rods of a nuclear reactor: A) regulate the chain reaction because they contain catalysts. B) regulate the chain reaction because they absorb the U-235 atoms. C) regulate the chain reaction because they absorb the neutrons. D) regulate the chain reaction because they produce positrons. E) none of the above Answer: C 93. Nuclear power is criticized because: A) of long term storage issues of radioactive wastes. B) it is an expensive form of energy. C) it is not as efficient as burning fossil fuels. D) of the danger of detonation into a nuclear bomb. E) all of the above Answer: A 94. Nuclear fusion: A) is the formation of heavier elements from lighter ones. B) releases a larger amount of heat than nuclear fission. C) is the energy source of the sun and stars. D) produces non-radioactive elements. E) all of the above Answer: E 95. Nuclear fusion: A) requires intense temperatures that make it impossible to harness as an energy source with our current technology. B) is the basis of the hydrogen bomb. C) can be done but requires the detonation of a traditional fission bomb. D) is a possible energy source of the future. E) all of the above Answer: E 96. Which of the following is NOT a unit used for expressing radioactivity: A) roentgen B) geiger C) rem D) curie E) All of the above are units used to express radioactivity. Answer: B 97. Acute radiation damage: A) results from lower doses of radiation over extended periods of time. B) results from exposure to lower amounts of radiation in a short period of time. C) can result in death. D) results in an increased chance of cancer. E) all of the above Answer: C 98. Isotope scanning involves: A) radioactive isotopes that are used in place of x-rays. B) radioactive isotopes that are absorbed by specific organs. C) destroying cancerous cells by intense radiation levels. D) acute radiation exposure. E) none of the above Answer: B 99. Radiation therapy involves: A) radioactive isotopes that are used in place of x-rays. B) radioactive isotopes that are absorbed by specific organs. C) destroying cancerous cells by intense radiation levels. D) acute radiation exposure. E) none of the above. Answer: C Algorithmic Questions 100. When undergoes alpha decay, what is the atomic mass of the element that is produced? A) 88 B) 228 C) 236 D) 92 E) none of the above Answer: B 101. When undergoes Beta decay, what is the atomic number of the element that is produced? A) 88 B) 91 C) 89 D) 92 E) none of the above Answer: B 102. When undergoes positron emission, what is the atomic number of the element that is produced? A) 87 B) 90 C) 88 D) 91 E) none of the above Answer: C 103. A 1.2 kg sample of Th-228 has a half-life of 1.9 years. How many grams of Th is left after 11.4 years? A) 18.8 B) 9.4 C) 37.5 D) 0 E) none of the above Answer: A 104. A C-14 dating experiment revealed that an artifact had 50.0% of the activity of a modern organism. Given the half-life of C-14 is 5730 years, approximately how old is the artifact? A) 28,650 B) 34,380 C) 22,920 D) 5,730 E) none of the above Answer: D Essay Questions 105. Briefly describe the main features of the three types of radiation: alpha, beta, and gamma. Also explain what happens to the nucleus of an atom when it is exposed to each of these. Answer: 1. Alpha radiation occurs when the nucleus of an atom emits a particle that consists of two protons and two neutrons (mass number = 4) and an atomic number 2. An alpha particle is a helium nucleus. When the nucleus undergoes alpha decay, its mass number decreases by four and its atomic number decreases by two. 2. Beta radiation occurs when an unstable nucleus emits an electron. A beta particle has a mass number of 0 and an atomic number of -1. When a nucleus undergoes beta decay, its mass number remains the same and its atomic number increases by one. 3. Gamma rays consist of high energy photons. Since gamma radiation which is simply electromagnetic radiation has neither mass number nor atomic number, it does not change the mass number or the atomic number of the atom. 106. Briefly distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion. Answer: Nuclear Fission is the splitting of an atom such as Uranium-238 by bombarding it with neutrons. Two or more smaller nuclei and additional neutrons are produced during fission. The neutrons set off a chain reaction which results in the emission of enormous amounts of energy. These reactions have been used in nuclear reactors and in atom bombs. Nuclear fusion is the combination of two lighter nuclei to produce a heavier nucleus. Nuclear fusion results in the production of enormous amounts of energy. These reactions have been used in hydrogen bombs. However, scientists have not been able to successfully harness nuclear fusion to produce electrical energy. Chapter 18 Organic Chemistry True/False Questions 1. All organic molecules contain carbon but not all carbon compounds are organic compounds. Answer: True 2. The study of carbon-containing compounds and their reactions is called carbonyl chemistry. Answer: False 3. It was originally thought that organic compounds had to come from living things. Answer: True 4. Organic compounds have to come from living things. Answer: False 5. Carbon must always form four bonds. Answer: True 6. Hydrocarbons contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Answer: False 7. A noncyclical alkane hydrocarbon containing eight carbon atoms should also contain eighteen hydrogen atoms. Answer: True 8. Alkanes contain double and single bonds. Answer: False 9. The formula of n-octane is: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3. Answer: False 10. An ethyl group can be symbolized as -CH3. Answer: False 11. As the number of carbon atoms increases in n-alkanes, so does their boiling point. Answer: True 12. Isomerism is very rare in organic compounds. Answer: False 13. Isomers are compounds with the same structures but different formulas. Answer: False 14. The compound with the formula CH4 has four possible isomers. Answer: False 15. Alkynes are compounds with at least one triple bond. Answer: True 16. Alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated hydrocarbons. Answer: True 17. 1-hexene and 1-hexyne are isomers. Answer: False 18. Combustion reactions always produce water and carbon monoxide. Answer: False 19. Hydrocarbon combustion reactions are highly endothermic - they absorb large amounts of heat. Answer: False 20. Alkanes undergo addition reactions. Answer: False 21. When an alkene undergoes an addition reaction to form an alkane, a saturated compound has been converted to an unsaturated compound. Answer: False 22. Aromatic compounds contain a benzene ring. Answer: True 23. R—OH is an ether functional group. Answer: False 24. R—O—R is an ether functional group. Answer: True 25. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH is named 5-pentanol. Answer: False 26. The formula for ethyl propyl ether is: CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3. Answer: True 27. Aldehydes and ketones both contain a carbonyl group. Answer: True 28. The generic condensed structural formula for carboxylic acids is RCOOH. Answer: True 29. The formula of propanoic acid is: CH2CH2COOH. Answer: False 30. The formula of methyl propanoate is: CH3CH2COOCH3. Answer: True 31. Esters are best known for their awful odors such as that associated with the smell of rotten fish. Answer: False 32. Amines are nitrogen- containing organic compounds. Answer: True 33. The compound CH3NH2 can be classified as an amine. Answer: True 34. A polymer is a long chainlike compound containing a random arrangement of organic molecules called monomers. Answer: False 35. Production of the synthetic polymer "polyethylene" uses an alkene as a starting monomer unit. Answer: True Multiple Choice Questions 36. What chemical reaction was used by the German chemist Friedrich Wohler to synthesize urea for the first time? A) evaporating urine B) heating ammonium cyanate C) heating ammonium cyanide D) combining the elements carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen E) none of the above Answer: B 37. Which of the following statements about carbon is FALSE? A) Carbon must always have four bonds. B) Carbon can bond to itself. C) Carbon can have either a tetrahedral, trigonal planar or linear geometry. D) Carbon can form into linear, branched and cyclic compounds. E) none of the above Answer: E 38. What is the molecular geometry of the underlined carbon atom in the following compound, CH2=CH—CH3? A) tetrahedral B) trigonal planar C) linear D) bent E) none of the above Answer: A 39. What is the molecular geometry of the underlined carbon atom in the following compound, CH2=CH—CH3? A) tetrahedral B) trigonal planar C) linear D) bent E) none of the above Answer: B 40. What is the molecular geometry of the underlined carbon atom in the following compound, HC≡C—CH3? A) tetrahedral B) trigonal planar C) linear D) bent E) none of the above Answer: C 41. What will be the molecular geometry of an open-chain noncyclical hydrocarbon with the generic molecular formula CnH2n-2? A) linear B) tetrahedral C) trigonal planar D) trigonal pyramidal E) none of the above Answer: A 42. Based on the molecular formulas shown below, which compound shown below would NOT be classified as a noncyclical alkane? A) C4H10 B) C3H8 C) C5H12 D) C12H24 E) C9H20 Answer: D 43. Hydrocarbons are commonly used for: A) fuel. B) wax. C) fabrics. D) plastics. E) all of the above Answer: E 44. Which type of hydrocarbon is classified as being saturated? A) alkanes B) alkenes C) alkynes D) all of these E) none of the above Answer: A 45. Which compound below is an alkane? A) C4H10 B) CH3CH2CH3 C) C7H16 D) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 E) all of the above Answer: E 46. Consider the following n-alkanes: CH4, C2H6, C3H8, C4H10 Which of these would you expect to have the highest boiling point? A) CH4 B) C2H6 C) C3H8 D) C4H10 E) all n-alkanes have the same boiling point Answer: D 47. Which of the following is the formula for heptane? A) C4H10 B) C3H8 C) C7H16 D) C2H6 E) all of the above Answer: C 48. Which formula represents butane? A) C4H10 B) C3H8 C) C7H16 D) C2H6 E) all of the above Answer: A 49. Which is the name of C5H12? A) n-butane B) n-hexane C) n-heptane D) n-pentane E) all of the above Answer: D 50. Which is the name of C6H14? A) n-butane B) n-hexane C) n-heptane D) n-pentane E) all of the above Answer: B 51. A straight chain saturated hydrocarbon has eight carbon atoms. Its molecular formula is A) C8H14. B) C8H16. C) C8H18. D) C8H24. E) none of the above Answer: C 52. Two compounds are considered as isomers if they have the A) same molecular formula AND different structure. B) same molecular formula AND same structure. C) different molecular formula AND different structure. D) different molecular formula AND same structure. E) same molecular formula OR same structure. Answer: A 53. Which of the following structural formulas is an isomer to n-hexane? Answer: D 54. How many isomers exist for the alkane whose molecular formula is C4H10? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none Answer: B 55. Which of the following structural formulas is an isomer to n-nonane? Answer: E 56. Name the following alkane: A) 1,3-dimethylhexane B) 4-methylheptane C) 2-propylpentane D) 1-methyl-1-propylbutane E) none of the above Answer: B 57. The prefix "but-" means that the base chain contains how many carbon atoms? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) all of the above Answer: B 58. Name the following alkane: A) 3-isopropylbutane B) 3,4-dimethylpentane C) 2,3-dimethylpentane D) 2-isopropylbutane E) none of the above Answer: C 59. Which of the following compounds is an alkene? A) C2H6 B) C3H6 C) C4H6 D) C5H12 E) none of the above Answer: B 60. Which of the following compounds is an alkyne? A) C2H6 B) C3H6 C) C2H2 D) C5H12 E) none of the above Answer: C 61. What is the formula for propene? A) C3H8 B) C3H6 C) C3H4 D) C3H3 E) none of the above Answer: B 62. What is the formula for propyne? A) C3H8 B) C3H6 C) C3H4 D) C3H3 E) none of the above Answer: C 63. What is the name of the following compound: CH3—CH2—CH2—CH=CH2? A) 4-pentane B) 4-ene-pentane C) 1-pentene D) 2-pentane E) none of the above Answer: C 64. What is the name of the following compound: CH3CH2CCH? A) 3-butene B) 1-butyne C) 2-butene D) 1-butene E) none of the above Answer: B 65. Name the following alkane: A) 2-propyl-2-isobutene B) 1-propyl-2-butene C) 1,1,3-trimethyl-1-pentene D) 3,4-dimethyl-2-pentene E) none of the above Answer: D 66. The compound named 2,3-dimethylpentane would have how many total number of carbons? A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 8 E) none of the above Answer: C 67. What are the products from the combustion of 2-methyl-3-ethyloctane? A) variety of small hydrocarbons B) carbon monoxide, carbon trioxide and water C) carbon dioxide and water D) carbon monoxide and water E) none of the above Answer: C 68. The combustion of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes produces: A) water and carbon. B) oxygen and hydrogen. C) carbon dioxide and hydrogen. D) hydrogen and water. E) carbon dioxide and water. Answer: E 69. Which of the following compounds will undergo a substitution reaction? A) C2H4 B) C2H2 C) C2H6 D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C 70. Which of the following compounds will undergo an addition reaction? A) C3H8 B) C2H4 C) C2H6 D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B 71. What are the product(s) of: C2H6 + Cl2 → ? A) C2H6Cl2 B) C2H4Cl2 + H2 C) C2H5Cl + HCl D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C 72. What will be the major product(s) when C2H4 undergoes an addition reaction with Cl2? A) C2H3Cl2 B) C2H4Cl2 C) C2H2Cl2 D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B 73. What will be the major product(s) when C2H2 undergoes an addition reaction with Cl2? A) C2HCl+ HCl B) C2H2Cl2 C) C2Cl2 + H2 D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B 74. The reaction CH3CH3 + Br2 → CH3CH2Br + HBr would best be described as: A) substitution. B) combustion. C) addition. D) hydrogenation. E) none of the above Answer: A 75. The reaction CH2=CH2 + H2 → CH3CH3 would best be described as: A) substitution. B) combustion. C) addition. D) hydrogenation. E) none of the above Answer: D 76. The reaction CH2=CH2 + Br2 → CHBrCHBr would best be described as: A) substitution. B) combustion. C) addition. D) hydrogenation. E) none of the above Answer: C 77. Name the aromatic compound shown below: A) Phenyl bromide B) Benzyl bromide C) Bromobenzene D) Phenol E) none of the above Answer: C 78. How many carbon atoms would be in the compound named chlorobenzene? A) 1 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) none of the above Answer: C 79. In naming disubstituted benzenes, "1,2" substitution is also known as: A) ortho substitution. B) meta substitution. C) para substitution. D) isomer substitution. E) none of the above Answer: A 80. Which of the following are correct names for the compound shown in the figure? 1. 1,2-Dibromobenzene 2. 1,3-Dibromobenzene 3. m-Dibromobenzene A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) None of 1, 2, and 3 Answer: C 81. Which of the following functional groups represents an alcohol? Answer: E 82. Which of the following functional groups represents an ester? Answer: D 83. Which of the following functional groups represents a ketone? Answer: B 84. Which of the following functional groups represents an aldehyde? Answer: A 85. Which compound below represents isopropyl alcohol? Answer: A 86. Name the following compound: CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—O— CH2—CH3 A) butyl ethyl ether B) hexyl ether C) ethyl butylone D) 2-hexone Answer: A 87. Name the following compound: A) propanone B) 2-methyl-2-ethanone C) propanal D) isopropanol E) none of the above Answer: A 88. A compound named "propanal" would be classified as an A) alcohol. B) amine. C) aldehyde. D) ether. E) none of the above Answer: C 89. Name the following compound: A) ethanoate B) ethanoic acid C) ethanal D) ethanone E) none of the above Answer: B 90. Ethyl propanoate is a(n): A) ether. B) carboxylic acid. C) ester. D) ketone. E) none of the above Answer: C 91. Which of the following terms could NOT be applied to the compound CH2=CHCH2CH2OH? A) unsaturated B) an alcohol C) an alkene D) a carboxylic acid E) none of the above Answer: D 92. Amines are: A) organic compounds containing nitrogen. B) known for their awful odors. C) named according to the hydrocarbon groups attached to nitrogen. D) based on NH3 with hydrogen groups being replaced by alkyl groups. E) all of the above Answer: E 93. Which of the following is NOT considered a type of polymer? A) addition polymer B) condensation polymer C) natural polymer D) synthetic polymer E) none of the above Answer: E 94. Which of the following is an example of a polymer? A) DNA B) Protein C) Nylon D) Plexiglass E) all of the above Answer: E 95. Which of the following statements is FALSE about polymers? A) Several monomer units link together without eliminating any atom or group to form addition polymers. B) During condensation polymerization an atom or group is eliminated. C) Copolymers contain more than one kind of polymer. D) Nylon 6,6 and polyurethane are examples of copolymers. E) none of the above. Answer: D Matching Questions Match the following 96. sec-butyl 97. methyl 98. ethyl 99. propyl 100. isopropyl 101. butyl 102. isobutyl 103. alcohol 104. ester 105. aldehyde 106. ketone 107. carboxylic acid 96. Answer: I 97. Answer: A 98. Answer: J 99. Answer: M 100. Answer: O 101. Answer: E 102. Answer: F 103. Answer: N 104. Answer: C 105. Answer: H 106. Answer: K 107. Answer: B Chapter 19 Biochemistry True/False Questions 1. The human genome project was embarked upon in the late 1970s with the goal of mapping the entire DNA molecule. Answer: False 2. Biochemistry is the study of chemical substances and process that occur in plants, animals and microorganisms. Answer: True 3. The four main classes of biochemical compounds are carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids. Answer: True 4. The smallest structural unit of a living organism is the cell nucleus. Answer: False 5. Carbohydrates provide short term energy storage in cells. Answer: True 6. A carbohydrate that cannot be broken down into simpler carbohydrates is called a monosaccharide. Answer: True 7. Glucose is an example of a monosaccharide. Answer: True 8. Monosaccharides typically rearrange in aqueous solution to form double helix structures. Answer: False 9. Fructose is an example of a hexose, a six-carbon sugar. Answer: True 10. A pentose sugar contains more carbon atoms than does a hexose sugar. Answer: False 11. The many OH groups present in carbohydrates such as glucose make them quite insoluble in water and blood. Answer: False 12. Humans are better able to digest cellulose than starch because of differences in the link between the glucose units in the polysaccharide. Answer: False 13. Lipids are soluble in aqueous solutions such as blood and cytoplasm. Answer: False 14. Lipids are considered to be more soluble in water than in other solvents. Answer: False 15. The term hydrophilic indicates a substance is repelled by water. Answer: False 16. The polar section of a phospholipid is said to be hydrophobic. Answer: False 17. The nonpolar part of a phospholipid is repelled by water and is said to be hydrophilic. Answer: False 18. A fatty acid has a long chain of carbon atoms that ends with a carboxylic acid. Answer: True 19. A triglyceride is a fat or oil that contains a fatty acid bonded to three glycerol molecules. Answer: False 20. Saturated fats tend to be solid at room temperature. Answer: True 21. Enzymes that act as catalysts are called proteins. Answer: False 22. Proteins are polymers of amino acids. Answer: True 23. Amino acids are molecules that contain a side chain, a main chain, an amine group, a carboxylic acid group and a protein group. Answer: False 24. Protein structures are expressed in terms of amino acid sequence, the short-term repeating pattern, the long-term bend and folds and finally how proteins structures interact with themselves. Answer: True 25. The exact shape that a protein takes depends on the types of amino acids and their sequence in the protein chain. Answer: True 26. Pleated sheet is a tertiary protein structure. Answer: False 27. Quaternary protein structure is simply the sequence of amino acids in that protein's chain. Answer: False 28. The pattern Gly-Val-Gln-Cys-Cys-Ala-Ser-Val is an example of a primary protein structure. Answer: True 29. Nucleic acids contain a chemical code that ensures the correct amino acid sequence for proteins. Answer: True 30. DNA and RNA are the two types of nucleic acids. Answer: True 31. Nucleotides contain a phosphate, a sugar and an amino acid. Answer: False 32. A gene is a portion of DNA that codes for a single protein. Answer: True 33. DNA contained within the nucleus of most cells contains a complete set of instructions to make all of the proteins in the human body. Answer: True 34. Protein synthesis occurs at the ribosome. Answer: True 35. Humans must synthesize some of the proteins they need because they cannot obtain them from the foods they eat. Answer: True 36. The complementary strand of DNA to the pattern GAATC is TCCGA. Answer: False 37. The bases on one strand of DNA pair with bases on the other strand of DNA through hydrogen bonding. Answer: True 38. A codon is a section of DNA that specifies a single amino acid. Answer: True Multiple Choice Questions 39. The human genome project showed that humans have approximately __________ genes. A) 46 B) 20,000 C) 36,000 D) 3 Million E) none of the above Answer: B 40. A roundworm has approximately __________ genes. A) 46 B) 20,000 C) 32,000 D) 3 Million E) none of the above Answer: B 41. The human genome project is expected to: A) help identify people who are susceptible to certain diseases. B) help develop new ways to develop needed drugs our bodies make. C) help develop new drugs to fight genetic diseases. D) help understand the genetic basis for intelligence. E) all of the above Answer: E 42. The portion of the cell that contains the genetic information is called: A) cytoplasm. B) membrane. C) nucleus. D) mitochondria. E) none of the above Answer: C 43. The region of the cell that contains specialized structures that carry out the cell's work is called __________. A) nucleus B) cell wall C) cell membrane D) cytoplasm E) none of the above Answer: D 44. The region of the cell that holds the contents of the cell together is called __________. A) nucleus B) mitochondria C) cell membrane D) cytoplasm E) none of the above Answer: C 45. Which sequence below lists the order of the components of a cell, listed in order from inside to outside? A) nucleus, cell membrane, cytoplasm B) cytoplasm, nucleus, cell membrane C) nucleus, cytoplasm, cell membrane D) cell membrane, nucleus, cytoplasm E) cell membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus Answer: C 46. The main chemical components of the cell are __________. A) carbohydrates, alcohols, proteins and amines B) alcohols, proteins, amines and nucleic acids C) proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, and carbohydrates D) amines, lipids, nucleic acids and proteins E) none of the above Answer: C 47. An example of a monosaccharide is __________. A) glucose B) sucrose C) cellulose D) glycogen E) both C and D Answer: A 48. A seven-carbon sugar is known as A) tetrose. B) sevose. C) hexose. D) heptose. E) none of the above Answer: D 49. An example of a disaccharide is A) glucose B) sucrose C) cellulose D) glycogen E) both C and D Answer: B 50. Which of the following is NOT true regarding disaccharides? A) The disaccharide link is so strong that it cannot be broken during digestion. B) The link between the monosaccharides is called a glycosidic linkage. C) Water is eliminated when two monosaccharides react to form a disaccharide. D) A disaccharide is a carbohydrate composed of two simpler carbohydrates. E) none of the above Answer: A 51. During digestion, sucrose breaks down into __________. A) glucose and galactose B) galactose and fructose C) fructose and lactose D) glucose and fructose E) none of the above Answer: D 52. An example of a polysaccharide is: A) glucose. B) sucrose. C) cellulose. D) glycogen. E) both C and D Answer: E 53. Which of the following statements is FALSE about polysaccharides? A) They are long chain structures containing large number of repeating monosaccharide units. B) Starch, cellulose, and glycogen are polysaccharides. C) Table sugar is a polysaccharide. D) They break down to produce monosaccharides during digestion. E) none of the above Answer: C 54. All of the following are usable forms of carbohydrates by humans EXCEPT: A) glucose. B) sucrose. C) cellulose. D) glycogen. E) both C and D Answer: C 55. All of the carbohydrates below are hexoses EXCEPT: A) glucose. B) fructose. C) galactose. D) both A and B E) Glucose, fructose and galactose are all hexoses. Answer: E 56. The only difference between starch and cellulose is: A) starch is a linear arrangement of glucose units and cellulose is a branched arrangement of glucose units. B) starch is a linear arrangement of sucrose units and cellulose is a linear arrangement of glucose units. C) starch is a linear arrangement of fructose units and cellulose is a branched arrangement of fructose units. D) starch is a linear arrangement of glucose units with alpha linkages and cellulose is a linear arrangement of glucose units with beta linkages. E) none of the above Answer: D 57. A lipid is a chemical component of the cell that is A) insoluble in water but soluble in methanol. B) soluble in nonpolar solvents and insoluble in water. C) soluble in water and insoluble in nonpolar solvents. D) soluble in both water and nonpolar solvents. E) none of the above Answer: B 58. Lipids include all of the following compounds EXCEPT: A) fatty acids. B) fats. C) oils. D) amino acids. E) All of the above are lipids. Answer: D 59. Lipids include all of the following compounds EXCEPT: A) phospholipids. B) glycolipids. C) carboxylic acids. D) steroids. E) All of the above are lipids. Answer: E 60. Which of the following is a saturated fatty acid? A) oleic acid B) linoleic acid C) linolenic acid D) capric acid E) All of the above are saturated fatty acids. Answer: D 61. Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid? A) oleic acid B) palmitic acid C) myristic acid D) butyric acid E) All of the above are saturated fatty acids. Answer: A 62. Which of the following statements about fats and oils is FALSE? A) Fats and oils are made of a fatty acid with three glycerides bonded to it. B) The bonds between the fatty acids and the glycerol is an ester linkage. C) A saturated fatty acid contains only single bonds between carbon atoms. D) An unsaturated fatty acid contains some double or triple bonds. E) All of the above statements are true. Answer: A 63. Which of the statements regarding phospholipids is FALSE? A) A phospholipid has nearly the same structure as a triglyceride. B) Unlike triglycerides, phospholipids have a polar region. C) Phospholipids are common in the cell membrane. D) A cell membrane is a bilayer of phospholipids and glycolipids. E) All of the above statements are true. Answer: E 64. Which of the following statements about proteins is FALSE? A) Proteins are polymers of amino acids. B) Proteins can act as biological catalysts. C) Proteins are the structural component of muscle and cartilage. D) Proteins are a main source of energy for cells. E) All of the statements are true. Answer: D 65. Which of the following statements about amino acids is FALSE? A) Amino acids are the monomers of protein molecules. B) Amino acids all have an amine group, a side chain, and a carboxylic acid. C) Amino acids bond to each other through a peptide bond. D) Amino acids all have very similar physical properties. E) All of the statements are true. Answer: D 66. Amino acids contain a(n): A) amine group. B) carboxylic acid group. C) "R" side chain. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D 67. Which factor causes the main difference in chemical properties between different amino acids? A) amine group B) carboxylic acid group C) R group (side chain) D) molecular weight E) none of the above Answer: C 68. Which of the following statements correctly explains the formation of a peptide bond between two amino acids? A) The amine end of one links with the amine end of the other. B) The carboxylic acid end of one links with the carboxylic acid end of the other. C) The amine end of one links with the carboxylic acid end of the other and eliminates a water molecule. D) The carboxylic acid end of one links with the carboxylic acid end of the other and eliminates a water molecule. E) none of the above Answer: C 69. Which protein structure provides the amino acid sequence? A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: A 70. Which protein structure provides the arrangement of polypeptides? A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: D 71. Which protein structure provides the large-scale bends and folds in the protein? A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: C 72. Which protein structure provides the short-range repeating patterns? A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: B 73. The most common repeating pattern that is found along the secondary structure of a protein chain is A) α-helix. B) β-pleated sheet. C) β-turn. D) random coil. E) none of the above Answer: A 74. The primary interactions that determine the tertiary structure of proteins include A) hydrogen bonds. B) disulfide linkages. C) hydrophobic interactions. D) all of A, B, and C E) none of A, B, and C Answer: D 75. Cys-Ala-Val-Cys-Gln is an example of which type of structure? A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: A 76. A globular shape is an example of which type of structure? A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: C 77. An alpha helix is an example of which type of structure? A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: B 78. Which type of structure is maintained by interaction between R-groups on amino acids that are separated by long distances on the same chain? A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: C 79. Which type of structure is maintained by interaction between R-groups on amino acids that are on separate chains? A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: D 80. Which type of structure is maintained by interaction between R-groups on amino acids that are separated by short distances on the same chain? A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: B 81. Which of the following statements about nucleic acids is FALSE? A) Nucleic acids contain the code to make lipids. B) Nucleic acids specify the order of amino acids in proteins. C) Nucleic acids are either DNA or RNA. D) Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides. E) All of the statements are true. Answer: A 82. Which base is found in RNA but NOT in DNA? A) uracil B) thymine C) guanine D) cytosine E) adenine Answer: A 83. A nucleotide contains: A) phosphate, sugar, amino acid. B) phosphate, lipid, base. C) phosphate, lipid, amino acid. D) phosphate, sugar, base. E) none of the above Answer: D 84. A codon is: A) a series of three bases that specifies one of the twenty amino acids. B) a series of three phosphates that specifies one of the twenty amino acids. C) a series of three sugars that specifies one of the twenty amino acids. D) a series of three proteins that specify one of the twenty amino acids. E) none of the above Answer: A 85. A gene is: A) a structure within the cell nucleus that houses DNA. B) a portion of DNA that codes for a single protein. C) a sequence of three nucleotides that codes for a single amino acid. D) a portion of a protein that codes for a single amino acid. E) none of the above Answer: B 86. A chromosome is: A) a structure within the cell nucleus that houses genes. B) a portion of DNA that codes for a single protein. C) a sequence of three nucleotides that codes for a single amino acid. D) a portion of a protein that codes for a single amino acid. E) none of the above Answer: A 87. Which sequence below represents the correct base pairs that can exist in DNA? A) A with T and C with G B) A with C and T with G C) A with G and C with T D) A with U and T with G E) none of the above Answer: A 88. The complementary base sequence to GTAGCT is: A) CATCGA. B) ACGATC. C) GCAGTA. D) AGTCGA. E) none of the above Answer: A 89. The structure of DNA is: A) the pleated sheet. B) the alpha helix. C) the beta helix. D) the double helix. E) none of the above Answer: D 90. The synthesis of a protein involves: A) DNA transfers the code to m-RNA which then goes to the nucleus to synthesize the protein. B) DNA transfers the code to m-RNA which then goes to the mitochondria to synthesize the protein. C) DNA transfers the code to m-RNA which then goes to the ribosome to synthesize the protein. D) DNA transfers the code to m-RNA which then goes to the codon to synthesize the protein. E) none of the above Answer: C 91. The two strands that form the double helix of DNA are held to each other by: A) peptide bonds. B) covalent bonds. C) hydrogen bonds. D) ester linkages. E) none of the above Answer: C 92. The "m" in the term mRNA represents A) meta. B) mini. C) mitosis. D) messenger. E) none of the above Answer: D Essay Questions 93. It is expected that the Human Genome Project by mapping DNA can lead to the development of new drugs in two ways. Briefly explain how new drugs can be developed as a result of the Human Genome Project. Answer: 1. Understanding of the function of specific genes will allow scientists to design drugs that will carry out the functions related to the genes. 2. Scientists can also take the blueprints contained in human genes and put them in bacteria which will synthesize the needed drugs. Such drugs are then isolated from the bacteria and given to patients. 94. What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids? Answer: The carbon chains in saturated fatty acids do not contain double bonds while unsaturated fatty acids contain at least one double bond. 95. Summarize the main features of the four categories of protein structure. Answer: 1. Primary structure is the sequence of amino acids in the protein chain. 2. Secondary structure refers to the short-range repeating patterns found along the protein chain. 3. Tertiary structure consists of large-scale twists and folds within the protein due to the interactions between the R- groups of amino acids that are separated by large distances in the protein sequence. 4. Quaternary structure refers to the arrangement of chains in proteins. Quaternary structure is maintained by interactions between amino acids on the individual chains. Test Bank for Introductory Chemistry Nivaldo J. Tro 9780321741028, 9780321687937, 9781256112938, 9781256161066, 9780134302386, 9780321910073