CH-14 Ethics and Employee Rights and Discipline – Human Resource Management : Exam Guide

Chapter 14 Ethics and Employee Rights and Discipline 1) The principles of conduct governing an individual or a group are referred to as ________. A) judgments B) ethics C) laws D) virtues Answer: B Explanation: B) Ethics refers to "the principles of conduct governing an individual or a group; specifically, the standards you use to decide what your conduct should be." 2) When someone concludes that something is good or bad, right or wrong, a(n) ________ has been made. A) moral assessment B) non-normative statement C) normative judgment D) distributive assessment Answer: C Explanation: C) Making ethical decisions always involves normative judgments. A normative judgment means that something is good or bad, right or wrong, better or worse. 3) Ethics refers to the ________. A) basic beliefs about what is right or wrong B) principles of conduct governing an individual or group C) standards used by the organization to decide upon proper conduct D) standards of behavior accepted by society Answer: B Explanation: B) Ethics refers to "the principles of conduct governing an individual or a group; specifically, the standards you use to decide what your conduct should be. A normative judgment means that something is right or wrong. Morals are society's highest accepted standards of behavior. 4) Which of the following is a normative statement? A) "Our company offers health insurance to all full-time employees and their families." B) "The firm's benefits are exceptional compared to competing company's health plans." C) "The company's revenue in 2003 was approximately $1.2 billion." D) "Employees are eligible to receive benefits after a 60 day period." Answer: B Explanation: B) A normative judgment means that something is good or bad, right or wrong, better or worse. "Exceptional" indicates an opinion, so the statement is a normative judgment. The other statements are factual. 5) What are the two components of ethical decisions? A) distributive justice and procedural justice B) normative judgments and legal precedents C) morality and normative judgments D) morality and fairness Answer: C Explanation: C) Making ethical decisions always involves normative judgments and morality. A normative judgment means that something is good or bad, right or wrong, better or worse. Morality is society's highest accepted standards of behavior. 6) Which of the following best describes a normative judgment? A) assessment of whether something is good or bad B) highest accepted standards of behavior in a society C) principles of conduct governing an individual or group D) values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share Answer: A Explanation: A) A normative judgment means that something is right or wrong. Morals are society's highest accepted standards of behavior. Ethics refers to principles of conduct governing an individual or a group. 7) Which of the following guides the most serious societal behaviors such as murder, stealing, and slander? A) normative judgments B) distributive justice C) human rights D) moral standards Answer: D Explanation: D) Moral standards guide behaviors of the most serious consequence to society's well-being, such as murder, lying, and slander. Moral judgments trigger strong emotions, and violating moral standards may result in shame and remorse. 8) According to surveys, the majority of serious ethical work issues are related to ________. A) improper accounting principles B) human resource activities C) production discrepancies D) e-mail or Internet abuse Answer: B Explanation: B) One survey found that 6 of the 10 most serious ethical work issues—workplace safety, employee records security, employee theft, affirmative action, comparable work, and employee privacy rights—were HR-related. Improper accounting procedures, production problems, and Internet abuse are less common ethical issues. 9) What are the two components of organizational justice? A) distributive justice and normative judgments B) procedural justice and distributive justice C) normative justice and ethical treatment D) interactional justice and morality Answer: B Explanation: B) Experts generally define organizational justice in terms of at least two components—distributive justice and procedural justice. Distributive justice refers to the fairness and justice of the decision's result. Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the process. 10) Which component of organizational justice refers to the fairness and justice of a decision's result? A) distributive justice B) procedural justice C) normative justice D) interpersonal justice Answer: A Explanation: A) Distributive justice refers to the fairness and justice of the decision's result. Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the process. 11) The distributive justice component of organizational justice is best defined as the ________. A) fairness of the decision process B) fairness of the decision's result C) degree to which the decision is moral D) extent to which the decision is good or bad Answer: B Explanation: B) Distributive justice refers to the fairness and justice of the decision's result. Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the process. 12) Which component of organizational justice refers to the fairness of a process? A) distributive justice B) procedural justice C) interactional justice D) normative justice Answer: B Explanation: B) Distributive justice refers to the fairness and justice of the decision's result. Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the process. 13) Which of the following best defines procedural justice? A) fairness of a decision's result B) manner in which firms conduct business C) fairness of the process used to make a decision D) manner in which managers treat subordinates Answer: C Explanation: C) Distributive justice refers to the fairness and justice of the decision's result. Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the process. 14) Based on research into ethical behavior in the workplace, which of the following is a true statement? A) Offering rewards for ethical behavior supports the intrinsic nature of personal ethics. B) Punishing unethical behavior fails to alter the behavior of others in the workplace. C) Managers significantly influence the ethical behavior of their subordinates. D) Employees feel uncomfortable discussing ethics, so it should be avoided. Answer: C Explanation: C) Managers do a lot to influence ethics. According to one report, workplace misconduct dropped dramatically when employees said their supervisors exhibited ethical behavior. Rewarding ethical behavior can backfire, while punishing unethical behavior is essential. Discussing ethics openly is beneficial. 15) Which of the following terms refers to the characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share? A) organizational culture B) organizational ethics C) corporate climate D) corporate mission Answer: A Explanation: A) Organizational culture is the characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share. A value is a basic belief about right and wrong. 16) Which of the following best defines organizational culture? A) basic beliefs about what is right or wrong within a business or corporation B) characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a firm's employees share C) principles of conduct governing an individual, group, or company D) standards used by an organization to determine proper conduct Answer: B Explanation: B) Organizational culture is the characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share. A value is a basic belief about right and wrong. 17) Which of the following best defines values as they relate to organizational culture? A) characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share B) principles of conduct governing an individual or group C) basic beliefs about what is right or wrong D) standards of behavior accepted by society Answer: C Explanation: C) A value is a basic belief about right and wrong. Organizational culture is the characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share. 18) According to research, which of the following has the greatest impact on work-related ethical decisions? A) organizational characteristics B) environmental pressures C) management attitudes D) personal inclinations Answer: D Explanation: D) Researchers concluded that personal inclinations more strongly affected decisions than did environmental pressures or organizational characteristics. Managers have a significant influence over ethics in the workplace, but less than an individual's own morality. 19) As a manager, all of the following would most likely encourage ethical behavior among subordinates EXCEPT ________. A) clarifying expectations B) serving as a role model C) rewarding honest work D) taking credit for others' work Answer: D Explanation: D) Taking credit for others' work is one way that managers lead subordinates towards unethical behavior. Managers need to set good examples, clarify expectations, reward honesty, and penalize wrongdoing. 20) Johnson & Johnson has a corporate ethics code that states "We believe our first responsibility is to the doctors, nurses and patients, to mothers and fathers and all others who use our products and services." What is the most likely purpose of Johnson & Johnson's ethics code? A) establishing disciplinary procedures B) providing incentives for employees C) clarifying expectations for employees D) marketing to potential new customers Answer: C Explanation: C) Johnson & Johnson's ethics code clarifies the firm's expectations with respect to the values it considers critical. The firm expects its employees to follow the ethics code, but it does not necessarily offer incentives. 21) When a company rewards employees who behave ethically using the firm's incentive plan and appraisal system, they are ________ to encourage ethical behavior. A) providing physical support B) organizing ceremonies C) clarifying expectations D) using symbols Answer: A Explanation: A) Provide physical support. The physical manifestations of the manager's values—the incentives, appraisal criteria, and disciplinary procedures he or she uses, for instance—send strong signals regarding what employees should and should not do. 22) According to surveys, which of the following is the primary cause of ethical compromises in the work place? A) feeling peer pressure B) meeting schedule pressures C) advancing a boss' career interests D) advancing personal career interests Answer: B Explanation: B) One study asked employees to list their reasons for taking unethical actions at work. For most of these employees, "meeting schedule pressures," "meeting overly aggressive financial or business objectives" and "helping the company survive" were the three top causes. "Advancing my own career or financial interests" ranked about last. 23) Which of the following makes the CEO of a publicly traded firm accountable for ethics compliance? A) Taft-Hartley Act B) Landrum-Griffin Act C) Norris-LaGuardia Act D) Sarbanes-Oxley Act Answer: D Explanation: D) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (passed after a series of top corporate management ethical lapses) requires companies to declare whether they have a code of conduct. The other legislative acts are not related to corporate ethics. 24) The applicant screening process would most likely be considered unfair if an HR manager ________. A) encouraged two-way communication B) focused mostly on personality issues C) included an appeals process D) provided useful feedback Answer: B Explanation: B) The screening process should focus on job-related criteria rather than personality issues. Two-way communication is essential to screening applicants. Applicants should have a chance to demonstrate competence and appeal decisions. Applicants see a selection system as fair to the extent that the employer provides useful feedback about the employee's or candidate's own performance. 25) What is the most likely reason for more firms providing ethics training to employees? A) Employees seeking professional certification are tested on ethics. B) State laws require businesses to have written codes of conduct. C) Businesses fear being sued by customers for ethical misconduct. D) Federal laws encourage firms to comply with ethics training guidelines. Answer: D Explanation: D) For all practical purposes, ethics training is mandatory. Federal sentencing guidelines reduced penalties for employers accused of misconduct who implemented codes of conduct and ethics training. An amendment to those guidelines now outlines stricter ethics training requirements. 26) Health-Tech Materials is a firm that manufactures medical equipment purchased by hospitals and clinics. The firm employs over 2,500 workers in its two manufacturing facilities located in Texas and Arizona. Recently, Health-Tech dismissed a number of employees for ethics violations ranging from improper Internet usage to stealing company funds. In addition, the firm has been sued by two former employees for wrongful discharge. As a result, Health-Tech's top executives are evaluating the firm's hiring process, ethics training system, reward system, and disciplinary system to determine how to promote ethics and fair treatment. Health-Tech's HR department has devised a brief ethics test for employees to use when determining if their actions match Health-Tech's code of conduct. Which of the following questions is LEAST likely to be included on the ethics test? A) What Health-Tech employees will be affected by my actions? B) Will my actions reflect negatively on the image of Health-Tech? C) Would I perform this action if I worked for a Health-Tech competitor? D) Is the action I am about to perform on behalf of Health-Tech a legal one? Answer: C Explanation: C) It is less relevant to ask if the action would be taken if the person worked for another firm because the other firm's values and ethics are not the issue. The other questions are relevant for an employee to ask when evaluating the ethics of a decision made on behalf of Health-Tech. 27) Health-Tech Materials is a firm that manufactures medical equipment purchased by hospitals and clinics. The firm employs over 2,500 workers in its two manufacturing facilities located in Texas and Arizona. Recently, Health-Tech dismissed a number of employees for ethics violations ranging from improper Internet usage to stealing company funds. In addition, the firm has been sued by two former employees for wrongful discharge. As a result, Health-Tech's top executives are evaluating the firm's hiring process, ethics training system, reward system, and disciplinary system to determine how to promote ethics and fair treatment. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Health-Tech should utilize online ethics program software? A) Health-Tech executives want to quantify the types of ethical issues that are most common at the firm in order to provide the most relevant training to employees. B) Health-Tech managers are required to monitor the computer usage of subordinates to determine their levels of productivity. C) Health-Tech discusses its code of conduct during employee orientation and also provides new employees with the firm's handbook. D) The Health-Tech legal department requires the firm to post its ethics code and hiring procedures on the firm's web site to prevent legal problems. Answer: A Explanation: A) Online ethics program software enables firms to keep track of how well a firm and its employees are doing in terms of maintaining ethical standards. Such software would allow managers at Health-Tech to measure what ethical issues are most common in order to determine the most relevant training. 28) Which of the following supervisory actions is LEAST likely to enhance the perception of fairness? A) dealing with unethical behavior quickly B) conducting an objective performance appraisal C) making more normative than nonnormative statements D) ensuring that employees understand the reasons for a decision Answer: C Explanation: C) The number of normative or nonnormative statements made by a supervisor has little influence on the perception of fairness. Supervisors should deal swiftly with unethical behavior so that the ethical employees don't feel punished. Performance appraisals should be objective and based on standards that employees understand. 29) Health-Tech Materials is a firm that manufactures medical equipment purchased by hospitals and clinics. The firm employs over 2,500 workers in its two manufacturing facilities located in Texas and Arizona. Recently, Health-Tech dismissed a number of employees for ethics violations ranging from improper Internet usage to stealing company funds. In addition, the firm has been sued by two former employees for wrongful discharge. As a result, Health-Tech's top executives are evaluating the firm's hiring process, ethics training system, reward system, and disciplinary system to determine how to promote ethics and fair treatment. Which of the following best supports the argument that Health-Tech should distribute an anonymous survey to gather information about employee attitudes about management? A) Health-Tech monitors its employees phone calls and Internet usage to protect itself from lawsuits and ethical violations. B) Independent contractors working for Health-Tech are not allowed to work for the firm's competitors, which angers most contractors. C) Exit interviews at Health-Tech indicate that employees feel uncomfortable about raising ethics concerns with managers. D) Health-Tech managers have been reluctant to terminate disruptive employees for fear of lawsuits. Answer: C Explanation: C) Anonymous employee surveys would allow employees to express their feelings about the company and their managers. Employees who feel uncomfortable raising ethics concerns with managers or fear retribution for doing so would benefit from a survey. 30) Health-Tech Materials is a firm that manufactures medical equipment purchased by hospitals and clinics. The firm employs over 2,500 workers in its two manufacturing facilities located in Texas and Arizona. Recently, Health-Tech dismissed a number of employees for ethics violations ranging from improper Internet usage to stealing company funds. In addition, the firm has been sued by two former employees for wrongful discharge. As a result, Health-Tech's top executives are evaluating the firm's hiring process, ethics training system, reward system, and disciplinary system to determine how to promote ethics and fair treatment. Which of the following best supports the argument that Health-Tech should make significant changes to its disciplinary process? A) According to surveys, Health-Tech employees feel that managers do not listen to their concerns or take their opinions seriously. B) Health-Tech requires employees to receive annual ethics training to ensure that they understand the firm's latest policies. C) Health-Tech's main competitor uses fictional scenarios to test applicants' morality and has fewer ethics problems than Health-Tech. D) Historically, arbitrators have overturned the dismissal decisions of Health-Tech's managers because of unclear company rules. Answer: D Explanation: D) Arbitrators are more likely to overturn employers' decisions when the employer fails to have clear rules and regulations. Inattentive managers, ethics training, and competitor's actions are less relevant. 31) Which of the following is the primary element of properly developed disciplinary procedures? A) electronic employee monitoring B) clearly established rules C) legal representation D) severe penalties Answer: B Explanation: B) Proper disciplinary procedures require employers to clearly specify rules and expectations of behavior, otherwise employees do not know what is required of them. Severe punishment and legal assistance may be required in some cases but not all. 32) In which organizational document are an organization's rules and regulations usually stated? A) employee handbook B) federal code of ethics C) mission and vision statement D) human resource policy manual Answer: A Explanation: A) Upon hiring, tell employees, preferably in writing, what is not permitted. The employee handbook usually contains the rules and regulations. 33) Which of the following terms refers to discipline without punishment? A) democratic punishment B) nonpunitive discipline C) corporal punishment D) positive discipline Answer: B Explanation: B) Nonpunitive discipline is discipline without punishment. It usually involves a system of oral warnings and paid "decision-making leaves" in lieu of more traditional punishment. 34) Employees at R&R Carpet and Tile are allowed to take one-hour lunch breaks. Todd's assistant, Suzanne, took a two-hour lunch break today without prior approval. Suzanne has never broken any other rules since being employed by the company. R&R has a nonpunitive discipline policy. Which of the following will most likely be Todd's response to Suzanne's violation? A) issuing a formal written reminder to Suzanne B) giving Suzanne a one-day leave with pay C) telling Suzanne that she is dismissed D) issuing an oral reminder to Suzanne Answer: D Explanation: D) The first step in nonpunitive discipline is issuing the employee an oral reminder. After that, a formal written reminder, decision-making leave, and the employee's dismissal are appropriate. 35) Health-Tech Materials is a firm that manufactures medical equipment purchased by hospitals and clinics. The firm employs over 2,500 workers in its two manufacturing facilities located in Texas and Arizona. Recently, Health-Tech dismissed a number of employees for ethics violations ranging from improper Internet usage to stealing company funds. In addition, the firm has been sued by two former employees for wrongful discharge. As a result, Health-Tech's top executives are evaluating the firm's hiring process, ethics training system, reward system, and disciplinary system to determine how to promote ethics and fair treatment. Which of the following undermines the argument that Health-Tech should shift from a traditional discipline system to a non-punitive discipline system? A) The most common employee discipline situations at Health-Tech involve theft or physical altercations. B) Health-Tech has already modified its hiring process to include ethics tests when screening job applicants. C) A court ruled in a wrongful discharge case against Health-Tech that the employee handbook served as an implied contract. D) Frequent tardiness is the primary infraction among Health-Tech employees who receive decision-making leave. Answer: A Explanation: A) A non-punitive discipline program is not appropriate for serious issues, such as criminal activity or fighting. In such cases, immediate dismissal is typical. Non-punitive discipline is more appropriate for tardiness or absenteeism. Decision-making leave is one of the steps in nonpunitive discipline. 36) Which of the following is NOT one of the four points of the hot stove rule? A) immediate B) consistent C) feedback D) warning Answer: C Explanation: C) Supervisors traditionally apply the four points of what they call the "hot stove rule" when applying discipline. When touching a hot stove that says, "Don't touch," the person has a warning, and the pain is consistent, impersonal, and immediate. 37) Which of the following is NOT one of the four types of privacy violations upheld by courts? A) intrusion B) drug testing C) disclosure of medical records D) publication of private matters Answer: B Explanation: B) The four main types of employee privacy violations upheld by courts are intrusion, publication of private matters, disclosure of medical records, and appropriation of an employee's name or likeness for commercial purposes. Drug testing employees is legal. 38) Which of the following involves using fingerprints or iris scans to identify employees? A) electronic performance monitoring system B) location monitoring system C) digital dashboard D) biometrics Answer: D Explanation: D) Biometrics involves the use of physical traits such as fingerprints or iris scans for identification. With fingerprint technology, the user passes his or her fingertip over an optical reader, or presses it onto a computer chip. Location monitoring involves checking the location and movement of employees. 39) The business purpose exception to the Electronic Communications Privacy Act permits ________. A) employees to access private employer documents if they have reason to suspect unethical behavior by company agents B) employers to monitor communications if they can show a legitimate business reason for doing so C) employers to listen to personal employee phone calls if the calls are made on employer time D) employees to conduct personal business during work hours if they can show it is necessary Answer: B Explanation: B) The ECPA is a federal law intended to help restrict interception and monitoring of oral and wire communications. It contains two exceptions. The "business purpose exception" permits employers to monitor communications if they can show a legitimate business reason for doing so. The second, "consent exception," lets employers monitor communications if they have their employees' consent to do so. 40) The consent exception to the Electronic Communications Privacy Act permits ________. A) employees to access private employer documents if they have reason to suspect unethical behavior by company agents B) employers to monitor employee communications if the employees have given informed consent C) employers to monitor communications if they can show a legitimate business reason for doing so D) employers to listen to personal employee phone calls if the calls are made on employer time Answer: B Explanation: B) The ECPA is a federal law intended to help restrict interception and monitoring of oral and wire communications. It contains two exceptions. The "business purpose exception" permits employers to monitor communications if they can show a legitimate business reason for doing so. The second, "consent exception," lets employers monitor communications if they have their employees' consent to do so. 41) Which of the following terms refers to the involuntary termination of an employee's employment with a firm? A) sabbatical B) dismissal C) insubordination D) leave of absence Answer: B Explanation: B) Dismissal is the involuntary termination of an employee's employment with a firm. Insubordination is the willful disregard of authority. 42) Which of the following best defines "termination at will"? A) employees can refuse to collaborate with specific coworkers for personal reasons B) either the employer or the employee can end the employment relationship at anytime C) employers can deny employees' requests for vacation and leave for any reason D) customers can end relationships with service providers for any reason at anytime Answer: B Explanation: B) Termination at will means that without a contract, either the employer or the employee could terminate at will the employment relationship. The employee can resign for any reason, at will, and the employer can dismiss an employee for any reason, at will. 43) Which of the following is NOT responsible for eroding the strength of the "terminate at will" doctrine? A) implied employment contracts B) public relations campaigns C) occupational safety laws D) EEO laws Answer: B Explanation: B) PR campaigns have had no impact on the erosion of the termination at will doctrine. Equal employment laws, OSHA, and the concept of implied contracts have decreased the power of termination at will. 44) When a court determines that an employee handbook implies an employment contract, the ________ exception of the termination-at-will doctrine has most likely been used. A) good faith exception B) statutory exception C) common law exception D) public policy exception Answer: C Explanation: C) With the common law exception, state courts often recognize the concept of implied contracts in employment. Thus, a court may decide that an employee handbook promising termination only "for just cause" may create an exception to the at-will rule. 45) All of the following are reasonable grounds for dismissal EXCEPT ________. A) misconduct B) whistle blowing C) lack of job qualifications D) changed job requirements Answer: B Explanation: B) There are four bases for dismissal: unsatisfactory performance, misconduct, lack of qualifications for the job, and changed requirements of (or elimination of) the job. Whistleblowing is not grounds for dismissal. 46) Tracy is frequently absent from work and almost always late, so her manager has decided to fire her. Which of the following grounds for dismissal will her manager most likely use? A) misconduct B) insubordination C) unsatisfactory performance D) lack of qualifications for the job Answer: C Explanation: C) Unsatisfactory performance means persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed job standards. Specific grounds include excessive absenteeism, tardiness, a persistent failure to meet normal job requirements, or an adverse attitude toward the company, supervisor, or fellow employees. 47) Dismissal based on unsatisfactory performance is most appropriate if an employee ________. A) steals the employer's property B) fails to accomplish tasks despite diligence C) shows an adverse attitude towards co-workers D) acts in an insubordinate manner towards supervisors Answer: C Explanation: C) Unsatisfactory performance means persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed job standards. Specific grounds include excessive absenteeism, tardiness, a persistent failure to meet normal job requirements, or an adverse attitude toward the company, supervisor, or fellow employees. 48) Which of the grounds for dismissal is defined as the deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing and insubordination? A) unsatisfactory performance B) changed requirements of the job C) lack of qualifications for the job D) misconduct Answer: D Explanation: D) Misconduct is deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing, rowdy behavior, and insubordination. Sometimes the misconduct is more serious, as when it causes someone else harm. 49) When an employee's dismissal does not comply with the law or with the contractual agreement stated or implied by the firm via its employment application forms, employee manuals, or other promises, ________ has most likely occurred. A) insubordination B) wrongful discharge C) gross misconduct D) emotional hardship Answer: B Explanation: B) Wrongful discharge refers to a dismissal that violates the law or that fails to comply with contractual arrangements stated or implied by the employer, for instance, in employee manuals. 50) Which of the following terms refers to the willful disregard or disobedience of a supervisor's authority? A) disobedience B) insubordination C) harassment D) mutiny Answer: B Explanation: B) Insubordination is a form of misconduct, and basically refers to willful disobedience and/or rebelliousness. 51) All of the following are examples of insubordination EXCEPT ________. A) publicly criticizing a supervisor B) disregarding the chain of command C) repeatedly failing to perform tasks D) deliberately defying company rules Answer: C Explanation: C) Failing to perform tasks is a type of unsatisfactory performance. Acts of insubordination involve willfully disobeying authority, as with the other answer options. 52) During which of the following is an employee informed of the fact that he or she has been dismissed? A) exit interview B) screening interview C) termination interview D) outplacement interview Answer: C Explanation: C) Telling an employee about his or her dismissal occurs in the termination interview. Exit interviews are conducted with employees who are leaving a firm for any reason for the purpose of gathering the employee's insight about the firm. 53) Which of the following terms refers to a systematic process by which a terminated employee is trained and counseled in how to perform a self-appraisal and secure a new position? A) exit interview B) outplacement counseling C) job counseling fair D) outsourcing Answer: B Explanation: B) Outplacement counseling is a formal process by which a specialist trains and counsels a terminated person in the techniques of self-appraisal and securing a new position. Outplacement counseling is part of the terminated employee's support or severance package and is done by specialized outside firms. 54) Which of the following is conducted with employees who are leaving a firm for the purpose of eliciting information about what is right or wrong with the job and the firm? A) termination interview B) screening interview C) mass interview D) exit interview Answer: D Explanation: D) Many employers conduct exit interviews with employees who are leaving the firm for any reason. These are interviews, usually conducted by a human resource professional just prior to the employee leaving; they elicit information about the job or employer with the aim of giving employers insights into what is right—or wrong—about the firm. 55) Which of the following terms refers to permanently dismissing a relatively large proportion of employees in an attempt to improve productivity and competitiveness? A) bumping B) outsourcing C) downsizing D) contracting Answer: C Explanation: C) Downsizing refers to permanently dismissing a relatively large proportion of employees in an attempt to improve productivity and competitiveness. 56) Which of the following requires that employers of 100 or more employees provide 60 days' notice before starting a layoff of 50 or more people? A) COBRA B) ERISA C) ECP Act D) WARN Act Answer: D Explanation: D) The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (popularly known as the plant closing law) requires employers of 100 or more employees to give 60 days' notice before closing a facility or starting a layoff of 50 people or more. The law gives employees time to seek other work or retraining by giving them advance notice. 57) The plant closing law requires that employers ________. A) provide employees with training for different jobs B) provide severance pay for at least three months C) notify employees 60 days before closing a facility D) layoff no more than 50 people at one facility Answer: C Explanation: C) The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (popularly known as the plant closing law) requires employers of 100 or more employees to give 60 days' notice before closing a facility or starting a layoff of 50 people or more. The law gives employees time to seek other work or retraining by giving them advance notice. 58) Which of the following is a true statement regarding all layoffs? A) Management provides severance packages to affected employees. B) Employees continue working for the firm on a part-time basis. C) Management expects the no-work situation to be temporary. D) Management offers employees the chance to retire. Answer: C Explanation: C) With layoffs, three conditions are usually present: (1) There is no work available for these employees, (2) management expects the no-work situation to be temporary and probably short term, and (3) management intends to recall the employees when work is again available. Severance packages, retirement options, and part-time work are not necessarily part of a layoff. 59) The New York Stock Exchange recently eliminated all "reporter" jobs at the exchange. Reporters with seniority were able to remain employed by displacing co-workers in lower-level positions. Which of the following most likely occurred? A) downsizing B) bumping C) bargaining D) outsourcing Answer: B Explanation: B) Bumping occurs when an employee with seniority displaces a lower-level employee, or bumps them out of their position. 60) In bumping and layoff procedures, which of the following factors is most significant in determining which employees will remain employed with a firm? A) appraisals B) ability C) seniority D) merit Answer: C Explanation: C) Seniority is usually the ultimate determinant of who will work during layoffs. Seniority can give way to merit or ability, but usually only when no senior employee is qualified for a particular job. 61) All of the following are layoff and downsizing alternatives EXCEPT having employees ________. A) agree to pay reductions to keep everyone working B) use their vacations during slow periods C) work overtime hours at regular rates D) take voluntary time off from work Answer: C Explanation: C) Alternatives to layoffs and downsizing include finding volunteers who are interested in reducing pay, having employees concentrate their vacations during slow periods, and having employees agree to take voluntary time off. Working overtime even at lower rates would not reduce costs for a firm. 62) Raj is a manager at a firm that has recently acquired another firm. As a result, numerous employees will be dismissed. In order to ensure that surviving employees at the firm remain productive, Raj should most likely ________. A) contact EEO representatives B) treat dismissed employees with fairness C) conduct exit interviews with dismissed workers D) establish new departmental policies and procedures Answer: B Explanation: B) Employees dismissed as a result of a merger or acquisition should be treated fairly by managers to ensure that surviving employees remain productive and positive about the changes. Contact EEO representatives, conducting exit interviews, and creating new policies are less important. 63) What tool does society use to ensure that employers act fairly and morally? A) non-punitive discipline B) social media outlets C) public forums D) legislation Answer: D Explanation: D) Societies don't rely on employers' ethics or sense of fairness or morality to ensure that they do what's right. Societies also institute various laws, and procedures for enforcing these laws. These laws lay out what employers can and cannot do, for instance in terms of discriminating based on race. In so doing, these laws also carve out explicit rights for employees. 64) According to the text, what are the two main forces that lead to the development of employment laws? A) unalienable rights and public policy B) historic precedence and judges C) federal governments and voters D) social morality and human rights Answer: A Explanation: A) All employment laws flow from the convergence of two basic forces. One is the notion of the bedrock or unalienable rights that a society needs to function in a civilized way. "Life, liberty, and happiness" are examples. The second force is public policy. 65) Carlos, a marketing manager at Devon Consulting, is attending an ethics training program at his workplace. During the training, Carlos is LEAST likely to learn how to ________. A) identify ethical dilemmas B) role play employee dismissals C) use disciplinary practices ethically D) use codes of conduct to resolve problems Answer: B Explanation: B) Ethics training usually involves showing employees how to recognize ethical dilemmas, how to use codes of conduct to resolve problems, and how to use personnel activities like disciplinary practices in ethical ways. Practicing employee dismissals is unlikely to occur during an ethics training course. 66) All of the following are common elements of bullying EXCEPT ________. A) power imbalance B) harmful intentions C) verbal name-calling D) repetitive incidents Answer: C Explanation: C) All types of bullying typically include an imbalance of power, an intent to cause harm, and repetitive occurrences. Not all bullying involves verbal abuse. 67) Which type of bullying most likely involves spreading rumors and purposely breaking up friendships in the workplace? A) physical bullying B) cyberbullying C) verbal bullying D) social bullying Answer: D Explanation: D) Social bullying involves spreading harmful rumors, breaking up friendships, and leaving people out on purpose. Cyberbullying involves the use of the Internet or mobile devices to harm others. 68) All of the following would most likely be addressed in an ethics audit EXCEPT ________. A) employee discrimination B) conflicts of interest C) intranet usage D) gift giving Answer: C Explanation: C) Ethics audits typically address topics like conflicts of interest, giving and receiving gifts, employee discrimination, and access to company information. It is less likely that usage of the company's intranet would be reviewed. 69) The first step in ethical behavior is ________. A) moral awareness B) positive rewards C) legal assessment D) moral disengagement Answer: A Explanation: A) Ethical behavior starts with moral awareness. In other words, does the person even recognize that a moral issue exists in the situation? Ethics slide when people undergo "moral disengagement" because doing so frees them from the guilt that would normally go with violating one's ethical standards. 70) All of the following are typical results of fair disciplinary procedures EXCEPT ________, A) improved employee commitment B) increased organizational support C) improved arbitration scheduling D) enhanced organizational satisfaction Answer: C Explanation: C) Treating employees fairly relates to a wide range of positive employee outcomes. These include enhanced employee commitment and enhanced satisfaction with the organization, and more "organizational citizenship behaviors" (the steps employees take to support their employers' interests). Although arbitrators are likely to consider fairness when reviewing disciplinary procedures, scheduling is irrelevant. 71) Ethical decisions always involve normative judgments about what is right or wrong. Answer: True Explanation: Making ethical decisions always involves normative judgments and questions of morality. 72) "You are working on a laptop" is a normative statement. Answer: False Explanation: "You are working on a laptop" is a nonnormative statement. A normative statement makes a judgment that something is good or bad, such as "You are so fortunate to have a great laptop." 73) Distributive justice refers to the manner in which managers conduct their interpersonal dealings with employees. Answer: False Explanation: Distributive justice refers to the fairness and justice of the decision's result (for instance, did I get an equitable pay raise?). Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the process. 74) Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the process by which a decision is made. Answer: True Explanation: Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the process. Distributive justice refers to the fairness and justice of the decision's result. 75) Two components of organizational justice are distributive justice and procedural justice. Answer: False Explanation: With respect to employee relations, experts generally define organizational justice in terms of at least two components—distributive justice and procedural justice. 76) Many people in the new business development group at GRS&M feel that Blaine was promoted due to her personal friendship with the supervisor rather than a fair review of the qualified employees in the group. This attitude is the result of the employees' perceived procedural justice relative to the decision. Answer: True Explanation: Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the process (for instance, is the process my company uses to allocate merit raises fair?). 77) The standards an individual uses to decide what his or her conduct should be are known as common law. Answer: False Explanation: Ethics refers to the principles of conduct governing an individual or a group; specifically, the standards you use to decide what your conduct should be. 78) The ethical or unethical influence of a manager on a subordinate tends to occur through both verbal and non-verbal communication. Answer: True Explanation: The influence of a boss on a subordinate is often subliminal. Employees take their signals about what's acceptable not just from what managers say, but from what they do. Those signals then create the culture to which employees respond. 79) The president of University National Bank in Palo Alto, California has his office on the main floor of the bank just off the lobby, and his door is always open unless he is in a private meeting. This represents a physical manifestation of the company's culture. Answer: True Explanation: Organizational culture is the characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share. The firm's culture should therefore send clear signals about what is and isn't acceptable behavior, such as leaving office doors open. 80) The principal cause of ethical compromises is based on organizational pressure to meet a schedule or some other objective. Answer: True Explanation: Being expected to meet scheduling pressures was the number-one reported factor for employees who made ethical compromises. For most of these employees, "meeting overly aggressive financial or business objectives" and "helping the company survive" were the two other top causes. 81) Unfortunately, employers have no tools for measuring the ethics of an individual during the applicant screening process, so employers do not realize they have hired an unethical person until it is too late. Answer: False Explanation: Employers can eliminate many ethics problems by making effective hiring decisions. Conducting assessment tests, reference and background checks, drug testing, and making clearly defined job descriptions can reduce the need for many dismissals. 82) A firm's ethics code outlines its mission, vision, appraisal system, and hiring policies. Answer: False Explanation: An ethics code memorializes the standards to which the employer expects its employees to adhere, for instance with respect to bribery. Strategies, mission, and vision are not directly relevant to a firm's ethics code. 83) When firms do not deal swiftly and fairly with the unethical behavior of employees, ethical employees feel penalized. Answer: True Explanation: To the extent that behavior is a function of its consequences, the manager needs to reward ethical behavior and penalize unethical behavior. Research suggests that employees expect the organization to dole out relatively harsh punishment for unethical conduct. If the company does not deal swiftly with unethical behavior, often the ethical employees feel punished. 84) The fair treatment of job applicants by HR managers leads to applicants having favorable opinions about the selection procedure and the organization. Answer: True Explanation: Job applicants who felt treated unfairly expressed more desire to appeal the outcome. Those who view the firm's testing programs as fair react more favorably to the selection procedure, and view the company and the job as more attractive. 85) Although clarifying performance standards for employees makes them feel like performance appraisals are fair, involving employees in decision-making has no impact on perceived fairness. Answer: False Explanation: Involving employees in the decisions that affect them by asking for their input and allowing them to refute ideas and assumptions increases the perception of fairness. Making sure everyone knows up front by what standards they will be judged also improves the perception of fairness. 86) With a system of progressive penalties, the severity of the penalty depends on the offense and the employee's seniority level. Answer: False Explanation: A system of progressive penalties is an aspect of effective discipline. Penalties typically range from oral warnings to written warnings to suspension from the job to discharge. The severity of the penalty is usually a function of the type of offense and the number of times it has occurred. 87) Nonpunitive discipline is discipline involving oral warnings and paid "decision-making leaves of absence." Answer: True Explanation: Nonpunitive discipline involves issuing oral reminders, formal written reminders, and decision-making leaves. 88) Nonpunitive discipline attempts to gain short-term compliance from employees, while traditional discipline seeks long-term cooperation. Answer: False Explanation: Traditional discipline has two potential drawbacks. First, no one likes to be punished. Second, punishment tends to gain short-term compliance, but not the sort of long-term cooperation employers often prefer. Nonpunitive discipline aims to avoid these drawbacks by gaining employees' acceptance of the rules while reducing the punitive nature of the discipline itself. 89) The four main types of privacy upheld by courts are intrusion, publication of private matters, disclosure of medical records, and appropriation of an employee's name or likeness for commercial purposes. Answer: True Explanation: The four main types of employee privacy violations upheld by courts are intrusion (locker room and bathroom surveillance), publication of private matters, disclosure of medical records, and appropriation of an employee's name or likeness for commercial purposes. 90) If an employee conducts a personal phone call at work, the employer can legally eavesdrop and monitor the phone call. Answer: False Explanation: Federal law and most state laws allow employers to monitor employees' phone calls in the ordinary course of business, but they must stop listening once it becomes clear that a conversation is personal rather than business related. 91) Wrongful discharge occurs when an employee's dismissal does not comply with the law or with the contractual agreement stated or implied by the firm through its employment application forms and employee manuals. Answer: True Explanation: Wrongful discharge refers to a dismissal that violates the law or that fails to comply with contractual arrangements stated or implied by the employer, for instance, in employee manuals. Three main protections against wrongful discharge have eroded the termination- at-will doctrine—statutory exceptions, common law exceptions, and public policy exceptions. 92) Employers should avoid providing dismissed employees with full explanations of why and how termination decisions were made because such details typically lead the former employees to file wrongful discharge lawsuits. Answer: False Explanation: Dismissed individuals who said that they were given full explanations of why and how termination decisions were made were more likely to perceive their layoff as fair and less likely to take the past employer to court. 93) With constructive discharge claims, plaintiffs argue that they quit because their employer made the work situation so intolerable. Answer: True Explanation: In a constructive discharge claim, the plaintiff argues that he or she quit, but had no choice because the employer made the situation so intolerable at work. 94) Experts recommend scheduling termination interviews for at least thirty minutes to allow plenty of time for outplacement counseling. Answer: False Explanation: Termination interviews should be no more than ten minutes long. Outplacement counseling does not occur during the termination interview. 95) The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act requires employers of 100 or more employees to give 60 days' notice before closing a facility. Answer: True Explanation: The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (popularly known as the plant closing law) requires employers of 100 or more employees to give 60 days' notice before closing a facility or starting a layoff of 50 people or more. It simply gives employees time to seek other work or retraining by giving them advance notice. 96) Merit is the primary consideration used to determine which employees will remain with a firm and which ones will be dismissed when layoffs are necessary. Answer: False Explanation: Seniority rather than merit or ability is the ultimate determinant regarding who will remain working. 97) Most legal rights in American society derive from local, state, and federal laws. Answer: False Explanation: Not all rights derive from laws. In fact, it is the opposite: most legal rights actually flow from broader unwritten "human" or "unalienable" rights, rights that are the bedrock of American society. 98) Research indicates that individuals are more likely to make unethical choices when faced with minor dilemmas than with major problems. Answer: True Explanation: Apparently "smaller" dilemmas prompt more bad choices than major dilemmas do. Influential issues here include, the total harm that can befall victims of an unethical choice, the likelihood that the action will result in harm, and the number of people potentially affected by the act. In apparently less serious situations, it's more likely that someone might say, in effect, "it's okay to do this, even though I know it's wrong." 99) Studies indicate that some people's traits and behaviors make them more susceptible to bullying. Answer: True Explanation: Numerous studies show that certain people's traits and how they behave make them more likely to be targets of bullying. These include submissive victims (who seem more anxious, cautious, quiet, and sensitive), provocative victims (who sure more aggressive behavior), and victims low in self-determination (who seem to leave it to others to make decisions for them and determine the course of their careers). 100) Firms considered high performance work systems should strive to cut costs rather than downsize because employee morale is especially important to the firm's productivity and profitability. Answer: True Explanation: Firms usually downsize to improve their financial positions. Yet many firms discover profits don't improve after major personnel cuts. Low morale among those remaining is often part of the problem. Supportiveness in the face of downsizing is especially important in high performance work system-type firms that rely heavily on employee morale and expertise. 101) What is morality? How does an employee's morality relate to making ethical decisions in the workplace? Answer: Making ethical decisions always involve two things: normative judgments and morality. Morality is society's highest accepted standards of behavior. Moral standards guide behaviors of the most serious consequence to society's well-being, such as murder, lying, and slander. Authoritative bodies like legislatures can't change what morality means. Moral judgments also trigger strong emotions. Violating moral standards may therefore make someone feel ashamed or remorseful. The most powerful morality comes from within. Because people bring to their jobs their own ideas of what is morally right and wrong, the individual must shoulder much of the credit (or blame) for ethical choices. Research indicates that personal inclinations more strongly affect decisions than do environmental pressures or organizational characteristics. 102) What is organizational justice? How can firms ensure organizational justice in performance appraisals? Answer: Fairness is inseparable from what most people think of as "justice." A company that is just is, among other things, equitable, fair, impartial, and unbiased in how it does things. With respect to employee relations, experts generally define organizational justice in terms of at least two components—distributive justice and procedural justice. Distributive justice refers to the fairness and justice of the decision's result. Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the process. How you conduct appraisals is important in regards to fairness and organizational justice. Studies confirm that, in practice, some managers ignore accuracy in performance appraisals and instead use the process for political purposes Few things can send a more damaging signal about how fair and ethical the company is. To send the signal that organizational justice exists, standards should be clear, employees should understand the basis upon which you're going to appraise them, and the appraisal itself should be objective. 103) What is organizational culture? How can managers influence the ethical nature of a firm's culture? Answer: Organizational culture is the characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share. A value is a basic belief about what is right or wrong, or about what you should or shouldn't do. Values are important because they guide and channel behavior. Managing people and shaping their behavior therefore depends on shaping the values they use as behavioral guides. The firm's culture should therefore send clear signals about what is and isn't acceptable behavior. Managers can take several steps, including clarifying expectations with respect to values, providing physical support to reward ethical behavior, and walking the talk by setting a good example of expected behavior. 104) What is an ethics code? What methods do firms use to monitor employees and ensure their compliance with ethics codes? Answer: An ethics code is a document that memorializes the standards the employer expects its employees to adhere to. Monitoring today goes beyond listening in on phone lines. Biometrics—using physical traits such as fingerprints or iris scans for identification—is one example. More than half of employers say they monitor their employees' incoming and outgoing e-mail; 27% monitor internal e-mail as well. One survey found that 41% of large employers have someone reading employee e-mails. Ninety-six percent block access to adult Web sites; 61% block access to game sites. 105) What can you do as an HR manager to ensure that you hire ethical employees? Answer: Employers can start before the applicant even applies by creating recruitment materials that emphasize ethics. Use tools such as honesty tests and background checks to screen out undesirables. Ask behavioral questions such as, "Have you ever observed someone stretching the rules at work? What did you do about it? 106) How do both firms and individuals benefit from fair treatment in the workplace? When employee discipline is necessary, how can firms ensure that the disciplinary process is fair? Answer: In addition to treating others as you would like to be treated, there are other reasons that managers should treat employees fairly. Arbitrators and the courts will consider the fairness of the employer's disciplinary procedures when reviewing disciplinary decisions. Fairness also relates to a wide range of positive employee outcomes. These include enhanced employee commitment and enhanced satisfaction with the organization, job, and leader and more "organizational citizenship behaviors." Job applicants who felt treated unfairly expressed more desire to appeal the outcome. Those who view the firm's testing programs as fair react more favorably to the selection procedure, and view the company and the job as more attractive. The three pillars for ensuring that the disciplinary process is fair are establishing clear rules and regulations, a system of progressive penalties, and an appeals process. 107) What is nonpunitive discipline? What are the steps of the nonpunitive discipline process? If you were a manager, would you use a system of traditional discipline or nonpunitive discipline? Why? Answer: Nonpunitive discipline refers to the use of discipline without punishment. In lieu of traditional punishment, employees who have disobeyed corporate rules are disciplined using the following system. First, an oral reminder of the rules in question is issued. If another infraction occurs within six weeks of the first, a formal written reminder is issued and a copy of the reminder is placed in the employee's personnel file. A private discussion is also held with the employee but without any threats. If a third incident occurs, the employee is given a one-day leave with pay to consider whether this job is a good fit for him or her and whether he or she will commit to meeting the company's policies. The following day, the employee meets with his or her supervisor to discuss his or her decision to stay and follow the rules or leave. If no further incidents occur, the suspension information is purged from the employee's file. If the behavior is repeated, the next step is dismissal. 108) What is the difference between layoffs and downsizings? What are the alternatives to layoffs and downsizings? Answer: Layoff generally refers to having selected employees take time off, with the expectation that they will come back to work. Downsizing refers to permanently dismissing a relatively large proportion of employees in an attempt to improve productivity and competitiveness. Companies use several methods to avoid layoffs and downsizings. These include voluntary reductions in pay, voluntary time off, concentrated vacations during slow times, and early retirement buy out packages. With the voluntary reduction in pay plan, all employees agree to reductions in pay to keep everyone working. With the voluntary time off approach, some employees agree to take some time off without pay. Other employers arrange for all or most employees to take vacations during slow periods. Early retirement programs enable those who can benefit from the layoff to accept an incentive to retire early. 109) What are the main characteristics of workplace bullying? How can employers and their HR departments reduce bullying incidents in the workplace? Answer: Bullying–singling out someone to harass and mistreat them—is an increasingly serious problem. While definitions of bullying vary, most would agree that bullying involves three things: • Imbalance of Power: people who bully use their power to control or harm and the people being bullied may have a hard time defending themselves, • Intent to Cause Harm: actions done by accident are not bullying; the person bullying has a goal to cause harm, • Repetition: incidents of bullying happen to the same the person over and over by the same person or group. Employers and HR departments must have systems in place to ensure that the company can identify unfair treatment and deal with it expeditiously. This includes having policies in place to monitor employees' use of social media websites, developing ethics codes, and establishing an organizational culture that does not tolerate bullying. 110) What is the Electronic Communications Privacy Act? What are its two primary exceptions? Answer: The ECPA is a federal law intended to help restrict interception and monitoring of oral and wire communications. It contains two exceptions. The "business purpose exception" permits employers to monitor communications if they can show a legitimate business reason for doing so. The second, "consent exception," lets employers monitor communications if they have their employees' consent to do so. Test Bank for Human Resource Management Gary Dessler 9780132668217, 9789353942205, 9780135226803, 9780136089964, 9780134235455, 9780130141248