Chapter 11: Emotion and Motivation Multiple Choice Questions 1. Anecdotal examples of Phineas Gage and Elliot in your textbook provide a demonstration of how damage to the _______________ may be associated with an inability to process and experience emotion. A. temporal lobe B. hippocampus C. frontal lobe D. limbic system Answer: C 2. The term _______________ is derived from the Latin word meaning “to set in motion.” A. motivation B. problem solving C. emotion D. schadenfreude Answer: C 3. According to the discrete emotions theory, emotions are A. significantly different across cultures. B. independent of any physiological responses at all. C. the shared experience across the civilized cultures only. D. to serve evolutionary functions. Answer: D 4. What did Charles Darwin believe about the origin of emotions? A. They are learned through experience. B. They do not merit scientific consideration. C. They are a product of evolution. D. They are remnants of our earliest ancestors and, thus, have little relevance today. Answer: C 5. According to the discrete emotions theory, emotional expressions are recognizable across cultures because A. teaching children about emotional expression is important for survival in all cultures. B. each emotion is associated with a distinct “motor program” that reflects genetically influenced physiological responses that are essentially the same in all people. C. during colonization, missionaries all over the world were teaching children about life and love, and also taught about how to express and recognize emotions in other people. D. the limbic system responds to emotion-provoking stimuli in the same way, and emotions are indistinguishable from a physiological stand-point (i.e., they all have the same patterns of activation). Answer: B 6. Which of the following provides the best example of how emotional expressions are by-products of innate motor programs? A. Babies show the same emotional expressions that are displayed within their culture. B. Babies who are blind from birth smile in response to playing and tickling. C. Babies respond by mimicking emotional expressions in their caregivers. D. Babies show preferences to novel stimuli and learning to do something new. Answer: B 7. A three-month-old baby named Bryan smiles even when he is alone. Scientific research has suggested that his smile should be attributed to A. the reinforcements from his immediate surroundings. B. effective training by his mom. C. his innate motor programs from birth. D. his motivation to learn something new. Answer: C 8. Paul Ekman and his colleagues gathered abundant evidence supporting the universality of _______________ basic facial expressions of emotion. A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9 Answer: C 9. Paul Ekman and colleagues believed that no more than _______________ primary emotions are cross-culturally universal. A. 5 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9 Answer: B 10. According to Ekman, which of the following is not one of the universal facial expressions? A. Disgust B. Anger C. Shame D. Contempt Answer: C 11. Which of the following is not a primary emotion? A. Contempt B. Disgust C. Hatred D. Surprise Answer: C 12. Recent research evidence suggests that _______________ may also be a cross-culturally universal emotion. A. shame B. alarm C. jealousy D. pride Answer: D 13. Which of the following expressions of emotion would be most difficult to recognize? A. Carla is very happy that she got a good grade on her midterm. B. Tarek was disgusted when he cleaned out his roommate’s leftovers from the fridge. C. Juanita was surprised when her friend from another city arrived for dinner. D. Darnell was sad when his dog got very sick and passed away. Answer: B 14. Alisa stood on stage with one corner of her mouth lifted. This is one illustration of a A. happy expression. B. contempt expression. C. fearful expression. D. sad expression. Answer: B 15. To explain the human universality and variability of emotions, Ekman and his associates A. developed a concept of “display rules,” which are rules for emotional expression. B. developed an interobserver system to make sure that observers defined expressions reliably. C. interviewed all participants in order to assess unexpressed feelings and motivations. D. monitored the brain waves of participants to determine which hemisphere had higher activation. Answer: D 16. The emotion alarm, a mixture of fear and surprise, is one example of a A. primary emotion. B. fake emotion. C. secondary emotion. D. real emotion. Answer: C 17. Which of the following examples reflects the individual who is most likely experiencing anger based on their physiology? A. Fred’s stomach is churning and his digestive system has sped up. B. Cassie’s amygdala is showing activation in her brain. C. Jackson’s insula region of his limbic system is activated. D. Deidra’s digestive system has slowed down and her heart rate has increased. Answer: A 18. The _______________ is a fake emotional expression that provides a demonstration of how we can distinguish real from fake emotions. A. covert smile B. overt smile C. Duchenne smile D. Pan Am smile Answer: D 19. Raphael is participating in an experiment that involves taking scans of his brain while producing facial expressions of different emotions. Interestingly, the researchers found that he displays increased activity in the insula when he produced _______________. A. an angry face B. a disgust face C. a Duchenne smile D. a surprise expression Answer: B 20. Raphael is participating in an experiment that involves taking scans of his brain while producing facial expressions of different emotions. Interestingly, the researchers found that he displays increased activity in the prefrontal cortex when he produces _______________. A. an angry face B. a disgust face C. a fear face D. a surprise expression Answer: A 21. Raphael is participating in an experiment that involves taking scans of his brain while producing facial expressions of different emotions. Interestingly, the researchers found that he displays increased activity in the amygdala when he produces _______________. A. an angry face B. a disgust face C. a fear face D. a surprise expression Answer: C 22. Raphael is participating in an experiment that involves taking scans of his brain while producing facial expressions of different emotions. Interestingly, the researchers found that he displays increased activity in the front region of the left hemisphere when he produces _______________. A. an angry face B. a disgust face C. a Duchenne smile D. a surprise expression Answer: C 23. Your Italian friend Sophia invites you over for dinner. She also has invited her brother Genaro, and when he arrives they greet each other by kissing each other on each cheek. You find this interesting because you would never think to greet your own brother with a kiss. Which of the following concepts provides the most likely explanation in this example? A. Motivation-structural rules B. Display rules C. Primary emotions D. Universal emotions Answer: B 24. Which of the following individuals is from a culture that has strict public social display rules? A. Mark, who is American B. Sandrine, who is French C. Miyoki, who is Japanese D. Jessica, who is Canadian Answer: C 25. _______________ can vary from culture to culture and are socially acceptable ways of showing emotion in public settings. A. Phenomes B. Facial grids C. Display rules D. Expressional norms Answer: C 26. A psychologist who has studied emotions with Paul Ekman for decades is going to present a summary of the research. Which title might this psychologist consider? A. “Emotion as a Deviation” B. “Emotion: Evolution’s Big Mistake” C. “Why Emotions Are Not Fully Developed in Humans” D. “How Facial Expressions Communicate Emotions” Answer: D 27. The part of the brain that is activated during the experience of fear is the A. thalamus. B. amygdala. C. insula. D. hippocampus. Answer: B 28. Researchers have found that positive emotions, such as Duchenne smiles and happiness, seem to be a function of A. the hormone leptin. B. the front region of the left hemisphere. C. evolution. D. the occipital lobe and the pineal gland. Answer: B 29. Lori is an A student, and she constantly brags about her high marks when she outperforms her classmates on exams. If Lori unexpectedly gets an F on an exam, her classmates would secretly feel happy about her misfortune. This is known as _______________. A. pride B. schadenfreude C. hatred D. contempt Answer: B 30. Zoe was at the border of passing the statistics course this semester. Her palms started sweating and her heart started pounding while she was to enter the instructor's office to check her final grade. Zoe might change her mind and run away because her heart was pounding too fast. This explanation is most likely based upon the A. James-Lange theory of emotion. B. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion. C. two-factor theory of emotion. D. somatic marker theory of emotion. Answer: D 31. Which of the following theories states that emotions are from our interpretations of our bodily reactions to stimuli? A. Somatic marker theory B. James-Lange theory of emotion C. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion D. Two-factor theory of emotion Answer: B 32. Which theory states that a stimulus triggers physiological changes that produce emotion? A. Somatic marker theory B. James-Lange theory of emotion C. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion D. Two-factor theory of emotion Answer: B 33. Which sequence of events in emotional responses is characteristic of the James- Lange theory of emotion? A. Stimulus – emotion – physiological change B. Stimulus –physiological changes – emotion C. Emotion – stimulus – physiological changes D. Emotion – physiological changes – stimulus Answer: B 34. Which statement best reflects the James-Lange theory of emotion? A. Our hearts race, we see a monster, we feel fear. B. We see a monster, we feel fear, our hearts race. C. We see a monster, our hearts race, we feel fear. D. We feel fear, our hearts race, we see the monster. Answer: C 35. You are walking through a store when you run into a friend you have not seen in a long time and whom you miss very much. According to the James-Lange theory, what might happen? A. You experience physiological changes followed by a feeling of happiness. B. You feel happiness followed by physiological changes. C. You experience physiological changes and a feeling of happiness simultaneously. D. You experience physiological changes and context appraisal followed by a feeling of happiness. Answer: A 36. Which theory of emotion proposes that stimuli cause physiological changes in our bodies and emotions result from those physiological changes? A. Somatic marker theory B. James-Lange theory of emotion C. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion D. Two-factor theory of emotion Answer: B 37. Which statement is most consistent with the James-Lange theory of emotion? A. “I run because I’m afraid.” B. “I’m crying because I’m sad.” C. “I’m happy because I laugh.” D. “I’m anxious because I perspire.” Answer: C 38. Seeing a snake, running away from it, and then becoming frightened is the sequence of events postulated by the _______________. A. Somatic marker theory B. James-Lange theory of emotion C. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion D. Two-factor theory of emotion Answer: B 39. One of the problems associated with asthma is that once patients experience difficulty breathing, they often make their symptoms worse by concentrating on them and/or worrying about them. Consequently, many doctors include relaxation exercises as part of a treatment program to prevent patients from making their asthmatic reactions worse. This example of how our awareness of physiological changes can influence or even cause subsequent emotions is most supportive of which of the following theories of emotion? A. Somatic marker theory B. James-Lange theory of emotion C. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion D. Two-factor theory of emotion Answer: B 40. Both Hans and Gretchen have a job interview next week. Hans is looking forward to the opportunity the job could provide, and finds he is not stressed out about the interview, whereas Gretchen is extremely stressed and panicking about her interview because she desperately needs the job. What theory of emotion best explains the differences in feelings that Hans and Gretchen are experiencing? A. James-Lange theory B. Discrete emotions theory C. Two-factor theory D. Somatic marker theory Answer: C 41. Rose is hiking in the mountains and suddenly comes across the path of a cougar. She feels that her heart is pounding, her palms are sweating, and she begins to run. It is only after she senses the physiological reaction of her body that she realizes she has never been so scared in her life. Which of the following theories best explains Rose’s experience? A. James-Lange theory B. Cannon-Bard theory C. Two-factor theory D. Somatic marker theory Answer: A 42. Rose is hiking in the mountains and suddenly comes across the path of a cougar. She notices that she is running away and her heart is pounding at the same time that she realizes that she is terrified. Which of the following theories best explains Rose’s experience? A. James-Lange theory B. Cannon-Bard theory C. Two-factor theory D. Somatic marker theory Answer: B 43. Rose is hiking in the mountains, is consuming an energy drink, and experiencing an undifferentiated state of arousal. She sees a cougar off in the distance, and interprets her arousal as fear because she must be reacting to being afraid of a cougar attack. Which of the following theories best explains Rose’s experience? A. James-Lange theory B. Cannon-Bard theory C. Two-factor theory D. Somatic marker theory Answer: C 44. The study on the Capilano Suspension Bridge in Vancouver was conducted to examine which theory of emotion? A. James-Lange theory B. Cannon-Bard theory C. Two-factor theory D. Somatic marker theory Answer: C 45. According to the _______________, seeing a crocodile in the swamp would lead simultaneously to both the emotion fear and running away at the same time. However, the _______________ would suggest that people are afraid because they run away. A. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion; James-Lange theory of emotion B. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion; somatic marker theory of emotion C. two-factor theory of emotion; James-Lange theory of emotion D. two-factor theory of emotion; Cannon-Bard theory of emotion Answer: A 46. Which theory of emotion emphasizes the role of the thalamus? A. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion B. Somatic marker theory of emotion C. Two-factor theory of emotion; James-Lange theory of emotion D. James-Lange theory of emotion Answer: A 47. What is the correct sequence of events in emotional response according to the Cannon-Bard theory? A. Stimulus → emotion and physiological changes (simultaneous) B. Stimulus → emotion → physiological changes C. Emotion → stimulus → physiological changes D. Physiological changes → stimulus → emotion Answer: A 48. You are walking in the forest and see a bear. According to the Cannon-Bard theory, what happens next? A. You experience physiological changes followed by fear. B. You feel fear followed by physiological changes. C. You experience physiological changes and a feeling of fear simultaneously. D. You experience physiological changes and context appraisal followed by fear. Answer: C 49. The _______________ theory of emotion states that the experience of emotion occurs simultaneously with biological changes. A. Cannon-Bard theory B. James-Lange C. Plutchik’s D. Schachter and Singer’s Answer: A 50. Seeing a snake, and then simultaneously running away from it and becoming frightened, is the sequence of events postulated by _______________ theory. A. Cannon-Bard’s B. James-Lange’s C. Plutchik’s D. Schachter and Singer’s Answer: A 51. The frequent finding that asthmatics often experience shortness of breath concurrently with tremendous anxiety is an example of how emotions and physiological symptoms often occur simultaneously. As such, it supports which of the following theories of emotion? A. Cannon-Bard theory B. James-Lange C. Plutchik’s D. Schachter and Singer’s Answer: A 52. The two-factor theory of emotion suggests that A. emotions are produced by both autonomic arousal and cognition. B. emotions are based upon our gut feelings. C. emotions are from our interpretations of bodily reactions to stimuli. D. emotions and bodily reactions are simultaneously produced by stimuli. Answer: A 53. Lashley (1938) stated that the thalamus would have to be pretty sophisticated to make sense of all the possible emotions and relay them to the proper areas of the cortex and body. Which theory of emotion was Lashley criticizing? A. Cannon-Bard theory B. James-Lange C. Damasio’s D. Schachter and Singer’s Answer: A 54. _______________ proposed that two things have to happen before emotion occurs: physical arousal and labelling. A. Damasio B. The James-Lange theory C. The Cannon-Bard theory D. Schachter and Singer Answer: D 55. Schachter and Singer proposed that two things have to happen before emotion occurs: _______________ and _______________. A. physical arousal; fight or flight B. cognition; behaviour C. physical arousal; labelling D. behaviour; physical arousal Answer: C 56. Physical arousal has to be interpreted cognitively before it is experienced as a specific emotion, according to A. Damasio. B. the James-Lange theory. C. the Cannon-Bard theory. D. Schachter and Singer. Answer: D 57. Which two different terms best describe Schachter and Singer’s theory of emotion? A. Arousal and physiology B. Behaviour and genetics C. Arousal and context D. Nature and nurture Answer: C 58. You just finished a cup of very strong coffee, which causes your body to have a general feeling of arousal. That afternoon you walk past a cemetery where several people are crying at a graveside. According to Schachter and Singer, which of the following would most likely occur? A. You will feel afraid because you are near a cemetery. B. You will feel sad because people are crying. C. You will feel afraid, then sad. D. You will feel sad, then afraid. Answer: B 59. Geraldine is participating in a psychology experiment where she is asked to rate her current mood using a computer program. What she doesn’t know is that while she is completing the questionnaires, the researcher is presenting negative images subliminally (below the threshold for awareness). Which of the following outcomes is most likely in this example? A. Geraldine’s mood would change dramatically from negative to positive when viewing the stimuli. B. Geraldine would report that she was in a better mood following the stimuli exposure. C. Geraldine’s mood would not change as a function of stimuli exposure as she was not aware of it. D. Geraldine would report that she was in a more negative mood following exposure to the stimuli. Answer: D 60. Joanne has heard about a new treatment for her depression involving Botox injections to her face. She goes to a specialist to have the Botox injections, and notices that after about a week, her mood seems to have improved and she does not feel as depressed. This example is most consistent with which view of emotions? A. Somatic marker theory B. Facial feedback hypothesis C. Two-factor theory D. Discrete emotions theory Answer: B 61. If our behaviours and physiological reactions can give rise to our emotion changes, holding a pen with our teeth would most likely make us feel A. happier. B. sadder. C. more surprised. D. more scared. Answer: A 62. As suggested by the facial feedback hypothesis, our emotions are most likely to be affected by A. the face shape. B. the facial blood vessels. C. the external stimuli. D. our bodily movement. Answer: C 63. Which statement reflects the core idea of the facial feedback hypothesis? A. Men do not express emotion via the face. B. Facial features have no connection with emotion. C. Information from facial muscles intensifies emotional experiences. D. When one facial expression occurs, we quickly register its opposite on the face. Answer: C 64. Facial feedback hypothesis is defined as A. the process by which the facial muscles send messages to the brain about the basic emotion being expressed. B. a state of arousal involving facial and bodily changes, brain activation, cognitive appraisals, subjective feelings, and tendencies toward action, all of which are shaped by cultural rules. C. an irrational aspect of our mammalian heritage that no longer has an adaptive function in human behaviour. D. a set of social and cultural rules that regulates when, how, and where a person may express (or must suppress) emotions. Answer: A 65. The process by which the facial muscles send messages to the brain about the basic emotion being expressed is called A. primary emotional processing. B. internal emotion work. C. facial feedback. D. body language. Answer: C 66. According to the facial feedback hypothesis, when Noah complies with instructions to smile and look happy, it is most likely that A. he will begin to feel annoyed. B. he will begin to feel angry. C. his positive feelings will increase. D. his reaction will depend on his age. Answer: C 67. According to the facial feedback hypothesis, when José complies with instructions to look angry, it is most likely that A. he will be amused to be simulating anger. B. he will be pleased that he does it so well. C. his positive feelings will decrease. D. his reaction will depend on his age. Answer: C 68. Unconscious spillover of emotions into our gestures and tone of voice is called _______________. A. nonverbal leakage B. the facial feedback hypothesis C. somatic markers of emotion D. proxemics Answer: A 69. Paying attention to nonverbal behaviour is important because A. it provides more valid information about emotion, as nonverbal behaviour is not as easily disguised. B. our nonverbal behaviour determines what emotions we may be feeling. C. nonverbal actions are often inconsistent with verbal behaviour and are easily disguised. D. it often misleads us from correctly interpreting people’s verbal behaviour. Answer: A 70. June is in a business meeting and she is listening to a proposed change to the company’s operations that she does not agree with, but is trying to be diplomatic and will discuss the issue with her boss directly. However, she also does not realize that she is displaying a slight frown on her face throughout the meeting. June’s behaviour provides an example of A. gestures. B. an emblem. C. nonverbal leakage. D. proxemics. Answer: C 71. During the lecture, Dr. Brown moved his right hand forward while highlighting an important point. This gesture is one example of A. an illustrator. B. an emblem. C. nonverbal communication. D. a manipulator. Answer: A 72. People shake their legs when anxious. This is one example of A. an emblem. B. an illustrator. C. a manipulator. D. nonverbal communication. Answer: C 73. Fred has grown up in Ottawa, whereas Amir was raised in Pakistan and is a Muslim. They meet and become friends at University, where they are both doing their undergraduate degrees. In one class, Amir just finished a presentation and asked Fred how he thought it went. Fred gave Amir the “thumbs up” sign and Amir became offended. What is the most likely explanation for Amir’s behaviour? A. Amir is poor at interpreting nonverbal behaviour and requires an Emotional Social Intelligence Prosthesis. B. Emblems may differ across cultures, and “thumbs up” is not a sign of approval in Muslim countries. C. Fred used an inappropriate manipulator to convey his message, which sent a mixed message to Amir. D. Amir misinterpreted the proxemics of this particular situation, and thus interpreted the symbol incorrectly. Answer: B 74. Which of the following belong(s) to the nonverbal expression of emotion? A. Gesture B. Emoticon C. Facial expression D. All of the above Answer: D 75. Nodding the head during conversation is one example of A. a manipulator. B. an illustrator. C. nonverbal leakage. D. an emblem. Answer: D 76. Which of the following levels of personal space is incorrectly matched with the corresponding distance? A. Personal distance: 1.5 to 4 feet B. Public distance: 4 to 12 feet C. Intimate distance: 1.5 to 4 feet D. Social distance: 12 feet or more Answer: A 77. Ginnie is having a conversation with Dustin, and they are standing about 1.5 to 4 feet apart. Based on their proximity to each other, which of the following reflects the most likely relationship between the two individuals? A. They are romantic partners and are whispering to each other. B. They are strangers having a conversation about the weather. C. They are close friends talking about an upcoming group event. D. They are casual acquaintances discussing course material. Answer: C 78. Studies on proxemics have demonstrated that A. there exist four levels of personal space: public distance, social distance, personal distance, and intimate distance. B. social distance is typically for public lecturing. C. personal distance has a negative correlation with emotional distance. D. All of the above. Answer: A 79. Dustin usually keeps a distance of about 4 to 12 feet while having conversations with strangers. This is one example of A. intimate distance. B. personal distance. C. social distance. D. public distance. Answer: C 80. Studies have suggested that the personal space in many Middle Eastern countries is _______________ than in North America, and women, in general, tend to have a _______________ personal space than men. A. further; closer B. further; further C. closer; closer D. closer; further Answer: C 81. Which of the following cannot be used to detect lies? A. The polygraph test B. Shifty eyes C. The controlled question test D. The guilty knowledge test Answer: B 82. Research examining lie detection accuracy has reported that _______________ actually perform worse than other professional groups at detecting lies. A. clinical psychologists B. judges C. secret service agents D. police officers Answer: D 83. Which of the following is not one of the professional groups that have been found to be especially adept at lie detection? A. Secret service agents B. Mixed law enforcement officers C. Clinical psychologists that study deception D. Sheriffs Answer: B 84. Research has demonstrated that frequent lying in children appears to be somewhat persistent by _______________ years of age, and occurs concurrently with other disruptive behaviours. A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11 Answer: B 85. Rick is a juror in a criminal trial, and his fellow juror has just stated to the group that he is 100% confident that a suspected accomplice to a murder is lying about his involvement in the crime. Based on research about lie detection, Rick should conclude that A. the suspect must be lying if the other juror says so because confidence is positively correlated with deception detection accuracy. B. it is unclear as to whether the suspect is lying or not because there is little correlation between accuracy and confidence, and nonverbal behaviours are not foolproof signs of deception. C. the suspect is lying not because the other juror said so, but because his eye contact while testifying was “shifty” and he was fidgeting a lot. D. it is likely the suspect is lying not only because the other juror is confident in this, but because the suspect failed the polygraph or “lie detector” test. Answer: B 86. Which of following is the assumption that the polygraph test is based upon? A. Dishonest rules B. Shifty eyes C. Habitual response D. Pinocchio response Answer: D 87. Which of the following statements is false about the polygraph test? A. Federal officers, sheriffs, and deception-interested clinical psychologists are less likely to be caught by it. B. Experience may help people beat it. C. Confidence may help people beat it. D. Interpersonal perceptiveness may help people beat it. Answer: C 88. Which of the following is an example of a control question on the polygraph? A. Do you live in Regina, Saskatchewan? B. Did you kill Chris on the afternoon of August 27? C. Have you ever been to the scene of the crime? D. Have you ever lied before? Answer: D 89. Which of the following is the best example of a relevant question on the polygraph? A. Do you live in Regina, Saskatchewan? B. Did you kill Chris on the afternoon of August 27? C. Have you ever been to the scene of the crime? D. Have you ever lied before? Answer: B 90. If Chuck is trying to beat the polygraph, he should use _______________ to alter his responses to control questions. A. proxemics B. facial feedback C. countermeasures D. a truth serum Answer: C 91. One problem with the Guilty Knowledge Test is that individuals who have committed a crime may not have noticed or may have forgotten key aspects of a crime scene that are being examined in the GKT test. When this happens, this means that the test has a high _______________ rate. A. false-positive B. true-positive C. false-negative D. true-negative Answer: C 92. Lawrence has applied for a new job in an academic setting, and the employers request that Lawrence take a test to determine his level of honesty. He is asked questions about his history of cheating, attitudes towards cheating, and perceptions of others’ honesty. What type of test was most likely administered by the employers? A. An integrity test B. A guilty knowledge test C. A control question test D. Voice stress analysis Answer: A 93. The test that is based on the assumption that criminals usually conceal knowledge about the crime is known as A. the controlled question test. B. the integrity test. C. the polygraph test. D. the guilty knowledge test. Answer: D 94. Which of the following tests will most likely have a lower false-positive rate? A. The guilty knowledge test B. The controlled question test C. The polygraph test D. The integrity test Answer: A 95. The polygraph test yields a high rate of _______________. A. false positives B. false negatives C. true positives D. true negatives Answer: A 96. What can be said of memories that are elicited using truth serum? A. They are always false. B. They are always truthful. C. They are a mixture of truths and falsehoods. D. They are only imaginations. Answer: C 97. Recent research concerning brain scans and deception have found that A. fMRIs can distinguish truths from lies with very high accuracy. B. brain activations associated with lying may be similar or identical to those associated with thinking about lying. C. integrity tests are much better than brain scans at identifying liars. D. brain waves are more sensitive to truth detection than to lie detection. Answer: B 98. Julian and other new corrections recruits have been asked to write a test that assesses their tendency to steal, cheat, or be dishonest. Julian is taking what type of test? A. Voice stress analysis B. Integrity test C. Concealed information test D. Control question test Answer: B 99. Which of the following is true about positive psychology? A. It is associated with people's long-term life satisfaction. B. It emphasizes coping, love, and happiness. C. It enhances people's full emotional potential. D. All of the above Answer: D 100. Positive psychology can be thought of as A. shifting the focus of psychology from cognitive to Gestalt. B. shifting the focus from achievement to self-actualization. C. shifting the focus from negatives to more positives in psychology while focusing on strengths. D. shifting the focus from the abstract to the tangible. Answer: C 101. Dr. Lighthead works with her patients to draw from many of their strengths and successes in her therapy sessions. She often stresses the importance of achievements, strengths, and well-being while not dwelling on past issues of abuse, depression, and unmet goals. Based on the description of her work, Dr. Lighthead is likely to utilize A. structural psychology. B. optimist psychology. C. transient psychology. D. positive psychology. Answer: D 102. _______________ refers to the strategy of anticipating failure and then compensating for this expectation by mentally overpreparing for negative outcomes. A. Temperance B. Defensive pessimism C. Countermeasures D. False negatives Answer: B 103. Critics of positive psychology warn that seeing the world through rose-coloured glasses can be detrimental because A. it diminishes rates of depression and increases satisfaction. B. it helps people see feedback more accurately which conflicts with the way we delude ourselves to feel better. C. it can lead to a tendency to gloss over mistakes and prevent us from learning from our interpersonal errors. D. it can lead to lowered response to stressors which can lead to inaction and danger. Answer: C 104. Katarina has high exam anxiety, and thinks that she is going to bomb her political science midterm. As a result of her belief, she tries even harder to study for her midterm, spends longer preparing for it, and quizzes herself on the material many times prior to the exam. Katarina’s behaviour suggests that she is engaging in A. positive illusions. B. affective forecasting. C. defensive pessimism. D. the durability bias. Answer: C 105. The strategy of anticipating failure and then compensating for this expectation by _______________ negative outcomes is known as defensive pessimism. A. visualizing B. ignoring C. blocking any thought of D. mentally overpreparing for Answer: D 106. Which of the following statements about happiness is not true? A. Happiness may make people live longer. B. Happiness may make people focus on details. C. Happiness may let people think more openly. D. Happiness may help people look at the “big picture.” Answer: B 107. The broaden and build theory suggests that happier people tend to A. be more sociable. B. think more globally. C. be more successful. D. be more generous. Answer: B 108. Some scholars argue that happiness is adaptive because is predisposes us to think more openly and allows us to see the “big picture” that we might have otherwise overlooked. This idea stems from which of the following theories? A. Discrete emotions theory B. Broaden and build theory C. Proxemic interactions theory D. Two-factor theory Answer: B 109. Which of the following is a misconception concerning happiness? A. Happiness increases with age. B. Money makes us happy. C. People who live on the west coast are not happier than the rest of Canada. D. The prime determinant of happiness is not happier life events. Answer: B 110. Being a single mom, Lisa has to work two part-time jobs to pay the rent and buy the diapers. According to the research on happiness, which of the following ideas could most likely benefit her? A. As long as she can make more money, she will be happy. B. As long as she believes in the future, she will be happy. C. As long as she can keep the two jobs, she will be happy. D. As long as she makes more friends, she will be happy. Answer: B 111. According to the scientific research, which of the follow statements is true? A. If you are not happy, you must be worried about something. B. The reason why James is happy all the time is that he is still young. C. I cannot wait to move to Southern California! The people living in sunshine all year long look so happy. D. A little bit more money will just make my life easier if I don't have to worry about paying the rent every month. Answer: D 112. What is the positivity effect? A. If we engage in physiological signs of happiness (i.e., smiling), our sense of positivity, well-being, and mood will improve. B. Too much positivity in one’s life leads to insulation from experiencing any negative emotions. C. The tendency for individuals to remember more positive than negative information with age D. Positivity is linked to better health outcomes in children and young adults, but tends to decline in individuals aged 65 and older. Answer: C 113. In general, which of the following is the least related with happiness? A. Flow B. Marriage C. Money D. Political affiliation Answer: C 114. I feel happy when playing football with my friends because A. exercising helps me reduce stress. B. I feel so blessed when staying with my friends. C. I enjoy doing something I love. D. All of the above Answer: D 115. Studies on the durability bias suggest that people tend to _______________ the long-term impacts of events on our happiness and unhappiness. A. estimate at random B. underestimate C. estimate accurately D. overestimate Answer: D 116. The tendency for our moods to adapt to external circumstances is known as A. display rules. B. hedonic adaptation. C. treadmill exercise. D. locus of control. Answer: B 117. Joe received an email about getting a 50% payroll increase this year. He had been expecting this moment for eight months. Ironically, he went back to his normal life in just one day. Joe's reaction could best be explained by the A. positivity effect. B. broaden and build theory. C. hedonic treadmill. D. durability bias. Answer: C 118. Alisa is trying to choose what university to attend for her undergraduate degree in Social Work. She consults with many friends and family members, and they all agree with her assessment that she will be “happiest” at University relative to the other institutions she was considering. However, once she gets there she finds she is not happy at all and is finding her life and schooling to be full of unanticipated challenges. Which of the following concepts BEST represents why Alisa may have experienced this discrepancy? A. Durability bias B. Hedonic treadmill C. Positive illusions D. Affective forecasting Answer: D 119. Which of the following statements is not true about self-esteem? A. People with high self-esteem tend to challenge themselves with difficult tasks. B. People with low self-esteem tend to be more aggressive. C. People with low self-esteem tend to be less happy. D. People with high self-esteem tend to have positive illusions about themselves. Answer: B 120. Jason has high self-esteem and considers himself to be very attractive, intelligent, and athletic. Danielle has low self-esteem and does not see herself as overly attractive, intelligent, or athletic. Interestingly, when both Jason and Danielle are tested on each of these characteristics through objective measures, they do not score differently across the characteristics. The MOST likely explanation for this outcome is that self-esteem is related to A. positive illusions. B. the durability bias. C. the hedonic treadmill. D. affective forecasting. Answer: A 121. High self-esteem, in addition to high levels of narcissism, is more related to increased _______________ than low self-esteem is. A. aggression B. positivity C. hedonism D. depression Answer: A 122. _______________ refers to the drives—especially wants and needs—that propel us in specific directions. A. Homeostasis B. Incentives C. Motivation D. Self-esteem Answer: C 123. Which of the following statements is not true about the drive reduction theory? A. It helps people know when it is time to get a glass of water. B. Drives such as hunger, thirst, and sexual frustration can help minimize our aversive states. C. It proposes that the stimulus affects the organism and the resulting response depending upon characteristics of both the organism and the stimulus. D. Certain drives can help us adjust our levels of psychological homeostasis in the way we want. Answer: D 124. The state of tension created by biological needs is called a(n) _______________. A. impulse B. instinct C. emotion D. drive Answer: D 125. _______________ is a state of tension resulting from the deprivation of physical needs, such as those for food and water. A. Instinct B. Motivation C. A value D. A drive Answer: D 126. The _______________ approach to motivation suggests a connection between internal physical states and outward behaviour. A. arousal B. achievement C. incentive D. drive-reduction Answer: D 127. According to drive-reduction theory, what occurs each time a behaviour results in drive reduction? A. Tension is increased. B. Stability is reduced. C. Tension is reduced. D. Drives are increased. Answer: C 128. The tendency of the body to maintain a steady state of functioning is called A. stability. B. equilibrium. C. physiological balance. D. homeostasis. Answer: D 129. Homeostasis is most like which of the following? A. A car B. A thermometer C. A cooler D. A thermostat Answer: D 130. Drives serve to activate responses that are aimed at reducing the drive, thereby returning the body to a more normal state called A. stability. B. equilibrium. C. physiological balance. D. homeostasis. Answer: D 131. Which of the following activities is inconsistent with drive-reduction theory? A. Eating food that tastes bad B. Going swimming on a hot day C. Eating when you are not hungry D. Smoking pot to relax Answer: C 132. The theory stating that behaviours are motivated by an organism’s attempts to reduce tension from conditions such as hunger or thirst and return the body to a state of balance is called _______________ theory. A. disequilibrium B. needs C. homeostatic D. drive-reduction Answer: D 133. Some psychologists believe that an organism’s behaviour is motivated by the need to achieve a state of balance in which the body functions effectively—a state called A. unbalance. B. acquiescence. C. propinquity. D. homeostasis. Answer: D 134. A famed psychologist claims that motivated behaviours result from an effort to reduce tension caused by bodily needs such as hunger or thirst. This psychologist’s philosophy most closely matches _______________ theory. A. reciprocity B. homeostatic C. needs D. drive-reduction Answer: D 135. Which of the following behaviours is not an example of drive-reduction theory? A. Getting some food when you are hungry B. Going to sleep when you are tired C. Getting something to drink when you are thirsty D. Going jogging when you are bored Answer: D 136. Four psychology students, who have all attended equal numbers of classes and studied the same amount of time, are all about to take their final exam. According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, which student would perform the best? A. Chloe, who doesn’t really care at all about the test and is not worried about it at all. B. Ryan, who is relatively calm, cool, and collected and not very nervous about the test. C. Sampson, who is confident about the test but still moderately stressed out about it. D. Megan, who has very high test anxiety that “keeps her on her toes”. Answer: C 137. The Yerkes-Dodson law describes an inverted U-shaped relationship between _______________ and _______________. A. intelligence; motivation B. intelligence; performance C. arousal; intelligence D. arousal; performance Answer: D 138. In arousal theory, people are said to have a(n) _______________ level of tension. A. ultimate B. lower C. high D. optimal Answer: D 139. Which of the following examples best represents the Yerkes-Dodson Law? A. Bill has a bad test score because he did not study. B. Dan plays his best games when they mean the most to the team and his arousal is moderately high. C. Mary buys a new car. D. Toni watches TV all night. Answer: B 140. The Yerkes-Dodson Law says A. performance is affected by levels of physical arousal. B. the more money you make the better your job will be. C. nausea from bad food causes a reluctance to eat that food again. D. performance on tests is better in the morning. Answer: A 141. Which of the following factors is most likely to have an effect on predictions made by the Yerkes-Dodson Law? A. Task instructions B. Gender of person doing the task C. Age of person doing the task D. Difficulty of task Answer: D 142. Lester has high test anxiety, which tends to affect his test performance even though he studies a lot. According to the Yerkes-Dodson Law, which of the following activities will help Lester improve his performance? A. Study harder B. Use relaxation exercises before each test C. Study less since his performance won’t be that good anyway D. Get a tutor Answer: B 143. Studies on the Yerkes-Dodson law suggest that people are more likely to perform the best when we are experiencing A. an extremely difficult task. B. stimulus hunger. C. stimulus overload. D. a simpler task. Answer: B 144. Daniel works hard this semester because he needs to pass all the courses to graduate in time. This is one example of A. avoidance. B. extrinsic motivation. C. approach. D. intrinsic motivation. Answer: B 145. Primary drives are caused by A. exceptions to the drive-reduction principle. B. stimuli within the body. C. stimuli outside the body. D. learned behaviours. Answer: B 146. Primary drives are A. learned. B. unlearned. C. produced by external incentives. D. exceptions to the drive-reduction principle. Answer: B 147. Thirst, sexual desire, and hunger are examples of _______________ drives. A. reduction B. primary C. secondary D. internalized Answer: B 148. Drives that are most strongly influenced by stimuli within the body are called _______________ drives. A. primary B. tertiary C. secondary D. learned Answer: A 149. Physiologically based drives that are unlearned are called _______________ drives. A. primary B. tertiary C. secondary D. learned Answer: A 150. Drives that are learned through experience are called _______________ drives. A. primary B. tertiary C. secondary D. learned Answer: C 151. Monica put all her time and energy into getting into the acting club because her main goal in life “was to be a famous star!” Monica’s drive to be famous was a _______________ drive. A. primary B. tertiary C. secondary D. learned Answer: C 152. Which of the following is not a secondary drive? A. A drive for great wealth B. A drive to be successful in school C. A need to eat when hungry D. A drive for high levels of achievement Answer: B 153. Studies suggest that people are more likely to be immersed in a task and enjoy it the best when A. they are told they will receive $100 after finishing the task. B. they are told they will receive a certificate after finishing the task. C. they are told they will not be offered anything after completing the task. D. they are told they will be given $10 after getting the task done. Answer: C 154. The fact that we always expect rewards for performing a task can best be explained by A. contrast effect. B. approach. C. intrinsic motivation. D. positive motivation. Answer: A 155. Claire is at her friend’s party and sees a guy across the room that she finds attractive. She wants to go over and talk to him, but she also is hesitant because she doesn’t want to face being rejected. Claire’s situation provides an example of a(n) _______________ conflict. A. approach-approach B. avoidance-avoidance C. approach-avoidance D. double approach-avoidance Answer: C 156. Cynthia is overwhelmed with the amount of work she has to do. She also has a meeting to go to that she really does not have time for. She is considering skipping the meeting, but it is to spend more time doing work she wishes she did not have to do. Cynthia’s situation provides an example of a(n) _______________ conflict. A. approach-approach B. avoidance-avoidance C. approach-avoidance D. double approach-avoidance Answer: B 157. Kristine is motivated to learn to cook some new recipes because she really wants to master the art of playing with flavours and tastes. Desmond wants to learn some new recipes so that he can cook a good meal and impress his girlfriend. In this example, Kristine is _______________ motivated and Desmond is _______________ motivated. A. extrinsically; extrinsically B. extrinsically; intrinsically C. intrinsically; extrinsically D. intrinsically; intrinsically Answer: C 158. Marlena loves to paint canvases and creates art for her own enjoyment. A colleague mentions her art to a gallery, who begin to sell her work. Initially, getting paid for her paintings is nice, but over time she finds her creative desires decrease and she doesn’t enjoy painting as much anymore. Which of the following concepts best explains Marlena’s situation? A. Drive reduction theory B. The contrast effect C. The durability bias D. Need for achievement Answer: B 159. Which of the following is a secondary need? A. Hunger B. Shelter C. Love D. Thirst Answer: C 160. According to Maslow, _______________ are the most fundamental and must get satisfied first. A. safety needs B. belonging needs C. physiological needs D. esteem needs Answer: C 161. Which level of Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy is epitomized by the U.S. Army’s slogan “Be all that you can be”? A. Safety B. Self-esteem C. Belongingness D. Self-actualization Answer: D 162. According to Abraham Maslow, developing one’s potential to its fullest extent results in A. safety needs. B. belonging needs. C. self-actualization. D. esteem needs. Answer: C 163. According to Maslow, the motive of self-actualization makes one want A. to convince others of one’s true worth. B. to possess as many material goods as possible. C. to fulfill one’s inborn potential. D. to have frequent contact with others. Answer: C 164. Bill has felt isolated and an “outsider” since coming to college for his freshman year. As a result, he decided to rush a fraternity and was very excited when he was selected to pledge. According to Maslow, Bill may be attempting to meet the need of A. safety. B. belonging. C. physiology. D. esteem. Answer: B 165. Jenna skipped dinner last night to stay up late studying for her final exam. She went to bed at 6 a.m. and had to be at class by 8 a.m. Her alarm clock did not go off as scheduled, and she raced out the door without eating. As a result, she was very distracted by hunger pangs and lack of energy while taking the test. She later learned that she failed her exam. Jenna could have likely performed better on her final if she had met her _______________ before the final. A. safety needs B. belonging needs C. physiological needs D. esteem needs Answer: C 166. According to Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy, which needs must be met first? A. Safety needs B. Belonging needs C. Physiological needs D. Esteem needs Answer: C 167. Which of these is the correct sequence of Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs from the lowest to the highest? A. Safety, self-actualization, belongingness/love, esteem, physiological B. Safety, physiological, esteem, belongingness/love, self-actualization C. Physiological, safety, belongingness/love, esteem, self-actualization D. Esteem, safety, self-actualization, belongingness/love, physiological Answer: C 168. Which of the following shows a focus on the lowest of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs? A. Joan wants to live in a house with all the modern conveniences so that she may have more time to seek fulfillment from her career and family. B. Frank feels that he is a good salesman because he likes what he does and knows how to do it well. C. Barbara knows that as a teacher she is a good person because she realizes the importance of imparting knowledge to society. D. Mark works hard as a lawyer only so that he can attract more clients, more money, and be secure in the knowledge that his family can survive. Answer: D 169. The fact that people living in poverty are less likely to pursue their dreams can best be explained by the A. intrinsic motivation theory. B. hierarchy of needs theory. C. incentive motivation theory. D. extrinsic motivation theory. Answer: B 170. Which of the following statements about hunger and eating is false? A. The brain is more influential than the stomach in controlling food cravings. B. Stomach contractions, that occur when our stomachs are empty, cause hunger. C. The lateral portion of the hypothalamus plays a key role in initiating eating. D. The ventromedial hypothalamus is important in sending signals of when to stop eating. Answer: B 171. _______________ increases hunger whereas _______________ decreases hunger. A. Ghrelin; cholecystokinin B. Glucose; ghrelin C. Cholecystokinin; ghrelin D. Glucose; cholecystokinin Answer: A 172. Pretend that you are a researcher studying eating behaviour in rats. If you lesioned the ventromedial hypothalamus in your rats, what is the most likely outcome on their behaviour? A. The rats would eat very little or stop eating entirely. B. The rats would have very little craving to eat and would have to be force fed. C. The rats would continuously feed even though they got “full” quickly. D. The rats would eat until they nearly burst as they didn’t know when to stop eating. Answer: D 173. _______________ signals the hypothalamus and brain stem to reduce appetite and increase the amount of energy used. A. Glucose B. Cholecystokinin C. Leptin D. Ghrelin Answer: C 174. Yvonna has noticed that every spring and summer she tends to lose around 5-10 pounds and every winter she gains around 5-10 points. That being said, it doesn’t seem to matter what she does, she always manages to stay around the same weight other than these fluctuations. In this example, which of the following concepts offers the best explanation? A. Glucostatic theory B. Leptin deficiency C. Internal-external theory D. Set point Answer: D 175. After dinner, Sophia started to read a cookbook that is full of colourful pictures of desserts. She decided to make a cake. After the cake was ready she felt hungry again so she ate the whole cake! This phenomenon can best be explained by A. an eating disorder. B. the glucostatic theory. C. the internal-external theory. D. the genetic reason. Answer: C 176. What part of the brain is primarily involved in hunger, eating, and satiety? A. Hippocampus B. Hypothalamus C. Thalamus D. Cerebellum Answer: B 177. According to the _______________ theory, we achieve homeostasis when hunger creates a drive to eat and restore proper levels of glucose in our blood. A. set point B. contrast effect C. incentive D. glucostatic Answer: D 178. Spencer is a young boy who always seems to be hungry independent of what he eats, and although he gets lots of exercise, he is considered to be obese. According to results from studies in mice, it is likely he is lacking the gene for _______________ which aids in reducing appetite. A. leptin B. ghrelin C. cholecystokinin (CCK) D. glucose Answer: A 179. A mutation in a major _______________ receptor gene is responsible for about 6 percent of cases of severe obesity. A. Leptin B. Ghrelin C. Cholecystokinin (CCK) D. Melanocortin-4 Answer: D 180. Raphael loves to watch cooking shows on the Food Network. The shows make him feel hungry all the time, and he finds that he is eating more often and has gained weight. Which theory best explains Raphael’s situation? A. Glucostatic theory B. Homeostasis theory C. Internal-external theory D. Ventromedial theory Answer: C 181. People with bulimia are least likely to A. overeat. B. eat excessive amounts of food. C. lose weight. D. binge and purge in a cycle. Answer: C 182. Which of the following is least likely to be a symptom of anorexia? A. Hair loss B. Electrolyte imbalances C. Overweight D. Heart problem Answer: C 183. People who are attempting to become extremely thin by refusing to eat suffer from A. bulimia nervosa. B. obesity phobia. C. anorexia nervosa. D. dissociation. Answer: C 184. Which individual has the highest risk for developing anorexia nervosa? A. A lower-class 26-year-old European man B. An upper-class 16-year-old North American boy C. An upper-class 16-year-old North American girl D. A lower-class 26-year-old European woman Answer: C 185. Each of the following is a symptom of anorexia nervosa except A. an intense fear of becoming obese, which does not diminish as weight loss progresses. B. a disturbance of body image, such as “feeling fat” even when emaciated. C. recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by purging of the foods just eaten. D. the refusal to maintain body weight at or above a minimal normal weight for height and age. Answer: C 186. Jenny has an intense interest in food but eats sparingly and with disgust. She has an intense fear of becoming obese, and even though she looks emaciated, she still claims she “feels fat” and refuses to eat enough to maintain even a minimal normal body weight for her frame. She is most likely suffering from A. anorexia nervosa. B. hormone under secretion. C. bulimia. D. leptin reduction. Answer: A 187. Each of the following is true of people with anorexia nervosa except A. they have an intense interest in food but eat with disgust. B. they have a distorted view of their own body. C. they may have had a troubled childhood and adolescence. D. they are usually “out of control.” Answer: D 188. An eating disorder characterized by eating binges followed by self-induced vomiting is called A. anorexia nervosa. B. hormone under-secretion. C. bulimia. D. leptin reduction. Answer: C 189. Each of the following is a symptom of bulimia except A. recurrent episodes of binge eating. B. refusal to maintain body weight at or above minimal normal weight for age and height. C. recurrent inappropriate behaviours, such as self-induced vomiting, to try and prevent weight gain. D. body shape and weight excessively influencing the person’s self-image. Answer: B 190. Which of the following statements about bulimia is false? A. Bulimics have a distorted view of how much food is too much food. B. Bulimia is not as damaging as anorexia nervosa. C. Binge eating and vomiting are common symptoms. D. Bulimics have a distorted body image. Answer: B 191. Researchers estimate that the mortality rate for anorexia nervosa is roughly: A. 1% to 5% B. 5% to 10% C. 10% to 15% D. 15% to 20% Answer: B 192. The term used to indicate people's wish or craving for sexual activity is A. appeal. B. urge. C. libido. D. appetite. Answer: C 193. The level of sexual desire may be affected by A. depression. B. a migraine. C. the neurotransmitter serotonin. D. all of the above. Answer: D 194. Recent research has reported that _______________ is correlated with sexual desire and arousal, linking to the fact that it is also associated with our sense of reward and pleasure. A. serotonin B. testosterone C. estrogen D. dopamine Answer: D 195. Which of the following statements is true about sexual desire? A. Men experience more sexual arousal than women. B. People with migraines tend to have a lower level of sexual desire. C. Men have a much stronger desire for sex than women. D. Men usually have more sexual partners than women. Answer: A 196. The phase in which people experience sexual pleasure and notice physiological changes associated with it is called A. orgasm phase. B. excitement phase. C. resolution phase. D. desire phase. Answer: B 197. The frequency of sexual activity for a couple may decrease if A. they get older. B. they stay in a longer relationship. C. they are in poor health. D. All of the above Answer: D 198. An individual from which culture will place a greater value on chastity in a potential partner? A. France B. Sweden C. India D. Germany Answer: C 199. Which of the statements is true about homosexuality? A. Homosexual people can be good parents. B. Homosexual people need to be changed to fit the society. C. Most homosexual people fall within either a masculine or feminine role. D. Homosexuality needs to be treated. Answer: A 200. Which of the following statements is not true about homosexuality? A. The ratio of the index figure and the ring figure has been associated with homosexuality. B. Homosexuality is subject to social and environmental influences. C. Homosexual people are more likely to be right-handed. D. Genes play an important role in homosexuality. Answer: C 201. The concordance rate for homosexuality among identical twins is _______________ percent. A. 22 B. 37 C. 52 D. 64 Answer: C 202. Brain imaging studies on sexuality have demonstrated that the _______________ is (are) activated when gay men smell the substance from male sweat. A. hypothalamus B. thalamus C. corpus callosums D. lateral ventricles Answer: A 203. What area of the brain is said to be larger in homosexual than in heterosexual men? A. hypothalamus B. thalamus C. corpus callosum D. Hippocampus Answer: C 204. For no reason, Matthew Anderson started to pay special attention to a girl named Madison Adams (seated alphabetically right next to him) from the first day of school. This is one example of the _______________ principle of attraction and relationship formation. A. proximity B. serendipity C. similarity D. reciprocity Answer: A 205. Hanging out with friends with the same hobbies can best be explained by the _______________ principle of relationship formation. A. serendipity B. similarity C. proximity D. reciprocity Answer: B 206. Among the major principles guiding attraction and relationship formation, _______________ plays a more important role when a relationship moves to deeper levels. A. similarity B. serendipity C. proximity D. reciprocity Answer: D 207. Which of the following statements about reciprocity is true? A. Maintaining equity in a relationship is crucial for a relationship to move to deeper levels. B. Reciprocity is not a learned practice. C. Absolute reciprocity is necessary for deeper relationships. D. Significantly different reciprocities are evident across cultures. Answer: A 208. For college students, which of the following variables could best predict their relationship formations? A. Physical appearance B. Hometown C. Dorm location D. All of the above Answer: D 209. According to an evolutionary model of attraction, which of the following individuals would be most attractive to a 31-year old female? A. A 25-year old entrepreneur B. A 31-year old mechanic C. A 35-year old car salesman D. A 39-year old lawyer Answer: D 210. Scientific research has suggested that _______________ seems to be the most important criterion to judge female attractiveness in the eye of men. A. body height B. body size C. waist-to-hip ratio D. body weight Answer: C 211. The standards for women's attractiveness are subject to A. gender difference. B. cultural difference. C. temporal changes. D. all of the above. Answer: D 212. In general, which of the following facial characteristics will not be considered cute? A. A round nose B. A large head C. Large eyes D. A large nose Answer: D 213. According to findings by Judith Langlois and Lori Roggman (1990), which face would be rated as highest in attractiveness? A. A distinctive face B. An unusual face C. An exotic face D. An average face Answer: D 214. Jane and Joe have been dating for three months. Jane likes to be around Joe but can’t feel any overwhelming emotions. This is one example of _______________ love. A. Hollywood B. passionate C. companionate D. empty Answer: C 215. Linda and Joseph have been crazy about each other since they met three months ago. They want to spend the rest of their lives with each other. According to the triangular theory of love proposed by Sternberg, their relationship can best be described as a _______________ love. A. fatuous B. romantic C. infatuation D. companionate Answer: A 216. According to the triangular theory of love proposed by Sternberg, _______________ love is the ultimate love. A. consummate B. fatuous C. companionate D. romantic Answer: A 217. Which of the following is not an element of hate in Sternberg's theory? A. Commitment B. Passion C. Negation of intimacy D. Intimacy Answer: D 218. According to Paul Bloom (2004), which primary emotion has evolved and forms the root of hatred? A. Contempt B. Fear C. Anger D. Disgust Answer: D Critical Thinking Questions 1. After a severe car accident, Adam was hurt badly and couldn't move his facial muscles. What could be the result of lacking the physiological ability to smile? Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following information for full credit. • Facial feedback hypothesis proposes that changes in the blood vessels in the face feedback temperature information in the brain, altering our experience of emotions. The people without a smile in the face could have a different emotional state, which is less happy, than those with a smile. In Adam's case, lacking the physiological ability to smile might affect his mood, at least in the short term. • Happiness makes people live longer, predisposes people to think more openly, allows people to see the “big picture.” Life will be easier for optimists than for pessimists. Thus, people with less happiness might have a shorter life and think more locally, paying too much attention to details. Lacking the physiological ability to smile due to facial muscle paralysis after a severe car accident can impact Adam's emotional expression and social interactions. Smiling is a universal nonverbal cue associated with happiness and approachability. Without this ability, Adam may struggle to convey positive emotions effectively, potentially affecting his relationships and social interactions. 2. Discuss the fallacies and realities about self-esteem. Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following information for full credit. FALLACIES: • Low self-esteem is not the root of all unhappiness, because self-esteem may not be the only variable causing unhappiness. Additionally, a third variable might lead to both low self-esteem and unhappiness. • The evidence linking self-esteem to mental health and life success is feeble. People with high-esteem aren't much more likely than people with low self- esteem to have good social skills or to do well in school. • People with low self-esteem are not the only group who are prone to be aggressive. People with high self-esteem are also prone to aggression when confronted with ego threats. REALITIES: • High self-esteem is associated with greater initiative and persistence, a willingness to attempt new challenges and to stick with them even when the going gets rough. • High self-esteem is associated with happiness and resilience in the face of stress. • Self-esteem is related to positive illusion; that is, people with high self-esteem tend to perceive themselves more positively than others do. Fallacies about self-esteem include the belief that high self-esteem always leads to success and happiness, or that it cannot be too high. In reality, self-esteem is nuanced; overly inflated self-esteem can lead to narcissism or disregard for others' feelings. Healthy self-esteem involves realistic self-assessment, resilience, and a balanced view of one's capabilities and worth. 3. What research findings on sexuality do you think should inform public opinion and policies about homosexuality? Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following information for full credit • Recent research with large representative samples demonstrates that about 2.8% of males and 1.4% of females 18 or older identify themselves as gay, lesbian, and bisexual. • Research has demonstrated that widely varying amounts of homosexual experience could be identified. Gays/lesbians could experience different degrees of homosexual experience. While some are exclusively gay/lesbian, some might experience only a single homosexual contact in early adolescence. Those who engage in occasional homosexual activities don't view themselves as gays. • Research has suggested that not all of gays/lesbians adopt either a masculine role or a feminine role. • Scientific evidence supports the opinion that gay and heterosexual adults don't differ in their approach to parenting and they are equally likely to provide supportive environments for their children. • There are both genetic and environmental reasons for sexual orientation. Studies on twins demonstrated that the concordance rate in identical twins is much higher than in fraternal twins. Studies on fingers and hands have suggested that, on average, lesbian women have a more masculine (larger) ratio of the length of the index finger to the ring finger. Studies also have suggested that male homosexuals are more likely than heterosexuals to be left-handed, and lesbians are more likely to be left-handed than heterosexual women. There should be genetic reasons for sexual orientation. • Studies also have suggested that childhood gender nonconformity plays a pivotal role in the development of homosexuality. • Brain imaging studies have revealed that gay men's brains respond like women's when they smelled the substance derived from male sweat, showing the hypothalamus is related to sexual orientation. This line of research has demonstrated that there are brain differences between homosexual and non homosexual populations. Research findings indicating that sexual orientation, including homosexuality, is a natural variation among individuals should inform public opinion and policies. Studies demonstrating that sexual orientation is not a choice but rather influenced by biological, genetic, and environmental factors highlight the need for policies that protect LGBTQ+ rights and promote inclusivity and equality in society. Essay Questions 1. Describe two major cognitive theories of emotion and demonstrate their theoretical differences. Answer: Answers will vary but should include any two of the following cues for full credit. • The James-Lange theory of emotion proposes that emotions result from our interpretations of our bodily reactions to stimuli. People experience an emotion because they observe their physiological and behavioural reactions to a stimulus. • The Somatic marker theory of emotion proposes that people use their “gut reactions,” their autonomic response, to gauge how they should act. It has been contended that this process occurs almost instantaneously, so people are not aware of it. • The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion proposes that an emotion-provoking event leads simultaneously to both an emotion and bodily reactions. • The two-factor theory of emotion proposes that emotions are produced by two consecutive events: (1) people experience an undifferentiated state of autonomic arousal after encountering an emotion-provoking event; and 2) people label the arousal with an emotion to explain the cause of it. The explanations people attach to their arousal are emotions. Two major cognitive theories of emotion are the James-Lange theory and the Cannon-Bard theory. The James-Lange theory proposes that emotions arise from physiological responses to stimuli, suggesting that we feel emotions after perceiving bodily changes. In contrast, the Cannon-Bard theory suggests that emotions and physiological responses occur simultaneously, with the thalamus playing a central role in both emotional experience and bodily responses. 2. What is the facial feedback hypothesis? Describe how you would design an experiment to test this. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. According to the facial feedback hypothesis, you’re likely to feel emotions that correspond to your facial features—first happy, and then sad or angry (Adelmann & Zajonc, 1989; Niedenthal, 2007; Zajonc, Murphy, & Inglehart, 1989). This hypothesis originated with none other than Charles Darwin (1872), although Robert Zajonc revived it in the 1980s. Zajonc went beyond Darwin by proposing that changes in the blood vessels of the face “feed back” temperature information to the brain, altering our emotions in predictable ways. Like James and Lange, Zajonc argued that our emotions typically arise from our behaviours and physiological reactions. But unlike James and Lange, Zajonc viewed this process as purely biochemical and noncognitive, that is, as involving no thinking. Moreover, according to Zajonc, it operates outside of our awareness. There’s scientific support for the facial feedback hypothesis. In one study, researchers asked subjects to rate how funny they found various cartoons (Strack, Martin, & Stepper, 1988). They randomly assigned some subjects to watch cartoons while holding a pen with their teeth, and others to watch cartoons while holding a pen with their lips. If you have a pen around, try doing both. You’ll discover that when you hold a pen with your teeth, you tend to smile; when you hold a pen with your lips, you tend to frown. Sure enough, the investigators found that subjects who held a pen with their teeth rated the cartoons as funnier than did other subjects. The facial feedback hypothesis suggests that facial expressions can influence emotional experiences. To test this, researchers could design an experiment where participants hold a pen in their mouth, either horizontally (to mimic a smile) or vertically (to inhibit a smile), while viewing emotionally evocative images. They would then measure participants' self-reported emotions and physiological responses to determine if facial expressions affect emotional experiences. 3. Describe the levels of personal space and provide an example for each level. Answer: Answers will vary but a full credit answer should include at least three of the four levels listed below with a descriptive example for each. • Even though the separations between the levels of personal space are not clear- cut, four levels have been commonly recognized in our social life as follows: • Public distance is typically used for public speaking, such as lecturing. It keeps a distance of at least 3 metres or more. Also needs to discuss specifically how this would be used. • Social distance is typically used for conversations among strangers and casual acquaintances. It keeps a distance of 1.25–3 metres. Also needs to discuss specifically how this would be used. • Personal distance is typically used for conversations among close friends or romantic partners. It keeps a distance of 0.5–1.25 metres. Also needs to discuss specifically how this would be used. • Intimate distance is typically used for kissing, hugging, whispering, and affectionate touching. It keeps a distance of 0–0.5 metres. Also needs to discuss specifically how this would be used. The levels of personal space include intimate distance (0-18 inches), where close relationships and physical contact are acceptable, such as hugging a loved one; personal distance (18 inches to 4 feet), where interactions with friends and acquaintances occur, like standing in line at a store; social distance (4-12 feet), suitable for formal interactions, like conversations in a workplace; and public distance (12 feet and beyond), typical for public speaking engagements or performances, where minimal interaction occurs. 4. Identify at least five variables that are correlated with happiness and briefly explain how they are important to happiness. Answer: Answers will vary but a full credit answer should include at least five of the cues listed below with an explanation for each. • Marriage: Married people tend to be happier than unmarried people. • Friendship: People with many friends tend to be happier than people with few friends. • College: People who graduate from college tend to happier than people who don't. • Religion: People who are deeply religious tend to be happier than people who aren't. • Political affiliation: Conservatives tend to be happier than liberals, both of who tend to be happier than independents. • Exercise: People who exercise regularly tend to be happier and less depressed than people who don't. • Gratitude: Short-term happiness can be enhanced if people feel grateful about their lives, having good friends, intimate romantic partners, and fulfilling jobs. • Giving: Spending money on others produces greater happiness than spending it one oneself. • Flow: People feel happier when they are completely immersed in what they are doing, such as writing, reading, performing manual labour, playing sports, performing music, and creating art works. Five variables correlated with happiness include social relationships, as they provide emotional support and companionship; physical health, which contributes to overall well-being and reduces stress; financial stability, affording access to resources and opportunities; sense of purpose or meaning in life, fostering fulfillment and satisfaction; and leisure activities, offering enjoyment and relaxation, enhancing overall happiness and life satisfaction. 5. Suppose your older sister Amanda was diagnosed with bulimia by the doctor. Your mom is very worried about her situation. Write your mom a short letter explaining what bulimia is, including the symptoms, possible cause, and possible outcomes. Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following information for full credit. • Individuals with bulimia engage in recurrent binge eating, followed by effort to minimise weight gains through purging. Bingeing and purging set up a vicious cycle. • People who try to lose a lot of weight over a short period of time are prone to binge eating. During a binge, some people could gorge themselves with food equalling more than 10 000 calories in a 2-hour period. • After a binge, they feel guilt and anxiety over the loss of control and the prospect of gaining weight. Frequently, they will purge, which typically takes the form of self- induced vomiting. • Purging is reinforcing because it relieves anxious feelings after overeating and sidesteps weight gain, but it would set the stage for bouts of overeating. • Bulimics often see themselves as fat when they are of normal weight. This is in part caused by societal pressures to be thin. • As eating spirals out of control, bulimics' self-esteem plummets, increasing their concerns about dieting and the likelihood of a binge. This completes the self- destructive circle. • Bulimia could be physically hazardous, resulting in heart problems, tears to the esophagus, and erosion of tooth enamel. Bulimia is an eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors like vomiting, excessive exercise, or fasting. It can be caused by genetic, psychological, and sociocultural factors. Possible outcomes include electrolyte imbalances, dental issues, and serious medical complications if left untreated. 6. Compare and contrast drive theories of motivation with incentive theories of motivation. Also describe the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation and use an example to illustrate. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. Drive reduction theory: Certain drives, like hunger, thirst, and sexual frustration, motivate us to act to minimise aversive states (Dollard & Miller, 1950). Note that all of these drives are unpleasant, but that satisfaction of them is pleasurable. Some drives are more powerful than others. Thirst is more potent than hunger, and for good reason. Natural selection has probably ensured that our drive to quench our thirst is stronger than our drive to sate our hunger because most of us can survive only a few days without water but over a month without food. Most drive reduction theories propose that we’re motivated to maintain a given level of psychological homeostasis, that is, equilibrium. Incentive theories propose that we’re often motivated by positive goals, like the pleasure of creating a great painting or the glory of finishing first in a track meet. Many of these theories, in turn, distinguish intrinsic motivation, in which people are motivated by internal goals, from extrinsic motivation, in which people are motivated by external goals. If we’re intrinsically motivated to do well in a psychology class, we’re driven primarily by our desire to master the material; if we’re extrinsically motivated to do well in this class, we’re driven primarily by our desire to get a good grade. Drive theories of motivation propose that behaviors are driven by biological needs, such as hunger or thirst, which create internal drives pushing individuals to satisfy these needs (e.g., eating when hungry). In contrast, incentive theories emphasize external stimuli or rewards that motivate behavior, suggesting that individuals are motivated to seek rewards or avoid punishments (e.g., studying hard for good grades). Intrinsic motivation involves engaging in a behavior for its own sake, driven by internal satisfaction or enjoyment (e.g., playing a musical instrument for the pleasure of creating music). Extrinsic motivation, on the other hand, involves performing a behavior to obtain external rewards or avoid punishment (e.g., studying to earn praise or avoid failing a class). For example, a student may study because they genuinely enjoy learning and find satisfaction in understanding new concepts (intrinsic motivation), while another student may study primarily to receive a high grade and approval from parents or teachers (extrinsic motivation). 7. Discuss the genetic and environmental influences on sexual orientation, including a discussion of the role of sex hormones and brain differences in sexual orientation. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain a representation of the following points for full credit. Genetic and Environmental Influences on Sexual Orientation. Bearing in mind the caveat that heritability doesn’t imply that a characteristic can’t be changed (Chapter 3), most scientists are skeptical about the ability of gay individuals to change their sexual orientation because there are indications of inborn differences between homosexual and heterosexual individuals. Because many gay men and women report they’ve felt different from others for as long as they can remember, it’s plausible that biological differences are sometimes present even before birth. Sexual Orientation: Clues from Twin Studies. Indeed, twin studies offer support for a role of genetic influences on homosexuality. Michael Bailey and Richard Pillard (1991) found a concordance rate of 52 percent in identical twins, in contrast with a concordance rate of 22 percent in fraternal twins (concordance refers to the proportion of co-twins who exhibit a characteristic, in this case, homosexuality, when the other twin also exhibits this characteristic). Bailey and his colleagues (Bailey, Pillard, Neale, & Agyei, 1993) found roughly similar concordance rates for lesbians (48 percent in identical twins, 16 percent in fraternal twins). The fact that a substantial percentage of identical twins aren’t concordant tells us that environmental influences play an important role in homosexuality, although it doesn’t tell us what these influences are. Exotic Becomes Erotic. Nestled within Bailey’s studies are clues related to the influence of genes and environment on sexual orientation. These studies revealed that men and women inherit a tendency toward childhood gender nonconformity. Gay men reported that they were often feminine boys, and reported they were often masculine girls. Daryl Bem (1996) and others (Bailey & Zucker, 1995; Bell et al., 1981; Green, 1987; Zuger, 1988) suggested that childhood gender nonconformity plays a pivotal role in the development of homosexuality. Boys who lack aggressiveness and avoid rough-and-tumble play may prefer the company of girls, and thus be gender-nonconforming. According to Bem’s theory, called exotic becomes erotic, nonconforming children feel different and estranged from their peers, and perceive their same-sex peers as unfamiliar and exotic (Bem, 2000). Children’s sense of being different from their same-sex peers, and possibly being the subject of teasing or ridicule, arouses their autonomic nervous systems. Later in life, this arousal is transformed into attraction for same-sex peers. It’s unlikely that Bem’s theory accounts for all or even most gay individuals’ sexual preferences, because only about half of gay men and lesbian women report having been feminine and masculine, respectively, in childhood (Bell et al., 1981). Still, one strength of Bem’s theory is that it acknowledges the interplay of genetic and environmental influences, including play activities and peers’ reactions. Sex Hormones and Sexual Orientation. To trace the biological roots of homosexuality, researchers have turned to a different environment—the womb. When the fetus develops, sex hormones called androgens (see Chapter 3) determine whether the brain sets the child on a path toward more masculine than feminine characteristics, or vice versa. According to one theory, girls exposed to excessive testosterone in the womb develop masculinised brains, and boys exposed to too little testosterone develop feminised brains (Ellis & Ames, 1987). These hormonal influences affect temperament and set the stage for childhood gender nonconformity and a homosexual orientation in later life (Bem, 1996). Sexual Orientation: Brain Differences. In 1981, Simon LeVay created a stir among scientists and laypersons alike by reporting that a small cluster of neurons in the hypothalamus, no larger than a millimetre, was less than half the size in gay men compared with non-gay men. The study is open to many criticisms, however, some interesting findings have been noted in more recent studies. Some of the concerns about LeVay’s research are tempered by a recent brain imaging study (Savic, Berglund, & Lindstrom, 2005) in which investigators exposed gay men and non-gay men and women to substances believed to be pheromones (see Chapter 4). When non- gay men smelled chemicals produced in women’s urine, their hypothalamuses became active. When non-gay women smelled a substance derived from testosterone produced in men’s sweat, the same thing happened. The most intriguing finding was that gay men’s brains responded like women’s when they smelled the substance derived from male sweat. These results are consistent with LeVay’s finding that the hypothalamus is related to sexual orientation. Once again, though, we must be careful not to assume that the differences in brain activity cause homosexuality, because the pattern of brain activity could be a consequence of sexual orientation. The findings we’ve reviewed suggest a crucial role for anatomy in sexual orientation. But anatomy isn’t the whole story. To illustrate this point, we’ll examine what happens to males born without penises, or with very small ones, who are raised as girls. Not infrequently, close to the time of their birth, these children receive operations to construct female genitals. Because these children are born with normal male hormones, scientists can tease apart the effects of male hormones from those of socializing a child into the male role. William Reiner and John Gearhard followed 14 children for 5 to 16 years who underwent surgery at birth to create female genitals and were raised as girls (Reiner & Gearhart, 2004). Eight participants categorised themselves as males; most reported interests typical of males and were sexually attracted to females, not males. So in some cases, hormones are apparently more influential than socialisation. Scientists have yet to discover a dependable biological marker of sexual orientation. The great majority of left-handed individuals aren’t gay, many non-lesbians have masculine (lower) index finger to ring finger ratios, and the size of the hypothalamus is comparable in most gay and non-gay individuals. Psychologists don’t fully grasp how biological and environmental factors figure into the development of sexual orientation. In all likelihood, social and cultural influences that remain to be understood play a substantial role in shaping people’s sexual orientation. Genetic factors play a role in sexual orientation, as evidenced by studies showing higher concordance rates for sexual orientation among identical twins compared to fraternal twins. Environmental influences, such as prenatal hormone exposure and social factors, also contribute. Sex hormones like testosterone may influence sexual orientation development, with brain differences observed in areas related to sexual attraction and arousal differing between individuals of different orientations. However, the exact mechanisms remain complex and not fully understood. 8. Identify three principles that guide attraction and relationship formation and discuss each by providing examples. Answer: Answers will vary but a full credit answer should include all three cues listed below with a descriptive example for each. • Proximity: Physical nearness affords the opportunity for relationship formation. For example, people living in the same apartment more likely befriend each other than those who do not. • Similarity: The more common interests people have, the more likely they will form a relationship. Having the same topic on music, books, and food can help establish a personal connection. • Reciprocity: For a relationship to move to deeper levels, people should follow the principle of give and take. People tend to feel obligated to give what they get and maintain equity in a relationship. 1. Similarity: People are often attracted to others who share similar attitudes, values, and interests. For example, two people who both enjoy hiking may feel a stronger connection. 2. Proximity: People are more likely to form relationships with those who are physically close to them. For instance, coworkers or classmates often develop friendships due to regular interaction. 3. Reciprocity: Individuals tend to like others who express liking for them. When one person shows interest in another and receives positive feedback, the relationship is more likely to grow. 9. Discuss Sternberg’s triangular theory of love. What are the three major elements of love and what are the six varieties of love he proposed? Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. Robert Sternberg believes that the “two types of love” model is too simple. In his triangular theory of love, Sternberg (1986, 1988) proposes the existence of three major elements of love: (1) intimacy (“I feel really close to this person”); (2) passion (“I’m crazy about this person”); and (3) commitment (“I really want to stay with this person”). These three elements combine to form six varieties of love. Six types of love: 1) Liking (intimacy), 2) Companionate (intimacy + commitment), 3) empty love (commitment), 4) fatuous love (passion + commitment), 5) infatuation (passion), 6) romantic love (passion + intimacy). Sternberg's triangular theory of love suggests that love has three components: intimacy (closeness), passion (desire), and commitment (long-term decision). These elements combine to form different types of love: 1. Non-Love: Absence of all three elements. 2. Liking/Friendship: Intimacy without passion or commitment. 3. Infatuated Love: Passion without intimacy or commitment. 4. Empty Love: Commitment without intimacy or passion. 5. Romantic Love: Intimacy and passion without commitment. 6. Companionate Love: Intimacy and commitment without passion. 7. Consummate Love: All three elements present in balance. Fill in the Blank Questions 1. According to _______________, humans experience a small number of distinct emotions, even if they combine in complex ways. Answer: discrete emotions theory 2. The research by Ekman proposed that there are _______________ distinct emotions across most cultures. Answer: seven 3. Allen welcomed us at the entrance, smiling with an upward turning of the corners of his mouth, but with no drooping of his eyelids or a crinkling of the corners of his eyes. This is one example of a _______________. Answer: fake emotion/Pan Am smile 4. Opposed to the discrete emotion theory, _______________ theories of emotion recognize the idea that emotions are determined by thinking. Answer: cognitive 5. In addition to direct stimuli, emotions are also subject to _______________ influences. Answer: subliminal/unconscious 6. People tend to overestimate how easily others can understand the intended meaning of their email messages. Misunderstood message meanings are often caused by the lack of ______________ Answer: nonverbal cues. 7. To make important points during lectures, instructors tend to use a lot of ____________, a form of nonverbal expressions. Answer: illustrators 8. The study of personal spaces is called _______________. Answer: proxemics 9. The polygraph test is based on the assumption that lying is always accompanied with a set of physiological or behavioural indicators. This assumption is called _______________. Answer: Pinocchio response 10. The discipline that emphasises resilience, coping, life satisfaction, love, and happiness is called _______________. Answer: positive psychology 11. The country that promotes Gross National Happiness is _______________. Answer: Bhutan 12. The mental state in which people are completely immersed in what they are doing is given the name of _______________. Answer: flow 13. The country that has been found to be the world champion of happiness is ___________ Answer: Denmark. 14. The belief that both good and bad moods will last longer than they actually do is known as _______________ Answer: durability bias. 15. Because happiness is largely a matter of comparison, research has demonstrated that second place finishers tend to be _______________ happy than third place finishers. Answer: less 16. People with positive illusions about themselves usually have _______________ self-esteem. Answer: high 17. A predisposition toward certain stimuli, such as food, is known as ____________ Answer: approach. 18. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, _______________ have to be satisfied first. Answer: physiological needs 19. Scientific studies have demonstrated that the _______________ plays a key role in initiating eating. Answer: lateral hypothalamus 20. Jacob has not eaten since this morning. While waiting for his girlfriend to bring him lunch, he started to feel starving and exhausted. This phenomenon is most likely the result of a drop _______________. Answer: in his blood glucose level 21. The value that establishes a range of body fat and muscle mass we tend to maintain is known as _______________. Answer: set point. 22. The symptom of experiencing hunger but denying food is most likely to be diagnosed with an eating disorder called _______________. Answer: anorexia/anorexia nervosa. 23. Ava has suffered migraines for more than a year. While trying different medications, her sexual desire has most likely _______________ because of the decreased level of _______________. Answer: increased, serotonin. 24. Among the sexual arousal cycle, people usually experience relaxation and a sense of well- being during the _______________ phase. Answer: resolution 25. According to the triangular theory of love, the element of love that describes one's willingness to stay with the partner is known as _______________. Answer: commitment. Test Bank for Psychology: From Inquiry to Understanding Scott O. Lilienfeld, Steven J. Lynn, Laura L. Namy, Nancy J. Woolf, Kenneth M. Cramer, Rodney Schmaltz 9780205896110, 9780133793048, 9780133870282
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