Chapter 10: Human Development Multiple Choice Questions 1. Dr. Spinella's research focuses on the effects of early parenting practices on future behavioural tendencies of children. It is most likely that Dr. Spinella is a(n) _______________ psychologist. A. developmental B. industrial/organizational C. physiological D. environmental Answer: A 2. What psychological disorder did the Genain quadruplets all have? A. Schizophrenia B. Autism C. Learning disabilities D. Bipolar disorder Answer: A 3. Which of the following statements is illustrative of the post hoc fallacy? A. Believing that because someone is specially trained, he or she is more likely to become a professional athlete B. Believing that because someone has benefitted from the best coaching, he or she will have a good chance of becoming a professional athlete C. Believing that because someone is muscular in body type, he or she is more likely to become a professional athlete D. Believing that because most professional athletes lift weights, weightlifting produces professional athletes Answer: D 4. The scientific study of the changes that occur in people as they age from conception to death is called A. abnormal psychology. B. gerontology. C. human development. D. maturational studies. Answer: C 5. A psychologist spends her entire career studying how and why changes occur in people throughout their lives. This psychologist is most likely working in the field of A. abnormal psychology. B. gerontology. C. human development. D. maturational studies. Answer: C 6. A researcher has studied a group of patients who have a rare terminal type of cancer, and has found that they all were regular cranberry juice drinkers. He concluded that drinking cranberry juice led to the development of the rare cancer. In this case, the researcher has most likely made an error in judgment due to A. bidirectional influences. B. the availability heuristic. C. cohort effects. D. the post hoc fallacy. Answer: D 7. Dr. Brady studies parenting practices and childhood dispositions. He has found a relationship between the two variables, and concludes that if parents treat their children with warmth and care, then their children will be well-adjusted and emotionally healthy. What problem would be associated with Dr. Brady’s conclusion? A. The post hoc fallacy B. Bidirectional influences C. Cohort effects D. Confirmation bias Answer: B 8. Which research method is most suitable for studying factors that influence behavioural change over time? A. Cohort B. Longitudinal C. Correlational D. Cross-sectional Answer: B 9. In a _______________ design, one group of participants is followed and assessed as the group ages. A. cohort B. longitudinal C. correlational D. cross-sectional Answer: B 10. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the longitudinal design? A. Individuals of different ages are being compared to one another. B. It is relatively inexpensive. C. It takes a shorter amount of time than a cross-sectional design. D. Participants may drop out due to moving, loss of interest, or death. Answer: D 11. Professor Sanchez is interested in studying development of motor skills. She collects data from 200 one-year-olds and follows and assesses them for a period of five years. What type of research design is Professor Sanchez using? A. Cohort B. Longitudinal C. Correlational D. Cross-sectional Answer: B 12. A researcher who selects a sample of people of varying ages and studies them at one point in time is, by definition, using the _______________ method. A. cohort B. longitudinal C. correlational D. cross-sectional Answer: D 13. Professor Grant is interested in studying the development of a sense of humour. She collects data from groups of 6-year-olds, 16-year-olds, 26-year-olds, and 46-year- olds. What type of research design is Professor Grant using? A. Cohort B. Longitudinal C. Correlational D. Cross-sectional Answer: D 14. Which of the following is a main disadvantage of the cross-sectional design? A. Individuals of different ages are being compared to one another. B. It is relatively expensive. C. It takes a longer amount of time than a longitudinal study. D. Participants may drop out due to moving, loss of interest, or death. Answer: A 15. The local health department of a small town has hired a research firm to study the development of cancer in residents in the town due to a suspected cancer-causing agent and environmental pollution. The researcher will compare data on participants at age 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, 70, etc., to see if there are increasing rates of cancer in the town. This type of research study is called a A. longitudinal design. B. cross-sectional design. C. cohort research design. D. correlational research design. Answer: A 16. When attempting to understand developmental transitions that people face throughout their life span, which of the following research designs would be most informative? A. Longitudinal design B. Cross-sectional design C. Cohort research design D. Correlational research design Answer: A 17. Which of the following research designs would be least effective in exploring the cognitive developmental issues facing 7-year-olds? A. Case study research design B. Cohort research design C. Correlational research design D. Cross-sectional research design Answer: A 18. Cohort effects are to _______________ as developmental effects are to _______________. A. nurture; nature B. correlations; experiments C. cross-sectional designs; longitudinal designs D. genetics; environment Answer: C 19. Dr. Kiwanis is conducting a longitudinal study on the development of externalizing behaviours in children. He samples children each year as they age, but has found that each year, his sample size is getting smaller because families are dropping out of the study. This is called _______________. A. developmental effects B. cohort effects C. attrition D. infant determinism Answer: C 20. Dr. Aragio is a pediatrician and is constantly advising parents to carefully monitor the experiences their children have within the first three years of life, as these are the most crucial in their psychological and physical development. Which view of development is consistent with Dr. Aragio’s advice? A. Childhood fragility B. Infant determinism C. Resiliency hypothesis D. Constructivism Answer: B 21. Which of the following is not one of the intersections of nature and nurture in developmental psychology? A. Gene expression B. Gene-environment interactions C. Natural selection of traits D. Nature via nurture Answer: C 22. _______________ refers to heredity and _______________ refers to environmental influences. A. Nature; nurture B. Cognition; emotion C. Nurture; behavioural genetics D. Cross-sectional; longitudinal Answer: A 23. Dr. Smith believes people who are very aggressive have become so because of their life experiences. Dr. Goldberg believes people are more or less aggressive from birth because of genetic factors. Which of the following terms best describes an issue in human development that is highlighted by their disagreement? A. Nature versus nurture B. Cognition versus emotion C. Classical versus operant conditioning D. Cross-sectional studies versus longitudinal studies Answer: A 24. Juan and Carlos are identical twins. Juan was raised by his father and mother, and Carlos was accidentally placed with another family after a “mix up” at the hospital. At the age of 15, both boys “ran into each other” at a football game and noticed how they appeared to be “mirror images of each other.” After proving they were twins by genetic testing, the families discussed some of the differences between the boys. Juan is very athletic and intelligent and excels in basketball but does not take school seriously and has F’s in all subjects. Carlos is also athletic and intelligent, and excels in baseball and makes straight A’s as a result of his strict home life and study routine. Although they are identical twins, what do you think accounts for the differences in their academic performance based on the research? A. Nature B. Nurture C. School district superintendent D. Teacher appraisals of performance Answer: B 25. Each of the 10 children born to Ernest and Elvira Orangeburg has been born with red hair. Each child is also very intelligent and athletic. The Orangeburg’s are expecting an 11th child, who is also likely to be born with the same traits according to _______________ as evidenced in the _______________. A. nurture; nature versus nurture controversy B. nature; nature versus nurture controversy C. environmental factors; conception theory D. teratogens; conception theory Answer: B 26. Sally has genes that predispose her to anxiety problems. However, she was not an anxious person until she was the victim of a mugging. This provides an example of the phenomenon of _______________. A. nature via nurture B. gene expression C. infant determinism D. gene-environment interaction Answer: B 27. Which of the following is true concerning the nature–nurture debate? A. Most researchers are either pro-nature or pro-nurture when describing the causes of human behaviour. B. People with genetic predispositions for anxiety will eventually express this type of behaviour. C. Gene expression is not substantially influenced by the environment. D. Most researchers believe that genes and environment interact to influence human behaviour. Answer: D 28. The heart, lungs, and brain begin to form during the _______________ period of prenatal development. A. blastocyst B. embryonic C. zygotic D. fetal Answer: B 29. The term _______________ refers to a ball of identical cells early in pregnancy that have not yet begun to take on any specific function in a body part. A. embryo B. blastocyst C. fetus D. neonate Answer: B 30. The prenatal period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional is called the _______________ period. A. blastocyst B. embryonic C. zygotic D. fetal Answer: D 31. Which of the following describes the fetal period? A. The period during which the zygote moves down to the uterus and begins to implant in the lining B. The period during which the major organs and structures of the organism first develop C. The period during which the umbilical cord develops D. The period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional Answer: D 32. Tameeka is at a point in her pregnancy during which she is experiencing muscle contractions and movement and kicks. Which period of prenatal development is Tameeka currently experiencing? A. Blastocyst B. Embryonic C. Zygotic D. Fetal Answer: D 33. At fertilization, the chromosomes from the father’s sperm unite with the chromosomes from the mother’s egg, creating a new cell called a(n) A. blastocyst. B. embryo. C. zygote. D. genome. Answer: C 34. In the process of fertilization the _______________ and _______________ unite, resulting in a single cell. A. sperm; egg B. zygote; sperm C. embryo; zygote D. egg; fetus Answer: A 35. Which of the following describes the embryonic period? A. The period during which the zygote moves down to the uterus and begins to implant in the lining B. The period during which the major organs and structures of the organism first develop C. The period during which the umbilical cord develops D. The period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional Answer: B 36. Tara is at a point in her pregnancy during which the major organs and structures of her baby are first developing. Which period of prenatal development is Tara currently experiencing? A. Fetal B. Embryonic C. Placental D. Germinal Answer: B 37. Emily and her husband are thrilled as they peer into Emily’s uterus by means of an ultrasound. The physician reports that the pregnancy appears normal, and that their baby’s fingers, toes, heart, and circulatory system are developing as expected. The couple learns that the baby is only 2 cm long. Given this information, the current stage of prenatal development is the A. fetal stage. B. embryonic stage. C. placental stage. D. germinal stage. Answer: B 38. A fertilized cell is called a(n) _______________ when it consists of identical cells that have not begun to take on specific functions, and a(n) _______________ once the cells begin to differentiate and form bodily structures and organs. A. zygote; embryo B. blastocyst; fetus C. embryo; fetus D. blastocyst; embryo Answer: D 39. At what point in a pregnancy has the heart begun to beat in the developing child? A. By 18 days after fertilization B. By the ninth week C. By the second trimester D. At the moment of birth Answer: B 40. Which of the following terms is used to describe any substance, such as a drug, chemical, or virus that can bring about a birth defect? A. Teratogen B. Critical period C. Carcinogen D. Biohazard Answer: A 41. Greta’s child has facial deformities, a smaller than normal head, heart defects, mental retardation, learning difficulties, and delayed growth. If these defects can be traced to a teratogen used by Greta when she was pregnant, which was she most likely abusing? A. Nicotine B. Cocaine C. Marijuana D. Alcohol Answer: D 42. What are some of the common consequences to a child whose mother smoked while pregnant? A. Increased birth weight and lethargy B. Lower birth weight and short stature C. Severe hearing loss and heart defects D. Severely deformed limbs and muscle spasms Answer: B 43. The process of _______________ is responsible for the remarkable rate of neural development in the fetal brain. A. proliferation B. neural plasticity C. neural migration D. neurogenesis Answer: A 44. Which of the following is not an example of a teratogen? A. A mother contracting the H1N1 flu during pregnancy B. A mother consuming alcoholic beverages during pregnancy C. A mother who uses harsh chemicals to colour and perm her hair D. A mother who suffers from depression while she is pregnant Answer: C 45. Problems such as _______________ pose a higher risk of infant death, infection, and developmental disorders than premature delivery. A. low birth weight B. difficult labour and delivery C. lack of nourishment from breast milk D. overdue delivery Answer: A 46. The viability point, the point in pregnancy at which infants can typically survive on their own is around _______________ weeks. A. 18 B. 25 C. 36 D. 40 Answer: B 47. The rooting reflex refers to a newborn's tendency to A. open the mouth to seek food when touched on the cheek. B. close the eyes when startled by loud noises. C. cry when approached by unfamiliar people. D. stand up and attempt to walk when placed on the knees. Answer: A 48. Infant reflexes are A. innate involuntary behaviour patterns. B. voluntary behaviour patterns. C. learned. D. not used as a means for survival. Answer: A 49. Allison is a new mother, and notices that when she gently touches her daughter’s cheek, she opens her mouth and tries to suck on Allison’s finger. This reflex is called the A. sucking reflex. B. rooting reflex. C. babkin reflex. D. moro reflex. Answer: B 50. _______________ is learned through trial and error, whereas _______________ is a reflexive behaviour. A. Grasping; rooting B. Walking; grasping C. Crawling; sucking D. Standing; crawling Answer: C 51. Research on children’s development of motor milestones suggests that A. this process is primarily a biological one and reflects innately programmed changes consistent across cultures. B. motor developments are dependent on physical maturation, which is guided by our biological changes. C. motor development is purely an environmental process, and is not limited by physiological constraints. D. while there are physiological limits on development, parenting styles and culture shape the variations in motor development. Answer: D 52. Which of the following infants is most likely to have the fastest motor development? A. An infant born in Peru B. An infant born in the West Indies C. An infant born in Northern Canada to an Inuit family D. An infant born in China Answer: B 53. Over the course of development, the absolute size of the head continues to _______________, but grows at a _______________ rate than the torso or legs. A. decrease; slower B. increase; slower C. decrease; faster D. decrease; faster Answer: B 54. The size of the head, in proportion to the rest of the body, is about _______________ percent of the total height when an individual is 5 months old. A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30 Answer: D 55. The size of the head, in proportion to the rest of the body, is about _______________ percent of the total height when an individual is 26 years old. A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30 Answer: A 56. The body's reproductive organs are called A. thyroid glands. B. primary sex characteristics. C. secondary sex characteristics. D. adrenal glands. Answer: B 57. Breast development is to _______________ sex characteristics as penis enlargement is to _______________ sex characteristics. A. primary; primary B. primary; secondary C. secondary; primary D. secondary; secondary Answer: C 58. What is the best explanation for why the age of menarche has decreased over the past century from around 15 to around 13 years of age? A. Advances in technology correspond to an earlier age of being able to carry an infant to term. B. Evolutionary changes are linked to taller and more physically strong women that develop earlier. C. The change is probably due primarily to better nutrition and health care. D. The decrease reflects the revolving cycle where women are having children younger and, in turn, the age of reproduction of their children is younger, and so on. Answer: C 59. Physical maturity is most closely related to the onset of which of the following? A. Spermarche B. Menarche C. Androgens D. Secondary sex characteristics Answer: B 60. During menarche adolescents experience A. the end of menstruation. B. the first ejaculation. C. the start of menstruation. D. voice changes. Answer: C 61. Which is an example of a secondary sex characteristic? A. Voice change B. Ovaries C. Sperm D. Genitals Answer: A 62. Puberty is associated with the onset of A. generativity. B. menopause. C. menarche. D. dementia. Answer: C 63. Menopause refers to A. the loss of sexual interest occurring in late adulthood. B. the onset of puberty in early adulthood. C. the loss of sexual potency in late adulthood. D. the end of the menstruation period in middle adulthood. Answer: D 64. The period of five to ten years during which a woman’s reproductive system begins to decline is called A. climacteric. B. perimenopause. C. menopause. D. postmenopause. Answer: C 65. Sarah is in her forties. Her menstrual cycle is irregular and she is experiencing “hot flashes” that are keeping her awake at night. The changes Sarah is experiencing are called A. climacteric. B. perimenopause. C. menopause. D. postmenopause. Answer: C 66. The cessation of menstruation and ovulation is called A. climacteric. B. perimenopause. C. menopause. D. postmenopause. Answer: C 67. Gail has just turned 53 and is beginning menopause. Gail is likely to begin experiencing A. hot flashes. B. depression. C. a significant loss of appetite. D. a significant loss of physical energy. Answer: A 68. _______________ tasks are more affected by aging in adulthood relative to _______________ tasks. A. Cognitive; motor B. Simple; cognitive C. Complex; simple D. Motor; complex Answer: C 69. Researchers who study _______________ examine how children learn, think, reason, communicate, and remember. A. moral development B. cognitive development C. psychosocial development D. emotional development Answer: B 70. Jean Piaget is best known for his pioneering work in the area of _______________ development. A. cognitive B. social C. identity D. psychosocial Answer: A 71. Jean Piaget is noted for his theory of _______________ development. A. cognitive B. social C. identity D. psychosocial Answer: A 72. Theories of cognitive development can be differentiated based on all of the following except A. whether development was stagelike or continuous. B. what was proposed as the principle source of learning. C. whether changes resulted from environmental or genetic influences. D. whether developmental accounts were domain-general or domain-specific. Answer: C 73. Piaget believed that cognitive change is marked by _______________, which refers to maintaining a balance between our experience in the world and our thoughts about it. A. assimilation B. equilibration C. accommodation D. constructivism Answer: B 74. According to Piaget, what are the two adjustment processes that children use to maintain equilibration? A. Sensorimotor experiences and egocentrism B. Concrete and formal operations C. Accommodation and assimilation D. Object permanence and conservation Answer: C 75. According to Piaget, equilibration involves the processes of A. conservation and scaffolding. B. maturation and conservation. C. egocentrism and constructivism. D. assimilation and accommodation. Answer: D 76. Sarah has developed a sucking scheme as a way of understanding objects around her. Sarah's behaviour of sucking on a harmonica to make music is an example of A. assimilation. B. conservation. C. equilibration. D. accommodation. Answer: A 77. Marko believed that all red go-carts were fast until he drove a very slow one at the fair. Marko's revised views on red go-carts illustrates A. equilibration. B. accommodation. C. conservation. D. assimilation. Answer: B 78. Your little brother has a big ball of clay. While he watches, you roll the ball of clay into a long snake-like shape. He begins to cry because he thinks he has less clay now. Which of Piaget’s stages is your brother likely to be in? A. Formal operational B. Preoperational C. Sensorimotor D. Concrete operational Answer: B 79. Which of the following is the correct order of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development? A. Preoperational; concrete operations; sensorimotor; formal operations B. Concrete operations; sensorimotor; preoperational; formal operations C. Sensorimotor; preoperational; concrete operations; formal operations D. Preoperational; sensorimotor; concrete operations; formal operations Answer: C 80. In Piaget's theory, the stage of development between birth and 2 years of age, in which the individual uses senses and motor abilities to interact with objects in the environment, is called the _______________ stage. A. formal operational B. preoperational C. sensorimotor D. concrete operational Answer: C 81. Piaget’s term for the knowledge that an object exists even when it is out of sight is A. conservation. B. object permanence. C. centration. D. egocentrism. Answer: B 82. During the sensorimotor stage, children lack both object permanence and _______________. A. conservation B. deferred imitation C. egocentrism D. pre operations Answer: B 83. Young infants cannot appreciate the carnival game in which a pea seems to disappear from under a walnut because they have not yet developed a sense of A. conservation. B. object permanence. C. centration. D. egocentrism. Answer: B 84. Your little sister picks up objects, feels every part of them, and then puts them in her mouth. What stage of Jean Piaget’s model of cognitive development does this behaviour suggest she is in? A. Formal operational B. Preoperational C. Sensorimotor D. Concrete operational Answer: C 85. According to Piaget, _______________ represents the beginning of the child’s language development and symbolic thought. A. conservation B. object permanence C. centration D. egocentrism Answer: B 86. According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development between 2 and 7 years of age, in which the child learns to use language as a means of exploring the world, is the _______________ stage. A. formal operational B. preoperational C. sensorimotor D. concrete operational Answer: B 87. Which of the following is a limitation on the cognitive life of children in Piaget’s preoperational stage? A. Abstract concepts B. Object permanence C. Hypothetical thinking D. Egocentrism Answer: D 88. What term is used to describe a child’s inability to see the world through anyone else’s eyes except his or her own? A. Disparity B. Narcissism C. Egocentrism D. Autonomy Answer: C 89. According to Piaget, the ability to understand that simply changing the appearance of an object does not change the object’s nature is known as A. centration. B. object permanence. C. conservation. D. reversibility. Answer: C 90. In Piaget’s theory, the stage of cognitive development between 7 and 11 years of age, in which an individual becomes capable of logical thought processes but is not yet capable of abstract thinking, is the _______________ stage. A. formal operational B. preoperational C. sensorimotor D. concrete operational Answer: D 91. In which of Piaget’s stages does the child develop conservation? A. Formal operational B. Preoperational C. Sensorimotor D. Concrete operational Answer: D 92. Which of Jean Piaget’s stages of cognitive development is characterized by abstract thinking and the creation of theories? A. Formal operational B. Preoperational C. Sensorimotor D. Concrete operational Answer: A 93. A characteristic that first shows up in the formal operational stage is A. irreversibility. B. egocentrism. C. abstract thinking. D. logical thinking. Answer: C 94. Which type of thought does not begin until the stage of formal operational thought? A. Thinking about what is possible B. Thinking about what is logical C. Thinking about whether an object exists when it is out of sight D. Thinking about only one feature of an object rather than taking all features into consideration Answer: A 95. Piaget’s theory provided a _______________ account of cognitive development, and Vygotsky’s theory was considered a _______________. A. stagelike; continuous B. continuous; stagelike C. domain-specific; domain-general D. domain-general; domain-specific Answer: D 96. During the _______________ stage of development, a child will not have developed object permanence. A. concrete operational B. formal operational C. preoperational D. sensorimotor Answer: D 97. Karla understands her world by grasping, sucking, and physically handling objects in her path. Karla is in Piaget's _______________ stage of development. A. formal operational B. preoperational C. sensorimotor D. concrete operational Answer: C 98. When her older brother hides behind the sofa, Carmen looks behind the sofa to find him. Carmen has developed A. object permanence. B. equilibration. C. assimilation. D. conservation. Answer: A 99. According to Piaget, egocentrism involves A. the perception that others view the world as you do. B. the perception that things exist even if not picked up by your senses. C. the perception that you might be incorrect in your judgments. D. the perception that others view the world differently than you do. Answer: A 100. Miss Johnson gave Mark and Tia equal sized lumps of clay. Tia immediately rolled hers into a long shape. Mark cried and complained that Tia had received more clay. Mark's behaviour represents A. difficulty with formal operational tasks. B. an inability to accommodate. C. an inability to conserve. D. an inability to assimilate. Answer: C 101. Piaget overestimated the degree to which A. prenatal factors influence the rate at which skills emerge. B. cultural factors influence the rate of skill development. C. social factors influence skill development. D. object permanence develops in children. Answer: D 102. An inability to perform conservation tasks is associated with the _______________ stage, whereas children lacking in object permanence would be in the _______________ stage. A. concrete operational; preoperational B. preoperational; sensorimotor C. sensorimotor; concrete operational D. formal operational; preoperational Answer: B 103. A seven-year-old is asked to imagine he has a third eye, which could be placed anywhere on the body. When asked where he would like to place the extra eye, the seven-year-old is likely to say A. “Between my other two eyes.” B. “On my back.” C. “In the palm of my hand.” D. “In my stomach.” Answer: A 104. Which of the following is not a criticism of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development? A. The methodologies may be culturally biased. B. Children’s ability to report their reasoning influenced interpretations. C. Children’s development may be more stagelike than Piaget believed. D. Some children operated at different stage levels for different tasks. Answer: C 105. During which of Piaget's stages does a child demonstrate the ability reason about abstract ideas and novel information? A. Preoperational B. Concrete operations C. Formal operations D. Sensorimotor Answer: C 106. Ken is able to perform mathematical operations only if he can use manipulatives and familiar examples in working up his answers. Ken is in Piaget's _______________ stage. A. formal operations B. sensorimotor C. concrete operations D. preoperational Answer: C 107. According to Piaget, students begin to successfully complete division and multiplication problems during the _______________ stage. A. formal operations B. sensorimotor C. preoperational D. concrete operations Answer: D 108. According to Piaget, egocentrism is to _______________ as conservation is to _______________. A. preoperations; formal operations B. preoperations; concrete operations C. formal operations; preoperations D. concrete operations; formal operations Answer: B 109. Piaget's theory applies to such topics as A. predicting cognitive developmental gains in college students. B. exploring gender differences in cognitive development. C. creating lesson plans for first grade students. D. designing high school curricula for gifted and talented students. Answer: C 110. Asking students to predict how the course of history may have changed if the first prime minister were a woman would likely motivate students in which of Piaget's stages to answer thoroughly? A. Sensorimotor B. Preoperational C. Formal operations D. Concrete operations Answer: C 111. Piaget acknowledged that some children progressed more in one cognitive domain than another, a phenomenon he called _______________. A. cross-stage progression B. perioperational C. horizontal décalage D. multimodal cognition Answer: C 112. Nathan is trying to construct a pendulum to figure out what makes a pendulum swing faster or slower. At his current stage of cognitive development, he is unable to successfully construct this himself, but is receptive to learning the skill with the assistance of others. According to Vygotsky, what developmental stage is Nathan at? A. Scaffolding B. Concrete operations C. Formal operations D. Zone of proximal development Answer: D 113. According to Vygotsky, cognitive development results from A. genetics. B. biological maturation. C. innate intelligence. D. scaffolding. Answer: D 114. Whereas Piaget saw cognitive development as a result of individual discovery and a child’s interaction with objects, Vygotsky attributed cognitive development to A. biological changes in the brain. B. unconscious factors. C. interaction between a child and skilled people. D. completing activities in isolation. Answer: C 115. According to Vygotsky, which of these is a key factor in a child’s cognitive development? A. Balanced diet B. Social interactions C. Genetic endowment D. Successful resolution of psychosocial crises Answer: B 116. Which of the following statements is representative of Vygotsky's approach to learning? A. One's course of cognitive development can be significantly influenced by instructional style and scaffolding. B. All children pass through the same cognitive developmental stages at similar points in time. C. One's course of cognitive development is genetically fixed and cannot be significantly influenced by social factors. D. To prevent frustration, children should be presented with tasks that they can fully complete unaided. Answer: A 117. As compared to Piaget's theory, Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development best explains how a child learns to A. stand upright for the first time. B. speak for the first time. C. crawl for the first time. D. cross a street safely for the first time. Answer: D 118. Most contemporary theories of cognitive development differ from both Piaget and Vygotsky as they argue that learning is A. dependent on personality factors. B. gradual rather than stagelike. C. based on general domains rather than modules. D. dependent on innate knowledge not social interaction. Answer: B 119. Which is true concerning research related to the “Mozart Effect”? A. No evidence exists supporting the claims that exposure to classical music improves cognitive functioning. B. Currently the market for classical music videos and toys has dropped off. C. Weak evidence exists supporting the claims that exposure to classical music improves cognitive functioning. D. Strong evidence exists supporting the claims that exposure to classical music improves cognitive functioning. Answer: C 120. Which of the following is not one of the flags of critical thinking that is related to the Mozart Effect? A. Occam’s razor B. Ruling out rival hypotheses C. Falsifiability D. Replicability Answer: B 121. The belief that children will have increased cognitive abilities if their parents play classical music for them during infancy reflects A. a pro-nurture perspective. B. a belief that genes set limits on cognitive ability. C. a pro-nature perspective. D. a belief that cognitive ability is genetically determined. Answer: A 122. If little Timmy is given an object permanence task where his response is not reliant on physical coordination, research suggests that he should demonstrate an understanding of object permanence by A. around 5 months old. B. around 8 months old. C. around 12 months old. D. around 16 months old. Answer: A 123. Research has demonstrated that children learn _______________ very early in cognitive development, and prefer novel stimuli to pictures of stimuli they are already familiar with. A. accommodation B. assimilation C. categorization D. conservation Answer: C 124. Both infants and adults may hold misconceptions about the behaviour of physical objects in the world. This is known as _______________. A. object impermanence B. naïve physics C. personal fables D. theory of mind Answer: B 125. In tests of self-concept, approximately how old are infants before they can recognize themselves in a mirror as distinct from another child? A. Approximately 5 months old B. Approximately 1 year old C. Approximately 1.5 years old D. Approximately 2 years old Answer: B 126. Researchers are testing 3 groups of children aged 2½, 3½, and 4½ years old. In order to determine whether they have attained theory of mind, they give each group of children the _______________ task, which examines children’s ability to understand that someone else believes something they know to be wrong. A. conservation B. object permanence C. self-concept D. false belief Answer: D 127. At five years old, Sammy is better able to understand his friends' feelings as compared to when he was three years old. Sammy is acquiring a A. sense of self-reflection. B. theory of mind. C. sense of identity. D. self-concept. Answer: B 128. What is one of the most difficult mathematical concepts for children to master? A. Counting in a numerical series. B. That the size of entities is irrelevant to quantity. C. Numeric words refer to specific quantities of an object. D. The ordinality of numbers. Answer: B 129. Johnny has two mini-donuts and his sister has two full-sized donuts. Johnny's understanding that he and his sister have the same number of donuts even though hers are bigger illustrates that he A. knows that numbers are an amount. B. knows that number words refer to specific quantities. C. knows that the size of entities isn’t relevant to quantity. D. knows that numbers are ordered from smallest to largest in quantity. Answer: C 130. Jerry is considered a reckless 17-year old by his parents. He often engages in risky behaviour, drives too fast, has been caught experimenting with drugs and alcohol, and has gotten into numerous fights with peers. From a biological perspective, Jerry’s behaviour can be explained by a lack of maturation of the _______________ until late adolescence or early adulthood. A. hypothalamus B. parietal lobes C. frontal lobes D. limbic system Answer: C 131. According to David Elkind, adolescents who feel that they are unique, special, and invincible are operating under what he referred to as _______________. A. a personal fable B. false beliefs C. an identity crisis D. a zone of proximal development Answer: A 132. Older adults perform _______________ on most _______________ tests than do younger adults. A. better; vocabulary and knowledge B. better; free recall C. worse; recognition memory D. worse; problem solving Answer: A 133. In general, which of the following individuals would show the highest performance on a series of vocabulary and knowledge tests? A. 73 year old Joan B. 45 year old Leslie C. 26 year old Edward D. 17 year old Sienna Answer: A 134. A zookeeper finds that a flock of geese follow her wherever she moves because she is the first object that they see after hatching. What is this situation an example of? A. Imprinting B. Trust C. Contact comfort D. Insecure attachment Answer: A 135. Harlow's study of infant rhesus monkeys showed that A. early imprinting led to the strongest attachments of monkeys to their surrogate mothers. B. surrogate mothers who were soft to the touch but did not provide food and water produced the strongest attachment responses. C. surrogate mothers who were inconsistent in providing food and water produced the weakest attachment responses. D. surrogate mothers who were cold to the touch but provided food and water produced the strongest attachment responses. Answer: B 136. Infants are extremely sociable and seek out interactions with others until approximately 8 months of age, when they start to experience _______________. A. imprinting B. attachment C. stranger anxiety D. critical periods Answer: C 137. Carla’s parents have been pleased at what a happy baby she has been around any adult, but start to become concerned when at around 8 months old, Carla begins to cry and become upset when others try to play with her. According to this example, Carla is most likely reacting this way due to _______________. A. imprinting B. stranger anxiety C. attachment formation D. critical periods Answer: B 138. According to Lorenz, if newly hatched geese are kept isolated for the first 36 hours after birth, they do not experience _______________, which he suggested as a _______________ for attachment. A. imprinting; sensitive period B. contact comfort; critical period C. imprinting; critical period D. contact comfort; sensitive period Answer: C 139. Ben rescues a cat from an alley in his neighbourhood. The cat is about 2 years old and appears to have lived on the street since it was born. Despite what Ben tries, he is having a lot of trouble getting the cat behave less “wildly” and to bond with him. According to attachment research, what is the best explanation for this situation? A. Kittens have a critical period for bonding to humans within the first week after birth. B. Wild cats take awhile to respond to touch but will eventually experience contact comfort. C. Animals that have been abandoned also develop insecure attachment styles. D. Cats appear to have a sensitive period after which bonding to humans is difficult. Answer: D 140. Which of the following is an example of imprinting? A. A young child imitates the behaviours of older siblings. B. A young child's behaviour is influenced by peer pressure. C. Young geese demonstrate an attachment to a round ball. D. Young geese scatter away in fear when a ball approaches them. Answer: C 141. Against prevailing ideas at the time, Harlow’s research with rhesus monkeys in the 1950s demonstrated that attachment was A. associated with the nourishment supplied by mothers by providing milk and food. B. not determined by nourishment or comfort as monkeys did not bond to either surrogate. C. dependent upon biological relations as greatest bonding occurs in mother-infant pairs. D. more associated with contact comfort than providing nourishment and sustenance. Answer: D 142. Which of the following statements about temperament is accurate? A. Temperament reflects basic emotional styles, is early appearing, and largely genetic in origin. B. Temperament is an extension of our personality and is shaped by our early attachment experiences. C. Temperament develops by the age of around 2, when infants have learned a consistent way of responding to situations. D. Temperaments are environmentally determined and difficult to change once established. Answer: A 143. Which of the following is not one of the three major temperamental styles? A. Slow-to-warm-up B. Difficult C. Anxious D. Easy Answer: C 144. Frederica is an infant who is easily scared by unfamiliar faces, loud noises, or moving toys. Her temperament style would be classified as _______________. A. slow-to-warm-up B. difficult C. anxious D. behavioural inhibition Answer: D 145. What percentage of children could be classified as behaviourally inhibited? A. 10 B. 15 C. 25 D. 40 Answer: A 146. In contrast to attachment style, temperament is _______________. A. late appearing and environmentally determined B. early appearing and environmentally determined C. early appearing and genetic in origin D. late appearing and genetic in origin Answer: C 147. Which of the following represents cross-cultural differences in attachment study research? A. More infants from Japan fall into the insecure-avoidant category as compared to North American infants. B. Infants from Japan are more likely to react to their mom's departure with indifference as compared to North American infants. C. More infants from Japan fall into the insecure-anxious category as compared to North American infants. D. More infants from North America display disorganized attachments as compared to infants from Japan. Answer: C 148. Researchers studying infant stress levels using the “Strange Situation” method have found that A. most infants are not upset with the mom when she departs because they know she will return shortly. B. most infants are happy with the mom when she departs and they remain happy with her when she returns. C. most infants are upset with the mom when she departs but are happy when she returns. D. most infants are upset with the mom when she departs and remain upset at her when she returns. Answer: C 149. The emotional bond that forms between an infant and a primary caregiver is called A. temperament. B. trust. C. attachment. D. habituation. Answer: C 150. Attachment usually takes place within the _______________ of life. A. first year B. first month C. first six months D. first four months Answer: C 151. What was Mary Ainsworth trying to determine when she devised an experimental method called the Strange Situation? A. The nature of gestural communication between mothers and babies B. Aspects of purposeful exploration as the baby investigates a strange environment C. Parental discipline styles in the first year of life D. The nature of attachment between caretakers and babies Answer: D 152. Mary Ainsworth observed that securely attached infants A. do not seem to care when the mother leaves the room and do not seek her out on her return. B. protest loudly when the mother leaves but resist contact with her when she returns. C. cry if the mother leaves the room, are easily soothed, and welcome her back when she returns. D. are not concerned upon separation but cry to be picked up and held on her return. Answer: C 153. Mothers who were unresponsive, insensitive, and coldly rejecting were associated with _______________ attached infants. A. securely B. avoidant C. ambivalent D. disorganized Answer: B 154. _______________ attached babies in Ainsworth’s study were clinging and unwilling to explore, very upset by the stranger regardless of the mother’s presence, protested mightily when the mother left, were hard to soothe, and had mixed reactions upon mother’s return. A. Securely B. Avoidant C. Anxious D. Disorganized Answer: C 155. Children involved in “Strange Situation” research change attachment styles frequently in follow-up studies, meaning that this method of measuring attachment style lacks A. honesty. B. integrity. C. validity. D. reliability. Answer: D 156. When placed in “Strange Situations” with surrogate mothers, Harlow's monkeys demonstrated signs of A. imprinting. B. authoritative attachment. C. insecure attachment. D. stranger anxiety. Answer: C 157. Research involving the “Strange Situation” stress test reveals that A. most infants are happy when their mothers leave and are upset when they return. B. most infants are upset when their mothers leave and are happy when they return. C. most infants are not upset when their mothers leave because they believe that she will return shortly. D. most infants are upset when their mothers leave and when they return because they feel neglected. Answer: B 158. Mariska’s mother has just left her in a strange situation. She responds with panic initially, and when her mother returns, seeks attention from her mother by reaching for her but yet squirms when her mother picks her up. It is most likely that Mariska has a(n) _______________ attachment style. A. secure B. anxious C. avoidant D. disorganized Answer: B 159. Concluding that the results of the Strange Situation Test determine an infant’s attachment is associated with A. high reliability. B. the mono-operation bias. C. the confirmation bias. D. a lack of falsifiability. Answer: B 160. Decades of research on parenting styles has indicated that A. social development of children can suffer if they have genetic predispositions toward problem behaviours that cannot be corrected by parenting styles. B. if parents provide their children with the average expectable environment, then most of their children will probably turn out just fine. C. authoritative parenting styles are associated with the most successful attachments, temperaments, and well-adjusted children that are social and emotionally healthy into adulthood. D. the most appropriate parenting style to use may vary according to the temperament of the child, and should all vary in levels of permissiveness, authoritarianism, and authoritativeness. Answer: B 161. Authoritarian parents are _______________ disciplinarians and they are _______________ with punishment. A. strict; slow B. strict; quick C. lenient; slow D. lenient; quick Answer: B 162. The Carmichaels do not believe in punishing their children; instead they shape their children's behaviours by praising them and showering them with affection. This parenting style most closely resembles A. authoritarian parenting. B. authoritative parenting. C. permissive parenting. D. uninvolved parenting. Answer: C 163. Elementary school teachers from China would likely employ a(n) style of teaching. A. permissive B. uninvolved C. authoritative D. authoritarian Answer: D 164. Which of the following parenting styles is associated with the most favourable outcomes for children? A. Authoritative B. Permissive C. Authoritarian D. Uninvolved Answer: A 165. Which of the following is true regarding parenting research? A. Fathers spend more time with their babies on average than do mothers. B. Children tend to select mothers over fathers as playmates. C. Fathers display similar levels of affection toward their babies as do mothers. D. Children of single fathers do just as well on measures of well-being as do children of single mothers. Answer: D 166. When parents experience only mild conflict before a divorce, the seeming effects of divorce on children are _______________ than when parents experience intense conflict before a divorce. A. less severe B. more severe C. minimal D. negligible Answer: B 167. Sandra is 4-years old and has been left alone in a room with a plate of cookies and a bell. Sandra was instructed by Dr. Mischel that if she could wait 15 minutes, she could get an even bigger reward, like two cookies, but if she could not wait she was to ring the bell to summon the experimenter. Sandra was able to wait for the bigger reward across several trials. What does this predict about Sandra’s behaviour as an adolescent? A. Although she is able to delay gratification now, she will experience a rebound effect and engage in frequent impulsive behaviour in her teenage years. B. Sandra has a calm temperament but restrained individuals who constantly delay their gratification tend to explode violently as adults. C. Sandra will likely have a superior ability to cope with stress and frustration in adolescence and not engage in as much impulsive and reckless behaviours as other teenagers. D. Although Sandra displays early self-control, these behaviours are unrelated to her behaviour in adolescence. Answer: C 168. Research investigating the causes of gender differences in behaviour suggests that A. during infancy there are no gender differences between the toy preferences of boys and girls. B. females exposed to excessive levels of testosterone during birth tend to dislike rough and tumble play. C. no gender differences have been found between the toy preferences of male and female monkeys. D. females exposed to excessive levels of testosterone during birth tend to enjoy rough and tumble play. Answer: D 169. Melissa identifies herself as a female; however she tends to act like a “tomboy” hanging out with mostly males and playing hockey and football. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to this example? A. Melissa’s gender identity is male. B. Melissa is likely experiencing transsexualism but is unaware of her gender identity. C. Melissa is experiencing sex segregation in her biological and social roles. D. Melissa’s gender role is associated with masculine behaviours. Answer: D 170. According to Erikson, which of the following is true? A. In most cases psychosocial crises go unresolved with no detrimental effects on social development. B. In most cases psychosocial crises are unsuccessfully resolved, leading to detrimental effects on social development. C. Unsuccessful resolution of a crisis has no effect on whether a future crisis will be successfully resolved. D. Unsuccessful resolution of a crisis decreases the likelihood that a future crisis will be successfully resolved. Answer: D 171. Formal operational thinking is likely required to successfully resolve Erikson's A. identity versus role confusion crisis. B. initiative versus guilt crisis. C. autonomy versus shame and doubt crisis. D. trust versus mistrust crisis. Answer: A 172. Jeremy is 17 years old. According to Erikson, his chief task will be acquiring a sense of A. identity. B. initiative. C. autonomy. D. trust. Answer: A 173. Brad is 17 and is looking into career options. He is currently deciding whether he wants to become a gourmet chef or a race car driver. Brad is at what stage of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial development? A. Integrity versus despair B. Intimacy versus isolation C. Generativity versus stagnation D. Identity versus role confusion Answer: D 174. During the autonomy versus shame and doubt stage of development, the key social agent influencing the resolution of the crisis is likely to be A. parents. B. friends. C. television and media. D. society of peers. Answer: A 175. Like any 4-month-old, Amy depends on her parents to feed her and to change her diapers. When Amy cries, her devoted parents quickly respond to her needs. According to Erikson, Amy is developing a sense of A. trust. B. mistrust. C. autonomy. D. initiative. Answer: A 176. Autonomy is to shame and doubt like _______________ is to despair. A. ego integrity B. initiative C. identity D. stagnation Answer: A 177. Which of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial crises revolves around the child’s learning to direct his or her own behaviour? A. Trust versus mistrust B. Initiative versus guilt C. Industry versus inferiority D. Autonomy versus shame and doubt Answer: D 178. Erikson’s theory of social development viewed the period from ages 3 to 6, his third stage, as characterized by the major challenge of A. identity versus role diffusion. B. industry versus inferiority. C. initiative versus guilt. D. autonomy versus shame and doubt. Answer: C 179. In Erikson’s _______________ stage of psychosocial development, preschoolers are challenged to control their own behaviour. A. trust versus mistrust B. autonomy versus shame and doubt C. initiative versus guilt D. industry versus inferiority Answer: C 180. Between the ages of 5 and 12 children strive to develop a sense of competence arising from their work and effort. Erikson refers to this stage of life as A. trust versus mistrust. B. autonomy versus shame and doubt. C. initiative versus guilt. D. industry versus inferiority. Answer: C 181. According to Erikson, if an elementary school child fails to succeed in learning new skills and knowledge, the result may be the development of a sense of A. stagnation. B. inferiority. C. shame and doubt. D. role confusion. Answer: B 182. Kent was inconsistently cared for as an infant and consequently he struggles with issues of commitment in adulthood. Kent may have experienced difficulty resolving crises in which two stages? A. Initiative versus guilt and autonomy versus shame and doubt B. Identity versus identity confusion and generativity versus stagnation C. Industry versus inferiority and ego integrity versus despair D. Trust versus mistrust and intimacy versus isolation Answer: D 183. Erikson saw the major challenge of young adulthood as that of A. initiative versus guilt. B. generativity versus stagnation. C. ego integrity versus despair. D. intimacy versus isolation. Answer: D 184. According to Erikson, an emotional and psychological closeness that is based on the ability to trust, share, and care, while still maintaining one’s sense of self, is called A. bonding. B. attraction. C. attachment. D. intimacy. Answer: D 185. Erik Erikson saw the major challenge of middle adulthood as that of A. initiative versus guilt. B. generativity versus stagnation. C. ego integrity versus despair. D. intimacy versus isolation. Answer: B 186. Aaron is a middle-aged physician. He gives back to the community by acting as a mentor to teenagers interested in entering the medical profession. Erikson would say that Aaron is experiencing A. intimacy. B. identity. C. generativity. D. integrity. Answer: C 187. According to Erikson, if a middle-aged person is unable to focus outward and is still dealing with issues of intimacy or even identity, that person is experiencing A. generativity. B. stagnation. C. ego integrity. D. despair. Answer: B 188. Older adults who look back on their lives with regrets, wishing they could relive their lives, have not successfully resolved Erikson’s psychosocial crisis of A. initiative versus guilt. B. generativity versus stagnation. C. ego integrity versus despair. D. intimacy versus isolation. Answer: C 189. Brenda's parents are political conservatives while she identifies more with liberal political views. When asked her political orientation, Brenda seems uncertain and does not respond. Brenda is dealing with the _______________ crisis. A. ego integrity versus despair B. autonomy versus shame and doubt C. industry versus inferiority D. identity versus role confusion Answer: D 190. Which of the following is true regarding Piaget's and Erikson's theories? A. Children in Piaget's preoperational stage should also be working on issues in Erikson's trust versus mistrust stage of development. B. Children in Piaget's sensorimotor stage should also be working on issues in Erikson's industry versus inferiority stage of development. C. Children in Piaget's concrete operational stage should also be working on issues in Erikson's initiative versus guilt stage of development. D. Children in Piaget's formal operational stage should also be working on issues in Erikson's autonomy versus shame and doubt stage of development. E. Children in Piaget's preoperational stage should also be working on issues in identity versus identity confusion stage of development. Answer: E 191. Sue has devoted so much time to her engineering career that at age 70 she has never been free to pursue many of her personal interests. Sue's feelings of missed opportunities suggest a sense of A. generativity. B. alienation. C. stagnation. D. despair. Answer: D 192. Which developmental theorist is likely to be most criticized for the use of broad age ranges in various stages of his theory? A. Ainsworth B. Piaget C. Erikson D. Vygotsky Answer: C 193. According to Piaget’s ideas regarding moral development, the _______________ stage is to subjective responsibility as the _______________ stage is to objective responsibility. A. concrete operations; formal operations B. formal operations; concrete operations C. preoperational; concrete operations D. formal operations; preoperational Answer: B 194. According to Kohlberg, behaviour motivated by the avoidance of punishment represents _______________ morality. A. formal conventional B. postconventional C. conventional D. preconventional Answer: D 195. Obedience to rules because of the fear of punishment is a characteristic of. A. formal conventional morality B. postconventional morality C. conventional morality D. preconventional morality Answer: D 196. Brad is in an electronics store with his parents. He looks at the CDs and thinks for a moment that he could grab one and put it beneath his coat. As he considers this possibility, he decides not to do it because he might get caught and his parents would punish him. What stage of moral development does Brad’s decision represent? A. Formal conventional B. Postconventional C. Conventional D. Preconventional Answer: D 197. According to Kohlberg, most adolescents are at the _______________ level of morality. A. formal conventional B. postconventional C. conventional D. preconventional Answer: C 198. At what stage of moral development is moral thought guided by principles that have been decided upon by the individual and may be in disagreement with accepted social norms? A. Formal conventional B. Postconventional C. Conventional D. Preconventional Answer: B 199. When faced with a conflict between law and conscience, Liz follows her conscience despite the personal risk. This would be characteristic of morality. A. formal conventional B. postconventional C. conventional D. preconventional Answer: D 200. What is the sequence of stages of moral development as identified by Lawrence Kohlberg? A. Preconventional, conventional, postconventional B. Preoperational, postoperational, world view C. Preconventional, postconventional, conventional D. Concrete operational, formal operational, autonomous Answer: A 201. According to Kohlberg, behaviour motivated by the avoidance of punishment represents _______________ morality. A. formal conventional B. postconventional C. conventional D. preconventional Answer: D 202. According to Piaget, one's level of moral development is linked to one's level of A. social development. B. cognitive development. C. intelligence. D. emotional development. Answer: B 203. Karla can speed on a certain stretch of the highway without being ticketed, yet she decides not to speed because it is unlawful. Karla's reasoning reflects _______________ reasoning. A. formal conventional B. postconventional C. conventional D. preconventional Answer: C 204. According to theory assumptions, which of the following is true concerning Kohlberg and Piaget? A. Like Piaget's stage theory, Kohlberg's theory is comprised of four distinctly separate stages. B. Reaching the postconventional stage requires functioning at Piaget's preoperational stage. C. Reaching the postconventional stage requires functioning at Piaget's formal operations stage. D. Levels of moral development are unrelated to levels of cognitive development. Answer: C 205. Regarding Heinz's dilemma, a person who decides not to steal the drug for fear of being imprisoned is reasoning at the _______________ stage. A. preconventional B. formal conventional C. postconventional D. conventional Answer: A 206. According to Kohlberg, postconventional morality involves A. behaviour motivated by doing what is best for the greatest number of people. B. behaviour motivated by doing what is best for the individual. C. behaviour motivated by doing what is expected of you by authority figures. D. behaviour motivated by doing what is expected of you by peers. Answer: A 207. Joseph refuses to vote in major elections because he believes that most political candidates seeking office are motivated by personal gain and not to create positive social change. Joseph's reasoning reflects A. formal conventional reasoning. B. preconventional reasoning. C. conventional reasoning. D. postconventional reasoning. Answer: D 208. Responses to moral dilemmas are only moderately correlated with actual behaviour. Which of the following may be seen to increase the strength of correlations between hypothetical responses and actual behaviour? A. Posing dilemmas focused on life-or-death decisions that will lead to more honest responding B. Posing dilemmas focused on light-hearted subjects that will put respondents more at ease C. Posing dilemmas focused on realistic situations that are likely to be faced on a regular basis D. Posing dilemmas focused on abstract situations not likely to be faced by respondents Answer: C 209. Johnny has never been harassed by the school bully, but most of his friends have. Johnny's decision to stand up to the bully to protect his friends represents a type of _______________ morality. A. preconventional B. conventional C. formal conventional D. postconventional Answer: D 210. Karen has the impulse to shoplift, but when she begins thinking about how others would be disappointed with her actions, she resists. Karen's thinking illustrates _______________ reasoning. A. formal conventional B. conventional C. postconventional D. preconventional Answer: B 211. Which of the following would be considered the biggest (and anxiety-inducing) life transition that adults may face? A. Establishing a career B. Falling in love C. Becoming a parent D. Undergoing a midlife crisis Answer: C 212. Empty nest researchers have found that A. most empty nesters are men who experience a period of depression after their children leave home. B. most empty nesters experience an increase in life satisfaction after their children leave home. C. women are less likely than men to experience depression after their children leave home. D. women are more likely than men to experience depression after their children leave home. Answer: B 213. Which of the following individuals would be the most susceptible to empty-nest syndrome? A. Cierra, a lawyer, who devoted as much time to her children as she could while they were growing up but feels guilty that she did not have more time to spend with them B. Victoria, a homemaker, who was very involved in her kids lives, and also volunteered for several charities and women’s leagues, and made quilts that were donated to World Aid programs C. Wilma, a professor, who spent equal time on her career and children, and aided them with their academic progress and tutoring as well as being their mother D. Lisa, a homemaker, who spent all her time and energy caring for her children and being involved as a volunteer in their many activities while they were growing up Answer: D 214. One's accumulated knowledge gained over time is called A. formal intelligence. B. crystallized intelligence. C. emotional intelligence. D. fluid intelligence. Answer: B 215. Recent findings associated with aging and cognitive functioning show that older adults outscore younger adults on A. memory tests. B. vocabulary tests. C. auditory tests. D. visual tests. Answer: B 216. Kevin is a 65-year-old college professor. Compared to when he was 30, Kevin is now likely to A. struggle verbalizing his thoughts when responding to students' questions. B. struggle formulating his thoughts when responding to students' questions. C. struggle hearing students' questions during lectures. D. struggle analyzing students' questions during lectures. Answer: C 217. Which of the following questions would an 85-year old have the easiest time answering based on their cognitive functioning? A. Can you recall the list of words I showed you 10 minutes ago? B. Can you point out various members of your family in this set of photos? C. Can you remember what you had for supper yesterday? D. Can you tell me about the time you ran away from home as a child? Answer: B 218. One popular misconception about middle age is that most men undergo a _______________, characterized by emotional distress about the aging process and attempts to regain their youth. A. empty nest syndrome B. midlife crisis C. sandwich generation D. stagnation Answer: B 219. Arthur is 95 years old. He has developed many health difficulties with advanced aging, but still plays billiards regularly, goes for coffee with his friends, and likes to play cards and cook. Which of the following would be true in relation to Arthur’s aging? A. Arthur’s biological age is lower than his functional age. B. Arthur’s functional age is well below his chronological age. C. Arthur’s functional age is much greater than his social age. D. Arthur’s psychological age is well above his chronological age. Answer: B Critical Thinking Questions 1. What tasks could be presented to students to assess whether they have entered Piaget's formal operations stage of development? Answer: Tasks dealing with abstract thinking, deductive and hypothetical reasoning, or theory development would tap into formal operational development. For example, tasks involving the completion of calculus problems, term papers focusing on philosophical debates, or the development of original research projects are formal operational tasks. Problem-solving tasks that require abstract thinking, such as the pendulum task also apply here (see Figure 10.9). 2. Correlations between Kohlberg's dilemmas and real-world moral behaviour are relatively low because responses to hypothetical dilemmas are often incongruent with a person's behaviours. Does this suggest that Kohlberg's theory is not a valid measure of moral development? Answer: Kohlberg's theory is a measure of how people reason about moral problems but it is not a measure that predicts the behaviours that people will present in real- world situations. In this way, it could be considered both a valid and invalid measure of moral development depending on how the term “moral development” is defined. If moral development is defined as a type of reasoning about right and wrong his theory could be a valid measure. If moral development is defined as a style of behaviour one presents in real contexts, his theory may not be a valid measure. 3. Discuss when and how children begin to develop their own self-concepts and understanding of others’ perspectives as different from their own (i.e., theory of mind). How could you test both self concept and theory of mind in a child in a manner that is different from those methods identified in your text? Answer: Infants’ ability to understand themselves as possessing unique identities unfolds gradually during the toddler and preschool years. But even by 3 months of age, infants possess some sense of self as distinct from others. Babies, at this age, who view videos of themselves side by side with another baby prefer to look at the image of the other baby. As early as their first birthdays, children can recognize their images in a mirror. By 2 years of age, they can recognize pictures of themselves and refer to themselves by name. Imitation behaviour suggests that children can grasp a correspondence between self and other, and that they want to copy another’s behaviour. A further milestone is children’s ability to understand that others’ perspectives can differ from theirs—a capacity called theory of mind (Premack & Woodruff, 1978). Theory of mind refers to children’s ability to reason about what other people believe. Tasks related to these should be described that correspond to the “red dot test,” looking procedures with feet, and the false-belief task for theory of mind. Essay Questions 1. Discuss both the nature and nurture accounts of motor development in infants, and whether one or the other contributes more to this form of development. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. “Nature” Accounts of Motor Development. Physical maturation plays a key role in allowing children to becoming increasingly steady and flexible in their movements. One explanation for this role is that motor patterns are innately programmed and become activated at specific time points. Some motor achievements, such as crawling and walking, are also dependent on the physical maturation of the body, allowing children to acquire the necessary strength and coordination. “Nurture” Accounts of Motor Development. There are several reasons to believe that experience plays a crucial role in motor development. First, there’s considerable variability across cultures in the timing of developmental milestones. Second, the fact that some children occasionally skip a stage suggests that there isn’t an innate and inflexible motor program. Third, even among children who pass through all stages, there are large individual differences within cultures in the age at which children achieve motor milestones. These findings suggest that over time, children are training their brains and bodies to solve motor-based challenges, building up skills and control with practice (Figure 10.6). The differences among children in the rate at which motor development unfolds are influenced by physical factors. For example, heavier babies tend to achieve milestones more gradually because they need to build up their muscles more before they can support their weight. But … parenting styles and cultural practices also matter. Infants who spend most of their time on mom’s lap or in the crib have fewer opportunities to explore than do infants placed on their bellies on a blanket on the floor. Inuit mothers in Northern Canada often keep infants swaddled tightly in “wraparounds” for up to 24 months. Swaddled babies tend to cry less and sleep more soundly, but prolonged swaddling over the first year of life slows down their motor development. In contrast, many African and West Indian mothers engage in a variety of stretching, massage, and strength-building exercises with their infants. Nature accounts of motor development emphasize innate biological factors, such as maturation of the nervous system and genetic predispositions, shaping motor skills in infants. Nurture accounts highlight the role of environmental factors, including sensory experiences, social interactions, and opportunities for practice, in facilitating motor development. While both nature and nurture contribute to motor development, research suggests that the interaction between genetic predispositions and environmental influences plays a significant role in shaping infants' motor skills. 2. Using specific examples, differentiate between the thinking patterns of a 6-year-old child and a 9-year-old child, according to Piaget's theory of cognitive development. Answer: Information related to 6-year-olds should involve difficulty with conservation tasks, reversing operations, and some issues with logical thinking because intuitive thinking is more prevalent. A 9-year-old can conserve amounts through physical transformation and reason more logically and less intuitively about information. 3. Explain what the Strange Situation Test is, what it measures, how it categorizes infant behaviour, and present its shortcomings. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. What is it & what does it measure? Mary Ainsworth and her colleagues developed the Strange Situation that psychologists settled on a systematic way of quantifying infants’ attachment styles. The Strange Situation is a laboratory procedure for examining 1- year-olds’ reactions to separation from their mothers. Here’s how it works. First, researchers place the infant in an unfamiliar room with his or her mother. The room is loaded with all kinds of interesting toys, and the mother gives the infant the chance to play with them. Then, a stranger enters. On two different occasions, the mother exits the room, leaving the infant alone with the stranger before reuniting with her infant. The Strange Situation takes advantage of infants’ stranger anxiety, which as we’ve learned tends to peak at about 1 year. Today, most attachment researchers rely on the Strange Situation to measure infants’ attachment styles Categorisations: (1) Secure attachment (about 60 percent of North American infants). The infant reacts to mom’s departure by becoming upset, but greets her return with joy. In essence, the infant uses mom as a secure base: a rock-solid source of support to which to turn in times of trouble (Bowlby, 1990). (2) Insecure-avoidant attachment (about 15–20 percent of North American infants). The infant reacts to mom’s departure with indifference and shows little reaction on her return. (3) Insecure-anxious attachment (about 15–20 percent of North American infants). The infant reacts to mom’s departure with panic. He then shows a mixed emotional reaction on her return, simultaneously reaching for her yet squirming to get away after she picks him up (for this reason, some psychologists refer to this style as “anxious- ambivalent”). (4) Disorganised attachment (about 5–10 percent of North American infants). This rarest of attachment styles wasn’t included in the original classification, but was added later by Mary Main and her colleagues (Main & Cassidy, 1988). Children with this pattern react to mom’s departure and return with an inconsistent and confused set of responses. They may appear dazed when reunited with her. Still, the Strange Situation has its shortcomings. Researchers must be careful to avoid mono-operation bias (Shadish, Cook, & Campbell, 2002): the mistake of relying on only a single measure to draw conclusions. The Strange Situation is, after all, merely one indicator of attachment. To equate it with attachment, as some psychologists have done, is a serious error. Indeed, some researchers have begun to develop alternative indicators of attachment, such as interviews in adulthood designed to assess bonding to one’s parents (Hesse, 1999). The Strange Situation also isn’t especially reliable. As we learned in Chapter 2, reliability refers to the consistency of a measuring instrument. If the Strange Situation were a highly reliable measure of attachment, babies who are securely attached at age 1 should tend to remain that way for a short time afterward, as should babies who are insecurely-avoidantly attached, and so on. Yet research shows that many infants switch their attachment classifications over brief time periods. In general, attachment styles remain consistent only when parents’ living circumstances stay the same. If parents undergo a change in their job status, their children’s attachment style often changes along with it (Bruer, 1999; Thompson, 1998).Moreover, almost 40 percent of children display a different attachment style with their mother than with their father (van Ijzendoorn & De Wolff, 1997), suggesting that many children can’t simply be pigeonholed into a single attachment classification. The Strange Situation Test is a standardized procedure used to assess attachment patterns in infants aged 12 to 18 months. It measures the infant's response to separations and reunions with their caregiver in a controlled laboratory setting. Infants' behaviors are categorized into secure attachment, insecure-avoidant attachment, insecure-resistant attachment, and disorganized attachment. Shortcomings include cultural biases in the assessment and the potential for observer subjectivity in coding behaviors. 4. What are the different parenting styles and what does research suggest about the “right” parenting style? Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. Parenting styles fall into three (and later 4) major categories: • Permissive. Permissive parents tend to be lenient with their children, allowing them considerable freedom inside and outside the household. They use discipline sparingly, if at all, and often shower their children with affection. • Authoritarian. Authoritarian parents tend to be strict with their children, punishing them when they don’t respond appropriately to their demands. They show little affection toward their children. • Authoritative. Authoritative parents combine the best features of both permissive and authoritarian worlds. They’re supportive of their children but set clear and firm limits with them. • Uninvolved. Neglectful parents tend to ignore their children, paying little attention to either their positive or negative behaviours. Outcomes: Baumrind (1991) and other investigators (Weiss & Schwartz, 1996) found that children with authoritative parents tend to exhibit the best social and emotional adjustment and the lowest levels of behaviour problems, at least among Caucasian middle-class North American families. Children with uninvolved parents tend to fare the worst, and children with either permissive or authoritarian parents fall in between. BUT … these findings do not tend to apply to collectivistic cultures. So what’s the bottom line on parenting styles? Disappointingly, after decades of advice from parenting experts, it’s hard to say all that much for sure. Still, the bulk of the research suggests that specific parenting styles may not matter as much as experts had once thought. By and large, if parents provide their children with what Heinz Hartmann (1939) termed the average expectable environment—that is, an environment that provides children with basic needs for affection and appropriate discipline—most of their children will probably turn out just fine. So contrary to what they may hear from parenting gurus on Oprah, parents needn’t lose sleep about everything they do or every word they say. This doesn’t let parents entirely off the hook, however. If parenting falls well below the range of the average expectable environment—that is, if it’s especially poor—children’s social development can suffer. The four main parenting styles are authoritative, authoritarian, permissive, and uninvolved. Research consistently indicates that authoritative parenting, characterized by warmth, responsiveness, and clear expectations, is associated with the best outcomes for children, including higher self-esteem, better academic performance, and healthier social relationships. 5. Regarding Kohlberg's theory, use specific examples to differentiate between a conventional moral reasoner and a postconventional moral reasoner. Answer: A conventional moral reasoner is described as one who conforms to majority opinions or follows social norms when reasoning about right and wrong actions. A conventional moral reasoner may hold certain political beliefs because most of the person's peers hold those beliefs. A postconventional moral reasoner uses utilitarian ethics to reason about right and wrong actions. For postconventional reasoners, acts that produce the greatest good for the greatest number of people are moral acts, even if they produce disfavour from others or involve acting against self-interest. A postconventional reasoner will not likely conform or change political attitudes due to majority influence; they tend to have internal principles of right and wrong that may not adhere to social norms. 6. Discuss any two of the five major criticisms of Kohlberg’s scheme of moral development. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain discussion of any two of the following for full credit. (1) Cultural Bias. By and large, studies have confirmed Kohlberg’s claim that people pass through his levels in the same order, regardless of their country or culture of origin (Snarey, 1982). So far, so good. But some critics have charged Kohlberg with cultural bias, because people from different cultures tend to achieve different scores on his moral development scheme. For example, people from individualistic societies often score somewhat higher than do those in collectivist societies (Shweder, Mahapatra, & Miller, 1990). Still, as we learned in Chapter 9, group differences don’t always indicate bias, so the meaning of this finding is unclear. (2) Sex Bias. Kohlberg’s student Carol Gilligan (1982) broke from her mentor to argue that his system was biased against women. For Gilligan, Kohlberg’s scheme unfairly favours males, who are more likely than women to adopt a “justice” orientation based on abstract principles of fairness, whereas women are more likely than men to adopt a “caring” orientation based on concrete principles of nurturance. Yet despite gender differences in strategies toward moral problems, there’s little evidence that men score higher than women on Kohlberg’s scheme (Moon, 1986; Sunar, 2002). (3) Low Correlation with Moral Behaviour. Scores on Kohlberg’s scheme are only modestly related to real-world moral behaviour (Krebs & Denton, 2005). For example, the correlation between Kohlberg’s levels and moral behaviour, such as honest and altruistic actions, tends to be only about.3 (Blasi, 1980). Kohlberg argued that his moral development system shouldn’t correlate highly with real-world actions, because it’s a measure of how people reason about moral problems, not what behaviours they display. People may perform the same behaviours for very different reasons: A person may steal a coat from a store because he wants to add it to his fashion collection or because he wants to keep his freezing child warm in the winter. Still, this kind of reasoning raises problems for the falsifiability of Kohlberg’s system. If the scores in this system correlate with behaviour, they provide evidence for it; if they don’t correlate with behaviour, they don’t necessarily provide evidence against it. (4) Confound with Verbal Intelligence. Understanding and responding effectively to Kohlberg’s moral dilemmas require some basic smarts. But that fact should make us a bit uneasy, because Kohlberg’s scheme may be measuring people’s ability to understand and talk about problems in general rather than moral problems specifically (Blasi, 1980). There’s only one way to rule out this alternative possibility: measure verbal intelligence in the same study as we measure moral development, and see whether it washes out the findings. Some studies have found that intelligence may explain Kohlberg’s findings (Sanders, Lubinski, & Benbow, 1995), but others have found strong relations between scores on Kohlberg’s scheme and moral behaviour even after taking intelligence into account (Gibbs, 2006). The issue remains unresolved. (5) Causal Direction. Kohlberg’s model assumes that our moral reasoning precedes our emotional reactions to moral issues. Yet in some cases, our emotional reactions to morally laden stimuli, like photographs of assaults on innocent people, occur almost instantaneously (Luo, Nakic,Wheatley, Richell,Martin, & Blair, 2006). Moreover, we can know something is wrong without being able to explain why; for example, many people “know” intuitively that incest is immoral but can’t offer a reason (Haidt, 2007). These findings suggest that moral reasoning may sometimes come after, rather than before, our emotional reactions. Two criticisms of Kohlberg's scheme of moral development include its cultural bias, as it primarily reflects Western, individualistic values, overlooking cultural variations in moral reasoning. Additionally, Kohlberg's stages may not adequately capture moral behavior in real-life situations, as individuals may act inconsistently with their stage of moral reasoning due to situational factors or emotional influences. 7. Chronological age doesn’t necessarily predict or explain the changes that accompany aging. Identify the four other indices of aging (other than chronological age) and describe each. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. (1) Biological Age: the estimate of a person’s age in terms of biological functioning. How efficiently are the person’s organ systems, such as the heart and lungs, functioning? When a 65-year-old brags, “My doctor says I have the body of a 40-year- old,” this is what his doctor is talking about. (2) Psychological Age: a person’s mental attitudes and agility, and the capacity to deal with the stresses of an ever-changing environment. Some people display little change in their memory, ability to learn, and personality from adolescence to old age, whereas others deteriorate substantially. (3) Functional Age: a person’s ability to function in given roles in society. Functional age may be a more appropriate basis for judging readiness to retire, replacing the arbitrary criterion of chronological age (for example, that people should retire at the age of 65 or 70). (4) Social Age: whether people behave in accord with the social behaviours appropriate for their age. When people judge a woman as “dressing too young for her age” or roll their eyes at an 80-year-old man cruising around downtown in a sports car looking for young women, they’re invoking expectations about social age. The four other indices of aging are biological age, psychological age, social age, and functional age. Biological age refers to an individual's physical health and functioning compared to others of the same chronological age. Psychological age reflects an individual's cognitive and emotional maturity. Social age refers to societal norms and expectations regarding behavior at a particular age. Functional age assesses an individual's ability to perform activities of daily living and maintain independence. These indices provide a more comprehensive understanding of aging beyond chronological years. Fill in the Blank Questions 1. Environmental factors that can exert a negative impact on prenatal development are termed _______________. Answer: teratogens 2. Piaget's _______________ developmental theory focuses on ways in which children learn, think, reason, and remember. Answer: cognitive 3. During Piaget's _______________ stage of development, infants learn about objects by physically handling them. Answer: sensorimotor 4. The inability to see events from others' perspectives during Piaget's preoperational stage is called _______________. Answer: egocentrism 5. Children in Piaget’s sensorimotor stage _______________, the understanding that objects continue to exist even when out of view. Answer: lack object permanence 6. If a 5-year-old is unable to see others' perspectives and thinks that everyone experiences things as she does, she is demonstrating _______________. Answer: egocentrism. 7. A nine-year-old who is unable to multiply and divide is delayed in reaching Piaget's _______________ Answer: concrete operational stage. 8. A teenager is most likely functioning in Piaget's _______________. Answer: formal operational stage. 9. A child who is able to demonstrate hypothetical reasoning resides cognitively in Piaget's stage of _______________. Answer: formal operations. 10. During Piaget's _______________ stage of development, children begin to gain proficiency with mathematical functions including division and multiplication. Answer: concrete operational 11. According to Vygotsky, the provision of assistance to those who cannot perform activities alone is called _______________. Answer: scaffolding. 12. A baby cheetah follows a zookeeper's every move because the zookeeper was the first person observed by the cheetah after birth. This behaviour is called _______________. Answer: imprinting. 13. The most common type of attachment formed between infants and primary caregivers is the _______________ attachment. Answer: secure 14. The _______________ style of parenting is associated with strict discipline, punishment, and limited displays of affection. Answer: authoritarian 15. The _______________ style of parenting is associated with the best social and emotional outcomes for children and the lowest levels of behaviour problems. Answer: authoritative 16. Kohlberg's _______________ developmental theory focuses on how people reason about right and wrong behaviours. Answer: moral 17. The belief that you should not steal because you could go to jail represents reasoning associated with Kohlberg's _______________ level. Answer: preconventional 18. Believing that you should smoke cigarettes because others would think you are “cool” represents Kohlberg's _______________ level of reasoning. Answer: conventional 19. The reproductive organs and genitals that distinguish the sexes are called _______________. Answer: primary sex characteristics 20. _______________ is the start of menstruation. Answer: Menarche 21. The period of transition between childhood and young adulthood is called _______________. Answer: adolescence 22. Erikson's _______________ developmental theory focuses on social and emotional changes experienced by people throughout their lifespan. Answer: identity 23. The major crisis facing young adults according to Erikson involves the crisis of _______________ vs. _______________. Answer: intimacy, isolation 24. During old age Erikson suggests that the crisis of ego _______________ vs. _______________ is faced. Answer: integrity despair 25. The crisis of adulthood characterised by emotional distress about the aging process is called the _______________. Answer: midlife crisis 26. The termination of menstruation signalling the end of a woman's reproductive potential is termed _______________. Answer: menopause 27. The type of intelligence that involves our accumulated knowledge over time is called _______________ intelligence. Answer: crystallised Test Bank for Psychology: From Inquiry to Understanding Scott O. Lilienfeld, Steven J. Lynn, Laura L. Namy, Nancy J. Woolf, Kenneth M. Cramer, Rodney Schmaltz 9780205896110, 9780133793048, 9780133870282
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