This Document Contains Chapters 11 to 12 Chapter 11 Nutrition, Exercise and Sports Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following are benefits of regular and consistent exercise? A. enhanced heart function B. improved balance C. better sleep habits D. reduced stress E. All of these responses are correct. 2. In order for an individual to maintain an exercise regimen it helps if ________. A. the exercise works only the lower legs B. the exercise is built into a daily routine C. you sweat profusely D. you have a membership to a gym 3. According to the Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans substantial health benefits occur when adults engage ________. A. in occasional physical activity B. in 150 minutes of moderate intensity exercise each week C. in 75 minutes of moderate intensity exercise each week D. None of these responses are correct. 4. The benefit(s) of participating in different types of exercise is/are ________. A. strengthening a variety of muscle groups B. reducing the chances of injury C. promoting activities that are more interesting and thus more likely to be continued D. All of these responses are correct. 5. The Borg Scale of Perceived Exertion is used to determine ________. A. flexibility B. muscle strength C. exercise intensity D. All of these responses are correct. 6. Energy for muscle contraction is most directly supplied by ________. A. amino acids B. creatine C. phosphocreatine D. ATP 7. The amount of ATP stored in a muscle cell can keep a muscle active for about ________. A. 1-2 seconds B. 10-30 seconds C. 1-3 minutes D. 1-3 hours 8. Phosphocreatine (PCr) is an energy-rich compound found in ______ tissue. A. adipose B. liver C. kidney D. muscle 9. At very high intensities of exercise, most of the energy the body uses is supplied by ________. A. muscle glycogen B. intramuscular fat C. blood glucose D. muscle protein 10. When plenty of oxygen is available in the muscles, the condition is referred to as ________. A. anaerobic B. aerobic C. VO2max D. glycolytic 11. When conditions in the exercising muscle are anaerobic, metabolism of glucose results in ________. A. the formation of lactate B. production of 28 to 30 ATP C. transfer of electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen D. None of these responses are correct. 12. When glucose is broken down in an atmosphere where oxygen supply is limited, a 3-carbon compound known as ________ accumulates in the muscle. A. phosphocreatine B. lactate C. glycogen D. protein 13. The lactate that is made during high intensity exercise is eventually released in the bloodstream and taken up by the ______ and used as an energy source. A. heart B. liver C. muscles D. All of the choices are correct. 14. When an athlete's maximal performance is desired, carbohydrates are a more efficient fuel than fat because ________. A. more ATP is produced per unit of oxygen consumed B. we consume more carbohydrate than fat or protein C. carbohydrate is oxidized more rapidly than fatty acids D. muscles get used to using carbohydrate as a fuel 15. Anaerobic glycolysis can supply energy to muscle tissue for ________. A. 10 to 30 seconds B. 30 seconds to 2 minutes C. 2 to 5 minutes D. up to 30 minutes 16. The disadvantage of anaerobic glycolysis in high-intensity muscle contractions is that ________. A. the heart muscle "soaks up" most of the lactic acid for its energy needs B. ATP production cannot be sustained for long events C. the production of excessive amounts of CO2 and H2O interferes with exercise D. ATP is needed for digestion 17. Lactate from anaerobic glycolysis is transported by the blood to the liver, where it will be ________. A. resynthesized to glucose B. converted to sucrose or maltose C. converted to cholesterol for disposal from the body D. converted to urea for disposal by the kidneys 18. The site of greatest energy production in a muscle cell is the ________. A. nucleus B. ribosomes C. mitochondria D. cytoplasm 19. The only fuel that can be used in anaerobic glycolysis is ________. A. fatty acids B. amino acids C. alcohol D. glucose 20. Other than phosphocreatine breakdown, the fastest way to supply ATP to exercising muscle is ________. A. aerobic glycolysis B. anaerobic glycolysis C. to consume an energy gel D. to break down fat stores in muscle and convert fatty acids to glucose 21. In low-intensity exercise, aerobic metabolism of glucose will result in ________. A. lactic acid B. lipogenesis C. carbon dioxide and water D. glucose, fatty acids, and amino acid skeletons 22. In high-intensity exercise, such as championship basketball, the predominant fuel for exercise is ________. A. fat B. protein C. carbohydrates D. vitamins 23. During aerobic glycolysis, ________. A. glucose is metabolized with the aid of CO2 B. fatty acids become the predominant fuel C. ATP is formed slowly, but muscular activity can be sustained for many hours D. None of these choices are correct. 24. Glucose is stored in muscle tissue as ________. A. triglycerides B. glycogen C. protein D. phosphocreatine (PCr) 25. In order to build up maximum stores of muscle glycogen for long-distance marathons, one should consume a ________ diet. A. high-carbohydrate B. high-protein C. high-fat D. high-energy 26. The majority of stored energy in the body is in the form of ________. A. glucose B. ATP C. amino acids D. triglycerides 27. _____ supply about 3% to 15% of energy needs for endurance events. A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates C. Fats D. Vitamins 28. _______ of one's general energy needs are fueled by proteins. A. Five percent B. Fifteen percent C. Fifty percent D. Seventy percent 29. An adaptation occurs with exercise, besides improvement in fitness is ________. A. increased bone density B. better eyesight C. increased longevity D. increased morbidity 30. Prolonged, low intensity exercise uses mainly ______ muscle fibers. A. white B. Type IIX C. Type IIA D. Type I 31. A response called hypertrophy occurs when ________. A. more ATP is released from the cell B. a person exercises for half an hour per week C. muscles enlarge after being made to work repeatedly D. All of these choices are correct. 32. Variables that determine an athlete's energy needs include ________. A. body composition B. training or competition C. body size D. All of these responses are correct. E. None of these responses are correct. 33. When exercise duration approaches several hours per day, carbohydrate needs for athletes increase up to ________. A. 3 grams carbohydrate per kg body weight B. 5 grams carbohydrate per kg body weight C. 10 grams carbohydrate per kg body weight D. 20 grams carbohydrate per kg body weight 34. The dietary regimen to increase muscle glycogen stores is called ________. A. carbohydrate synthesis B. glycogen synthesis C. carbohydrate loading D. energy loading 35. For athletes who compete in continuous, intense aerobic events lasting for 90 to 120 minutes (or shorter events repeated in 24 hours), ________. A. carbohydrate-loading benefits performance B. carnitine supplements improve the use of fatty acids as muscle fuel C. large doses of bicarbonate counter the acid production in the stomach D. all caffeine-containing foods and beverages should be avoided for at least 2 to 4 days before the competition 36. Which of the foods below constitutes the best choice when attempting carbohydrate loading before endurance events? A. orange juice B. French fries C. spaghetti D. sausage 37. "Hitting the wall" means ________. A. someone is training for a marathon B. someone has run out of available carbohydrates for energy C. someone is so tired that he or she must stop to and rest for 10 to 15 minutes before continuing the sport D. None of these responses are correct. 38. During muscle-building regimens, how much protein should athletes consume? A. 0.8 g/kg B. 1.0 - 1.2 g/kg C. 1.2 - 1.7 g/kg D. 2.0 - 2.4 g/kg 39. Athletes, particularly female and young athletes, need to increase their intake of ________ to increase red blood cell production. A. vitamin C B. vitamin A C. calcium D. iron 40. Taking iron supplements has been found to benefit athletes ________. A. only if they are anemic B. in rare cases when they have experienced a cessation of the menstrual cycle C. who are experiencing early symptoms of osteoporosis D. by increasing the bulk of muscle 41. Which of the following is NOT a part of the female athlete triad? A. amenorrhea B. bone loss/osteoporosis C. type 2 diabetes D. energy deficit/disordered eating 42. A weight loss of 2% or more of body weight by dehydration carries some risk of ________. A. increased body temperature B. reduced blood volume C. decreased performance D. All of these choices are correct. 43. For every pound of weight lost during an athletic event, ________ of water should be consumed immediately thereafter. A. ½ cup B. 1 cup C. 2½ cups D. 3 cups 44. Fluids should be consumed _________ an athletic event. A. before B. during C. after D. All of these choices are correct. 45. One advantage of sports drinks is taste. In addition, they ________. A. are quick replacements for carbohydrates B. increase fluid consumption C. replace important minerals such as sodium, potassium, and chloride D. All of these choices are correct. 46. Hyponatremia is a condition caused by ________. A. overconsumption of water B. overconsumption of sodium C. underconsumption of water D. underconsumption of potassium 47. A pre-event meal eaten 1 to 2 hours before competition should be ________. A. low in fat B. low in fluid C. high in dietary fiber D. All of these choices are accurate. 48. An example of a food to avoid in a pre-game meal is ________. A. hot dogs B. spaghetti C. low-fat milk D. All of these foods should be avoided. 49. Restoration of muscle glycogen occurs when _____ grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight are consumed 30 minutes after exercise and again 2 hours after exercise. A. 0.5 - 0.75 B. 1.0 - 1.5 C. 3.0 - 4.0 D. None of these responses are correct. 50. Anabolic steroids are ________. A. synthetic versions of growth hormone B. synthetic forms of cortisol, which increases glucose production C. synthetic versions of male sex hormones D. synthetic versions of thyroxine 51. Which substance is considered to be a proven ergogenic aid that increases athletic performance? A. salt tablets B. bee pollen C. carnitine D. coenzyme Q-10 E. None of these substances increase athletic performance. True / False Questions 52. The best exercise is one you want to continue to do. TRUE 53. Exercise should be fun. TRUE 54. A good way to determine the intensity of exercise is to measure the amount of oxygen a person consumes. TRUE 55. Warm-up and cool-down should be parts of your exercise routine. TRUE 56. Glycogen is the primary source of glucose for ATP production in muscles during intense activity that lasts for less than 2 minutes. TRUE 57. Carbohydrate is more efficient than fat or protein in the amount of ATP produced per unit of oxygen consumed. TRUE 58. Slow, steady aerobic activity uses mostly fat as an energy source. TRUE 59. Amino acids can be used as a primary fuel for muscles. FALSE 60. Athletes need to consume over 500 grams of protein supplements a day to build muscle. FALSE 61. Carbohydrate loading is for strength-trained athletes. FALSE 62. During exercise, athletes should be consuming massive amounts of water. FALSE 63. Thirst is an excellent indicator of fluid needs during exercise. FALSE 64. College wrestlers can best enhance their strength by dehydration. FALSE Matching Questions 65. Match the term and its description.
1. Perceived exertion Ions that conduct an electrical current
2. Ergogenic Producing energy with oxygen
3. Aerobic Rating of exercise intensity
4. Electrolytes Producing energy without oxygen
5. Anaerobic Work-enhancing
1. Perceived exertion Ions that conduct an electrical current 4
2. Ergogenic Producing energy with oxygen 3
3. Aerobic Rating of exercise intensity 1
4. Electrolytes Producing energy without oxygen 5
5. Anaerobic Work-enhancing 2
66. Match the characteristic of a good exercise program with its description.
1. Frequency Amount of time exercise is performed
2. Duration Number of times activity is performed
3. Mode Type of exercise performed
4. Variety Effort spent during the exercise
5. Intensity Performing different types of activity
1. Frequency Amount of time exercise is performed 2
2. Duration Number of times activity is performed 1
3. Mode Type of exercise performed 3
4. Variety Effort spent during the exercise 5
5. Intensity Performing different types of activity 4
67. Match the term and its definition.
1. Heat stroke Muscle cramping, large sweat loss
2. Heat cramps First stage of heat-related illness
3. Dehydration Internal body temperature > 104° F
4. Heat exhaustion Insufficient fluid intake, resulting in poor performance and risk of heat-related illness
1. Heat stroke Muscle cramping, large sweat loss 2
2. Heat cramps First stage of heat-related illness 4
3. Dehydration Internal body temperature > 104° F 1
4. Heat exhaustion Insufficient fluid intake, resulting in poor performance and risk of heat-related illness 3
Essay Questions 68. What are the basic components of an exercise program? Answer: The basic components of an exercise program include: 1. Cardiovascular Endurance: Activities like running, cycling, or swimming that improve the efficiency of the heart, lungs, and circulatory system. 2. Muscular Strength: Exercises such as weightlifting or resistance training that build muscle mass and strength. 3. Muscular Endurance: Activities like circuit training or bodyweight exercises that improve the ability of muscles to sustain repeated contractions over time. 4. Flexibility: Stretching exercises or yoga that enhance the range of motion of the joints and muscles. 5. Body Composition: Maintaining a healthy ratio of fat to lean mass through a combination of exercise and nutrition. 69. Before initiating a new fitness program, what are two important considerations for the beginner? Answer: 1. Medical Clearance: It's important for beginners, especially those with pre-existing health conditions or who have been inactive for a long period, to consult a healthcare professional before starting a new fitness program. This helps ensure that the program is safe and appropriate for their health status. 2. Setting Realistic Goals: Beginners should set achievable and specific goals to maintain motivation and track progress. Goals should be based on their current fitness level and gradually progress to avoid injury and promote long-term adherence to the program. 70. Describe how the intensity of exercise affects glycogen utilization. Answer: Glycogen utilization during exercise varies significantly with the intensity of the activity. Glycogen, stored primarily in muscles and the liver, serves as a key energy source during physical exertion. At lower intensities, the body primarily uses fat as the main fuel source, preserving glycogen stores. This is because aerobic pathways, which are predominant during low-intensity exercise, are more efficient at utilizing fat for energy. For instance, activities such as walking or light jogging rely more on fat oxidation and less on glycogen. As exercise intensity increases, the reliance on glycogen as an energy source grows. During moderate-intensity exercise, there is a balanced utilization of both glycogen and fat. However, as the intensity reaches higher levels, such as during sprinting or high-intensity interval training (HIIT), the body shifts towards anaerobic pathways. These pathways predominantly rely on glycogen due to its rapid availability compared to fat. High-intensity exercises result in a quicker depletion of muscle glycogen stores. This is because anaerobic glycolysis, the process that breaks down glycogen for quick energy, becomes the primary energy pathway. The rapid utilization of glycogen at high intensities helps meet the immediate and substantial energy demands of the muscles. In summary, as the intensity of exercise increases, the body's reliance on glycogen for energy also increases, leading to faster depletion of glycogen stores. This shift in energy source utilization highlights the importance of glycogen in sustaining high-intensity activities and the need for adequate glycogen replenishment through proper nutrition and recovery. 71. Contrast the protein requirements for an endurance athlete to requirements for a strength-trained athlete. Answer: Endurance athletes and strength-trained athletes have differing protein requirements due to the distinct nature of their training and recovery needs. Endurance Athletes: These athletes engage in prolonged activities like running, cycling, and swimming, which primarily rely on aerobic energy systems. Their protein needs are generally higher than sedentary individuals but lower than strength-trained athletes. Endurance athletes typically require about 1.2 to 1.4 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight per day. This helps repair muscle tissues, supports recovery, and maintains lean muscle mass. Strength-Trained Athletes: These athletes focus on activities like weightlifting and resistance training, which require short bursts of high-intensity efforts. Their training causes significant muscle breakdown, necessitating higher protein intake for muscle repair and growth. Strength-trained athletes generally need about 1.6 to 2.0 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight per day. This higher intake supports muscle hypertrophy, recovery, and overall strength gains. 72. Why is a high intake of protein for athletes discouraged? Answer: High protein intake for athletes can be discouraged for several reasons: 1. Kidney Strain: Excessive protein consumption can put strain on the kidneys, especially in individuals with pre-existing kidney conditions, as they work harder to eliminate nitrogen, a byproduct of protein metabolism. 2. Nutrient Imbalance: Overemphasis on protein can lead to a deficiency in other essential nutrients, such as carbohydrates and fats, which are crucial for energy and overall health. 3. Dehydration: High protein intake increases the need for water to metabolize and excrete nitrogen, potentially leading to dehydration if fluid intake is not adequately increased. 4. Caloric Surplus: Consuming too much protein can contribute to a caloric surplus, leading to unwanted weight gain if not balanced with overall energy expenditure. 5. Cost and Practicality: High-protein diets can be more expensive and less sustainable, making them impractical for many athletes. 73. Design a diet for an endurance athlete who wants to carbohydrate load. Answer: Carbohydrate loading is a strategy used by endurance athletes to maximize glycogen stores in muscles before an event. Here’s a sample diet plan for an endurance athlete looking to carbohydrate load: Day 1-3: Tapering Exercise and Moderate Carbohydrates (5-7 grams of carbs per kg of body weight) • Breakfast: Whole grain toast with peanut butter, a banana, and a glass of orange juice. • Snack: Greek yogurt with honey and mixed berries. • Lunch: Quinoa salad with grilled chicken, mixed vegetables, and a small apple. • Snack: Hummus with carrot sticks. • Dinner: Brown rice with baked salmon and steamed broccoli. • Snack: A handful of mixed nuts. Day 4-6: Increasing Carbohydrates (7-10 grams of carbs per kg of body weight) • Breakfast: Oatmeal with raisins, honey, and a glass of skim milk. • Snack: A granola bar and a piece of fruit. • Lunch: Whole grain pasta with marinara sauce, grilled chicken, and a side salad. • Snack: Whole grain crackers with cheese. • Dinner: Baked sweet potato with black beans, corn, and salsa. • Snack: Low-fat chocolate milk. Day 7: Day Before the Event (10-12 grams of carbs per kg of body weight) • Breakfast: Pancakes with maple syrup, a side of scrambled eggs, and a glass of orange juice. • Snack: A smoothie made with bananas, berries, and yogurt. • Lunch: White rice with lean ground turkey and steamed carrots. • Snack: Dried fruit mix (raisins, apricots, and cranberries). • Dinner: Baked potato with grilled chicken breast and green beans. • Snack: Rice cakes with honey. General Guidelines: • Hydration: Drink plenty of water throughout the day to stay hydrated. • Avoid High-Fiber Foods: Limit high-fiber foods close to the event to avoid gastrointestinal discomfort. • Frequent Meals: Eat small, frequent meals to ensure a steady intake of carbohydrates. • Low-Fat Choices: Choose low-fat options to avoid gastrointestinal distress. This diet plan ensures the athlete maximizes glycogen stores, providing sustained energy for the endurance event. 74. Compare the traditional carbohydrate loading diet to the modified method. Answer: Traditional carbohydrate loading, also known as the classic method, involves a period of glycogen depletion followed by a period of glycogen loading. Initially, athletes engage in a few days of intense exercise while consuming a low-carbohydrate diet to deplete glycogen stores. This is followed by a few days of rest while consuming a high-carbohydrate diet (about 70-75% of total caloric intake) to supercompensate glycogen stores. The modified method eliminates the depletion phase and focuses solely on a gradual increase in carbohydrate intake while tapering exercise over several days leading up to the event. Athletes consume a diet of 50% carbohydrates for a few days, then increase to 70% carbohydrates for the last few days before the event. This method is less rigorous and easier to follow, reducing the risk of negative side effects like fatigue and irritability associated with the depletion phase. 75. What athletes can benefit from carbohydrate loading? Why? Answer: Athletes participating in endurance events lasting more than 90 minutes, such as marathon runners, cyclists, long-distance swimmers, and triathletes, can benefit from carbohydrate loading. This is because these activities rely heavily on glycogen stores for sustained energy. By maximizing glycogen storage, athletes can delay the onset of fatigue, maintain a higher intensity for longer periods, and potentially improve performance. 76. How would your diet plan for a football player differ from that of a marathon runner? Answer: A diet plan for a football player would focus on a balance of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats to support high-intensity, short-duration efforts, muscle recovery, and overall energy needs. Protein intake is crucial for muscle repair and growth, while carbohydrates provide the quick energy bursts required for explosive movements. Fats support overall energy needs and hormone production. For a marathon runner, the diet plan would emphasize a higher carbohydrate intake to maintain glycogen stores for prolonged energy release during long-distance running. Protein is still important for recovery, but the overall focus is on carbohydrates to sustain endurance performance. Hydration and electrolyte balance are also critical due to the extended duration of activity. 77. How would you convince a football coach that a sports drink would be better than water for his high school athletes during two-a-day practices? Answer: To convince a football coach that a sports drink is better than water for high school athletes during two-a-day practices, I would explain that sports drinks provide essential electrolytes, such as sodium and potassium, which are lost through sweat during intense exercise. These electrolytes help maintain hydration, muscle function, and prevent cramps. Additionally, sports drinks contain carbohydrates that can provide a quick source of energy, helping athletes sustain performance and recover faster between sessions. While water is crucial for hydration, it doesn't replace lost electrolytes or provide energy, making sports drinks a more comprehensive solution for prolonged and intense physical activity. 78. List 5 symptoms of heatstroke, and explain how it can occur. Answer: 1. High body temperature: A core body temperature of 104°F (40°C) or higher is a key indicator of heatstroke. 2. Altered mental state or behavior: Confusion, agitation, slurred speech, irritability, delirium, seizures, and coma can result from heatstroke. 3. Nausea and vomiting: The body's response to extreme heat can cause gastrointestinal distress. 4. Flushed skin: Skin may appear red as the body attempts to cool itself by increasing blood flow to the skin. 5. Rapid breathing and heart rate: The heart rate increases to help cool the body, while breathing rate increases to manage increased oxygen demand. Heatstroke occurs when the body's temperature regulation system is overwhelmed by excessive heat, usually due to prolonged exposure to high temperatures or strenuous physical activity in hot conditions. This can impair the body's ability to cool itself through sweating. Risk factors include dehydration, wearing excessive clothing, and lack of acclimatization to hot weather. Without prompt treatment, heatstroke can lead to severe complications, including organ damage and death. Multiple Choice Questions 79. Lance Armstrong, who was a triathlete and road racing cyclist, likely has more __________ muscle fibers. A. Type I B. Type IIA C. Type IIX D. He would have equal amounts of all muscle fiber types. 80. Your roommate tells you he wants to put on more muscle mass. He plans to do this by adding in strength-training exercises and protein shakes to his diet. What advice could you offer him? A. Higher amounts of protein will add muscle mass faster, so add in as much as you possibly can. B. Going over 0.8 g/kg will have no benefit for muscle building during the training period. C. Intakes of up to 1.7 g/kg is acceptable during muscle mass gain, but going over this amount can lead to dehydration and insufficient carbohydrate intake. D. Try to stay as low as possible in your intake as proteins have no benefit for muscle mass gain or energy usage. 81. Which of the following athletes would have the highest requirements for proteins? A. 120 lb female triathelete B. 120 lb female trying to increase her muscle mass C. 180 lb sedentary male D. 180 lb male football player 82. You are at an athletic event and you notice that one of the participants is not feeling well. He is starting to not be able to walk and appears to be confused and irritated. What heat-related condition is he likely suffering from? A. Heat exhaustion B. Heat cramps C. Heat stroke D. None of the answers are correct. 83. Sarah has designed a fitness program that includes aerobic exercise, resistance exercise, and flexibility exercise. What characteristic of a well-designed fitness program was Sarah most concerned about when she designed her program? A. Duration B. Intensity C. Progression D. Mode Chapter 12 The Fat-Soluble Vitamins Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following does NOT describe a vitamin? A. They are essential organic substances. B. They are fat- or water-soluble. C. They are needed in relatively small amounts. D. They provide a rich source of energy. 2. Excess amounts of most water-soluble vitamins are A. stored in the adipose tissue. B. readily excreted. C. stored in the liver. D. often toxic. 3. Excess amounts of most fat-soluble vitamins are A. stored in the liver or adipose tissue. B. excreted via the kidneys. C. stored in the pancreas. D. All of the choices are correct. 4. Nutrients most likely to cause toxicity if consumed in excessive amounts include A. vitamin B-12 and vitamin K. B. vitamin D and riboflavin. C. vitamin A and vitamin D. D. vitamin A and vitamin E. 5. Beta-carotene A. can be converted to vitamin A in the body. B. can be converted to vitamin E in the body. C. is classified as a retinoid. D. is toxic when consumed in excess amounts. 6. A deficiency of vitamin A often results in A. scurvy. B. night blindness. C. insufficient blood clotting. D. microcytic anemia. 7. After absorption, the fat-soluble vitamins are distributed to body cells by A. free fatty acids. B. lipases. C. mucopolysaccharides. D. lipoproteins. 8. Some scientists believe that the vitamin D recommendation should be much higher than currently set. A. True B. False 9. When consumed in recommended amounts, approximately ________ of fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed. A. 1-5% B. 5-20% C. 10-35% D. 40-90% 10. Beta-carotene is also called A. provitamin A. B. retinal or retinol. C. calcitriol. D. rhodopsin. 11. In the intestinal cells, A. vitamin A, as retinal, is converted to beta-carotene. B. carotenes are split by an intestinal enzyme to form vitamin A. C. excess vitamin A is carried to the kidney for excretion. D. All of these choices are correct. 12. A leading cause of blindness in the world today (excluding accidents) is a dietary deficiency of A. vitamin A. B. vitamin D. C. vitamin E. D. vitamin K. 13. Retinal, retinol, and retinoic acid are all forms of A. vitamin A. B. vitamin K. C. vitamin D. D. vitamin E. 14. Rhodopsin, the visual pigment in the retina of the eye, is regenerated when opsin combines with A. retinoic acid. B. 11-cis-retinal. C. 13-cis-retinol. D. beta-carotene. 15. Of the following, the best source of preformed vitamin A is A. fried liver. B. sautéed spinach. C. fresh mango. D. cheddar cheese. 16. Of the following, the best source of provitamin A is A. fried liver. B. baked sweet potato. C. fresh bananas. D. soybeans. 17. The yellow-orange coloring of carotenoid-rich dark green vegetables is masked by the pigment A. lycopene. B. chlorophyll. C. beta-carotene. D. alpha-carotene. 18. Mucus-forming cells in the body deteriorate and can no longer produce mucus when there is a deficiency of A. vitamin D. B. beta-carotene. C. vitamin K. D. vitamin A. 19. When viewing items at night or in very dim light, light strikes the retina of the eyes A. and causes the retinal to change from its cis form to its trans form. B. and splits the rhodopsin into opsin and all-trans-retinal. C. to trigger an electrical signal along the optic nerve. D. All of these choices are accurate. 20. A deficiency of vitamin A can lead to development of a condition called A. xerophthalmia. B. osteomalacia. C. jaundice. D. scurvy. 21. Vitamin A deficiency is characterized by the A. inability to produce insulin. B. failure to form blood clots. C. inability to adapt quickly to changes in light intensity. D. production of excessive amounts of collagen. 22. The biochemical functions of vitamin A include all of the following except: A. controlling vision in dim and bright light. B. development and maintenance of mucus-forming cells. C. cell differentiation. D. coenzyme synthesis. 23. Which statement correctly describes vitamin A? A. Vitamin A is carried from the liver by retinol-binding protein and transthyretin in the blood. B. Nearly all cells have vitamin-A binding retinoid receptors. C. Within a cell, vitamin A is involved in gene expression and cell differentiation. D. All of the choices are correct. 24. Vitamin A supplements are not necessary for most adult Americans as they have significant reserves in A. the eye. B. the skin. C. the kidney. D. the liver. 25. The current RDA for vitamin A is expressed in A. Beta Carotene International Units (BCIU). B. Retinol Activity Equivalents (RAE). C. Alpha-Tocopherol Equivalents (ATE) D. None of these answers are correct. 26. In North America, population groups at increased risk of vitamin A deficiency include all of the following EXCEPT A. college-aged diabetics. B. alcoholics with liver disease. C. those with GI diseases that prevent fat absorption. D. low birth weight, premature infants. 27. The most likely cause of a vitamin A toxicity would be A. consuming large amounts of dark green and yellow vegetables. B. eating sautéed liver and onions twice a week. C. consuming high levels of vitamin A supplements. D. drinking carrot juice twice a day. 28. Vitamin A toxicity is known to cause all of the following EXCEPT A. birth defects. B. permanent damage to the liver. C. kidney disease. D. death. 29. What vitamin would most likely lead to death in both deficient and toxic levels? A. vitamin A B. vitamin C C. vitamin E D. vitamin B-12 30. A potential danger of using oral Accutane for acne is that it A. can cause spontaneous abortion and birth defects. B. can cause blindness if used for over a year. C. may lead to atherosclerosis. D. can lead to osteomalacia. 31. Children eating large amounts of carrots can develop A. hyperactivity. B. hypercarotenemia. C. hyperglycemia. D. vitamin A toxicity. 32. A derivative of vitamin A, 13-cis-retinoic acid (Accutane), is used to A. prevent xerophthalmia. B. treat serious cases of acne. C. treat hypercarotenemia. D. prevent skin cancer. 33. Vitamin D deficiency can result in poorly mineralized bone. The resulting disease is called A. osteoporosis. B. osteomalacia. C. osteoarthritis. D. osteopenia. 34. Healthy, light-skinned individuals can make sufficient vitamin D to meet the body's needs with about ________ of sun exposure on their face, arms, and hands 2 or 3 times per week. A. 15 minutes B. 60 minutes C. 90 minutes D. 120 minutes 35. The nutrient that can be considered both a vitamin and a hormone is vitamin A. E. B. K. C. D. D. A. 36. Vitamin D is sometimes called the sunshine vitamin because A. it is available in fresh orange juice. B. exposure to sunlight converts a precursor form to vitamin D. C. it can be destroyed by exposure to sunlight. D. it is the yellow-orange color of the sun. 37. The main active form of vitamin D in the body is A. calcitriol. B. retinal. C. cholecalciferol. D. calcitonin. 38. Vitamin D is involved in the regulation of body levels of A. cholesterol. B. calcium. C. prothrombin. D. potassium. 39. Functions of vitamin D include A. prevention of scurvy. B. antioxidant activity. C. glucose regulation. D. absorption of calcium. 40. As calcitriol, vitamin D functions in calcium and bone metabolism by A. reducing calcium excretion by the kidney. B. regulating calcium and phosphorus absorption through the intestinal wall. C. regulating the levels of calcium and phosphorus in bones. D. All of these choices are accurate. 41. Calcitriol is the A. precursor to vitamin D that is activated by sunlight. B. plant source of vitamin D. C. animal food source of vitamin D. D. biologically active form of vitamin D. 42. Vitamin D deficiency in adults is called A. osteoporosis. B. osteomalacia. C. rickets. D. hypocalcemia. 43. In children, bowed legs, an enlarged head, rib cage, and knee joints, and a deformed pelvis are symptoms of A. rickets. B. xerophthalmia. C. osteopenia. D. None of the choices are correct. 44. A reliable food source of vitamin D is A. yellow-orange colored fruits. B. dark green leafy vegetables. C. whole grain breads. D. fortified milk. 45. As calcium levels in the blood drop below normal, ____________ is released to increase the synthesis of calcitriol. A. calcitonin B. thyroid hormone C. parathyroid hormone D. secretin 46. Vitamin D synthesis in the skin is affected by all of the following EXCEPT A. use of sunscreen. B. skin color. C. geographic location. D. All of these factors can affect vitamin D synthesis. 47. Individuals at increased risk of vitamin D deficiency include all of the following EXCEPT A. elderly adults living in nursing homes. B. dark-skinned children with limited outdoor activity. C. young adults who eat high amounts of fatty fish and fish oils. D. individuals with diseases of fat-malabsorption. 48. Which of the following is NOT a function of vitamin D? A. Maintaining phosphorus homeostasis B. Regulating cell cycle activity C. Promoting antioxidant activity D. Increasing immunity against infections 49. Excess intake of vitamin D A. is readily excreted. B. can cause hypercalcemia. C. can cause rickets. D. can cause osteomalacia. 50. Vitamin E is a family of compounds comprised of the A. 4 tocopherols. B. 4 tocotrienols. C. 4 triglycerides. D. 4 tocopherols and 4 tocotrienols. 51. Vitamin E functions to A. protect cell membranes from destruction by various reducing agents. B. protect phospholipids in cell membranes from damage by free radicals. C. accept electrons, thus neutralizing the action of free radicals. D. All of these choices are accurate. 52. A primary function of vitamin E is to serve as A. a coenzyme. B. an antioxidant. C. a hormone. D. a peroxide. 53. Which of the following is NOT involved in antioxidant defense? A. glutathione peroxidase B. superoxide dismutase C. catalase D. hydrogen peroxide 54. The most nutrient-dense sources of vitamin E are A. refined grains and cereal products. B. orange-colored fruits. C. vegetable oils. D. animal fats. 55. Vitamin E is carried to the liver and other tissues by A. albumin. B. hemoglobin. C. lipoproteins. D. retinol-binding proteins. 56. Of the following population groups, those at highest risk for vitamin E deficiency are A. premature infants. B. the elderly. C. athletes. D. smokers. 57. A high intake of vitamin E can A. interfere with vitamin K's blood-clotting activity. B. result in lead poisoning. C. inhibit copper absorption. D. cause atherosclerosis. 58. Which vitamin deficiency leads to hemolytic anemia? A. vitamin A B. vitamin D C. vitamin E D. vitamin K 59. Individuals taking daily aspirin or anticoagulation medications should avoid excess intakes of A. beta-carotene. B. vitamin E. C. vitamin D. D. lycopene. 60. The nutrient essential for the synthesis of blood clotting factors is vitamin A. A. B. D. C. E. D. K. 61. An important role of vitamin K is the synthesis of A. alpha-tocopherol. B. rhodopsin. C. calcitriol. D. prothrombin. 62. A nutrient synthesized by bacteria in the large intestine is vitamin A. E. B. D. C. A. D. K. 63. The family of compounds known as vitamin K includes A. phylloquinones and menaquinones. B. tocopherols and tocotrienols. C. retinol, retinal, and retinoic acid. D. cholecalciferol and calcitriol. 64. Vitamin K deficiency is most likely to result from A. insufficient sunlight. B. kidney disease. C. insufficient intake of dairy products. D. antibiotic therapy. 65. Antibiotics and intestinal diseases can interfere with absorption of vitamin A. A. B. C. C. E. D. K. 66. The most nutrient-dense food sources of vitamin K are A. green leafy vegetables. B. whole grain breads and cereals. C. nuts and seeds. D. oysters and shellfish. 67. Newborns usually receive an injection of vitamin _________ to protect them against deficiency until the gastrointestinal tract has matured. A. A B. D C. B D. K True / False Questions 68. An Upper Level has been set for vitamin K to protect against the significant risk of toxicity. FALSE 69. When taken in megadoses, vitamins may act like drugs. TRUE 70. Natural vitamins are usually superior to synthetic vitamins. FALSE 71. People who smoke likely need more vitamin E than nonsmokers. TRUE 72. One means of detecting a vitamin K deficiency is to measure how quickly prothrombin in the blood can form a clot. TRUE 73. Dietary supplements are tightly regulated by the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA). FALSE 74. Vegans may require supplements of calcium, zinc, iron, and vitamin B-12 to prevent deficiencies. TRUE 75. Individuals with lactose intolerance or milk allergies may need calcium and vitamin D supplements. TRUE 76. Supplement manufacturers can make unproven claims with regard to conditions that are not diseases. TRUE 77. Dietary supplements can fully compensate for nutritionally poor diets. FALSE 78. Megadoses of vitamins are useful in preventing nutritional deficiencies and decreasing disease risk. FALSE 79. Retinoids play a role in embryonic development and cell differentiation. TRUE 80. Carotenoid supplementation has been effective in decreasing the risk of lung cancer in smokers. FALSE 81. Vitamin A deficiency can result in development of xerophthalmia in membranes of the eye. TRUE 82. Vitamin D must be hydroxylated in the liver and kidney to become biologically active. TRUE 83. Kidney disease and liver disease increase the risk of vitamin D deficiency. TRUE 84. The fat-soluble vitamins all have hormone-like activity. FALSE 85. The RDA for vitamin E was established to prevent hemolysis of red blood cell membranes. TRUE Essay Questions 86. List 3 differences between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins. Answer: 1. Absorption and Storage : • Fat-Soluble Vitamins: These vitamins (A, D, E, and K) are absorbed along with dietary fats and are stored in the body's fatty tissues and liver. They can be stored for long periods. • Water-Soluble Vitamins: These vitamins (C and B-complex) are absorbed directly into the bloodstream and are not stored in large amounts. Excess amounts are excreted in urine, so they need to be consumed more regularly. 2. Toxicity : • Fat-Soluble Vitamins: Because they are stored in the body, there is a higher risk of toxicity if consumed in excess. • Water-Soluble Vitamins: Since they are not stored and excess amounts are excreted, the risk of toxicity is lower, although it is still possible with extremely high intakes. 3. Deficiency Risk : • Fat-Soluble Vitamins: Deficiencies develop more slowly because the body can draw on its stores. • Water-Soluble Vitamins: Deficiencies can develop more quickly because they are not stored in the body and need to be replenished more frequently. 87. How does the USP label on a nutrient supplement help the consumer? Answer: The USP (United States Pharmacopeia) label on a nutrient supplement helps the consumer by indicating that the product has been tested and verified for quality, purity, and potency by an independent, third-party organization. This verification ensures that: • The supplement contains the ingredients listed on the label, in the declared amounts. • It is free from harmful levels of contaminants. • It will dissolve and release its ingredients in the body within a specified time. • It has been manufactured according to FDA current Good Manufacturing Practices. Having the USP label gives consumers confidence in the product's safety and effectiveness. 88. List 3 symptoms noted in persons with vitamin A deficiency. Answer: 1. Night Blindness : Difficulty seeing in low light or darkness. 2. Dry Eyes : Xerophthalmia, which includes dry, thickened, and cloudy corneas. 3. Increased Susceptibility to Infections : Impaired immune function leading to more frequent infections, particularly respiratory and gastrointestinal infections. 89. List 3 functions of vitamin A. Answer: 1. Vision : Vitamin A is essential for the maintenance of normal vision. It is a critical component of rhodopsin, a protein that absorbs light in the retinal receptors, and supports the functioning of the conjunctival membranes and cornea. 2. Immune Function : Vitamin A plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and function of skin and mucosal cells, which act as barriers and form the body's first line of defense against infections. It also supports the production and activity of white blood cells. 3. Cell Growth and Differentiation : Vitamin A is involved in the regulation of cell growth and differentiation, playing a key role in the development and maintenance of the heart, lungs, kidneys, and other organs. These responses provide a comprehensive overview of the questions, demonstrating an understanding of the differences between types of vitamins, the benefits of USP labeling, and the importance of vitamin A. 90. Why do some scientists suggest that the DRI and UL for vitamin D be increased? Answer: Some scientists suggest that the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) and Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) for vitamin D be increased due to growing evidence that higher levels of vitamin D may provide additional health benefits beyond bone health. These potential benefits include improved immune function, reduced risk of chronic diseases such as cardiovascular disease, certain cancers, and autoimmune disorders, and enhanced muscle function. Additionally, many populations, especially those living in higher latitudes or with limited sun exposure, are at risk of vitamin D deficiency. Current DRI and UL levels might be insufficient to maintain optimal health in these groups, leading scientists to advocate for higher recommended intakes. 91. List 3 symptoms of vitamin A toxicity. Answer: 1. Headache and Dizziness: High doses of vitamin A can cause increased intracranial pressure, leading to headaches and dizziness. 2. Nausea and Vomiting: Excessive vitamin A intake can result in gastrointestinal disturbances, including nausea and vomiting. 3. Liver Damage: Chronic intake of high levels of vitamin A can lead to hepatotoxicity, resulting in liver damage and potential liver failure. 92. Why should individuals on anticoagulation medication avoid excess vitamin E? Answer: Individuals on anticoagulation medication should avoid excess vitamin E because vitamin E has anticoagulant properties that can interfere with the effectiveness of their medication. Excessive vitamin E can increase the risk of bleeding and hemorrhage by enhancing the effects of anticoagulant drugs such as warfarin. This can lead to complications, including severe bleeding events. It is essential for individuals on these medications to manage their vitamin E intake to maintain a balance that prevents adverse interactions and ensures their medication works effectively. 93. Why does vitamin K not have an established UL? Answer: Vitamin K does not have an established Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) because current research has not identified any adverse effects associated with high intakes of vitamin K from food or supplements in healthy individuals. The body regulates vitamin K levels efficiently, and excess amounts are excreted. Therefore, the risk of toxicity is considered low, and there is insufficient evidence to determine a specific upper limit for intake. 94. What supplements might you recommend for a 23-year-old female vegan? Answer: For a 23-year-old female vegan, the following supplements might be recommended to ensure adequate nutrient intake: 1. Vitamin B12: Essential for nerve function and the production of DNA and red blood cells. B12 is primarily found in animal products, so supplementation is crucial for vegans. 2. Vitamin D: Important for bone health and immune function. Vegans may have limited exposure to fortified foods or sunlight, necessitating supplementation. 3. Iron: While plant-based sources of iron exist, they are not as easily absorbed as heme iron from animal products. An iron supplement may be needed, especially for women of childbearing age. 4. Calcium: Necessary for bone health. Vegans might need supplements if they do not consume enough fortified plant milks or other calcium-rich plant foods. 5. Omega-3 Fatty Acids: While ALA (a type of omega-3) is found in flaxseeds, chia seeds, and walnuts, DHA and EPA (the more active forms) are found in algae-based supplements for vegans. 6. Zinc: Important for immune function and metabolism. Vegans might need supplements if their diet lacks zinc-rich plant foods like legumes, nuts, and seeds. 7. Iodine: Necessary for thyroid function. Vegans who do not consume iodized salt or sea vegetables may need supplementation. 95. List three food sources rich in vitamin D. Answer: 1. Fatty Fish: Salmon, mackerel, and sardines are excellent sources of vitamin D. 2. Fortified Foods: Many plant milks, orange juice, and cereals are fortified with vitamin D. 3. Egg Yolks: Eggs from chickens that are exposed to sunlight or fed vitamin D-enriched feed contain significant amounts of vitamin D. 96. What trace mineral aids in vitamin E function? Answer: The trace mineral that aids in vitamin E function is selenium. Selenium works synergistically with vitamin E to protect cell membranes from oxidative damage by participating in the function of antioxidant enzymes, such as glutathione peroxidase, which help to neutralize free radicals. Multiple Choice Questions 97. A patient presents with excessive bruising. After finding out that the patient dislikes vegetables, especially green leafy vegetables, you start to consider a vitamin deficiency is the cause of bruising. Which of the following vitamins is the patient most likely deficient in? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K 98. A patient presents with severe fatigue. The patient appears pale and he complains of not being able to catch his breath when going up a flight of stairs. The patient also admits to being a smoker. Which of the following vitamin is the patient most likely deficient in? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K 99. A relative complains of not being able to see very well at night when driving. She has also had dry skin and several colds over the last year. Which of the following vitamins is your relative most likely deficient in? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K 100. Of the following, who is most likely to benefit from a vitamin and mineral supplement? A. 26-year-old female who is a vegan and a smoker B. 53-year-old female who has gone through menopause and has been a life-long consumer of dairy C. 45-year-old male smoker who is otherwise healthy D. 10-year-old male with no known medical conditions 101. When purchasing supplements, why should superfluous ingredients be avoided? A. They are always toxic. B. They always interfere with the absorption of vitamins and minerals. C. They are not needed, and they add expense to the supplement. D. We need superfluous ingredients and should look for supplements that provide these. Test Bank for Wardlaw's Perspectives in Nutrition Carol Byrd-Bredbenner, Gaile Moe, Jacqueline Berning, Danita Kelley 9780078021411, 9781259933844, 9780073522722
