CH-1 A Cultural Approach to Human Development – Human Development: A Cultural Approach : Exam Guide

Chapter 1 A Cultural Approach to Human Development Section 1 Human Development Today and Its Origins Test Item File Multiple Choice Questions 1. The way people grow and change across the lifespan is referred to as _______________. A. development B. evolution C. change D. growth Answer: A 2. What is the total pattern of a group’s customs, beliefs, art, and technology? A. clan B. society C. culture D. beliefs Answer: C. culture Correct: A group’s customs refers to culture. B. society Incorrect: A society refers to a group of people. 3. _______________ is the total pattern of a group’s customs, beliefs, art, and technology. A. Culture B. Ethnicity C. Race D. Nationality Answer: A 4. Human beings everywhere have essentially the same biological constitution, yet their paths through the life span are remarkably different depending on _______________. A. their genetic lineage B. their culture C. the strength of their id D. the expression of their phenotype Answer: B. their culture Correct: Culture is the varying factor. D. the expression of their phenotype Incorrect: Phenotype is one’s complete genetic makeup; culture is a much stronger contributor to differences in individuals’ lives. 5. Who did developmental researchers focus on studying because they assumed that the processes of development were universal? A. Mexicans B. Europeans C. Canadians D. Americans Answer: D 6. What did the text define as the increasing connections between different parts of the world in trade, travel, migration, and communication? A. globalization B. social networks C. the Internet D. small world syndrome Answer: A. globalization Correct: The pace of globalization has accelerated over the past few decades. B. social networks Incorrect: Social networks are a part of globalization. 7. Globalization is _______________. A. the number of births per woman B. the ways people grow and change across the life span C. the total pattern of a group’s customs, beliefs, art, and technology D. the increasing connections between different parts of the world in trade, travel, migration, and communication Answer: D 8. According to the text, for most of history the total human population was under _______________. A. 1 million B. 10 million C. 100 million D. 1 billion Answer: B 9. For most of human history how many children did women typically birth? A. 1 to 2 B. 4 to 8 C. 10 to 12 D. 13 to 15 Answer: B 10. The human population began to increase noticeably around 10,000 years ago. What has been hypothesized as the reason for the population increase at that time? A. the discovery of medicine B. the development of agriculture and domestication of animals C. an increase in the size of women’s pelvic openings that assisted in labor D. construction techniques that allowed for stronger homes that were better heated Answer: B. the development of agriculture and domestication of animals Correct: But after this increase in the population, the growth rate was very slow for thousands of years. C. an increase in the size of women’s pelvic openings that assisted in labor Incorrect: Women’s pelvic openings did not change during this time and have remained the same. 11. When did the human population reach 500 million people? A. 400 years ago B. 1,000 years ago C. 4,000 years ago D. 10,000 years ago Answer: A 12. How long did it take the human population to double from 500 million to 1 billion? A. 150 years B. 300 years C. 450 years D. 600 years Answer: A 13. The human population doubled from 1 to 2 billion between 1800 and 1930. What led to this increase in population? A. government-controlled farming B. globalization and shared resources C. medical advances that eliminated many diseases D. people had more children Answer: C. medical advances that eliminated many diseases Correct: The elimination or sharp reduction of diseases like smallpox, typhus, and cholera helped the population growth rate skyrocket. B. globalization and shared resources Incorrect: Globalization did not happen until much later even though there was some sharing of discoveries. 14. The total fertility rate (TFR) is defined as the number of _______________. A. births per woman B. conceptions per woman C. fetuses that were spontaneously aborted D. women on fertility drugs Answer: A 15. What is the current total fertility rate (TFR) worldwide? A. 1.4 B. 2.8 C. 4.2 D. 5.6 Answer: B 16. What total fertility rate (TFR) is referred to as replacement rate? A. 1.4 B. 2.1 C. 2.8 D. 3.2 Answer: B 17. If current trends continue, when will the worldwide total fertility rate (TFR) reach replacement rate? A. 2020 B. 2050 C. 2080 D. 3010 Answer: B 18. _______________ is the number of births per woman. A. Total fertility rate B. Expressive births C. Implicit calculation of replacement D. The sum of replacement Answer: A 19. Nearly all of the population growth in the decades to come will take place in _______________. A. developed countries B. developing countries C. emerging countries D. South American countries Answer: B. developing countries Correct: In contrast, the population growth rate in developed countries is expected to decline. C. emerging countries Incorrect: The textbook does not refer to emerging countries, rather developing countries. 20. What will happen to the populations of developed countries during the next few decades and beyond? They will _______________. A. increase more than developing countries B. remain stable in population C. decrease D. increase slowly Answer: C. decrease Correct: Population growth rates in developed countries have been declining and will continue to do so. A. increase more than developing countries Incorrect: The population of developed countries will decline in population. 21. What term is used in the text to refer to the most affluent countries in the world? A. affluent countries B. developed countries C. developing countries D. population-rich countries Answer: B. developed countries Correct: These include the United States, Canada, Japan, South Korea, nearly all of Europe, Argentina, Chile, Australia, New Zealand. A. affluent countries Incorrect: Affluent countries are referred to as “developed” countries. 22. What term is used in the text to refer to countries which have less wealth, but are experiencing rapid economic growth? A. impoverished countries B. developed countries C. developing countries D. population-rich countries Answer: C. developing countries Correct: These are countries, such as India and China, that have less wealth but are experiencing rapid economic growth. A. impoverished countries Incorrect: Countries that have less wealth, but are experiencing rapid economic growth are referred to as “developing” countries. 23. What percent of the current world’s population lives in the most affluent countries? A. 18% B. 34% C. 51% D. 68% Answer: A 24. _______________ refers to the most affluent countries in the world. A. Developed countries B. Developing countries C. Collective cultures D. Individualistic cultures Answer: A 25. The United States, Canada, Japan, South Korea, Australia, New Zealand, and nearly all the countries of Europe are examples of _______________. A. developed countries B. developing countries C. collective cultures D. individualistic cultures Answer: A. developed countries Correct: As economic powerhouses, these countries are considered developed. D. individualistic cultures Incorrect: Yes, some are inividualistic cultures; however, Asian countries often have collective cultures. 26. Developed countries roughly make up _______________ of the world’s population, whereas, developing countries make up _______________. A. 18%, 82% B. 27%, 73% C. 37%, 63% D. 47%, 57% Answer: A 27. Developed countries can be viewed as _______________, whereas, developing countries can be seen as _______________. A. wealthy; populated B. populated; wealthy C. collective; individualistic D. individualistic; collective Answer: A. wealthy; populated Correct: The majority of the world’s wealth is located in developed nations; 82 percent of the world’s population is located in developing nations. D. individualistic; collective Incorrect: It is a misconception that all developed nations are individualistic. 28. What developed country will have the steepest decline in population between now and 2050? A. the United States B. Germany C. Japan D. Canada Answer: C 29. Between now and 2050, what will the increase in population in the United States be nearly entirely due to? A. immigration B. minority fertility C. majority fertility D. in-vitro fertilization Answer: A. immigration Correct: As with most developed nations, the total female birthrate in the United States has been decreasing, but people are emigrating to the United States in steady numbers. D. in-vitro fertilization Incorrect: The population of the United States will increase by 2050, but this increase will be due to immigration. 30. What country allows for more legal immigrations than most other countries and has tens of millions of illegal immigrants as well? A. the United States B. Canada C. Germany D. Japan Answer: A. the United States Correct: If trends continue, the United States will have nearly 100 million more immigrants by the year 2050. B. Canada Incorrect: The most immigration occurs in the United States. 31. What portion of the United States’ population will increase from 16 to 30 percent by 2050? A. African American B. Anglo American C. Asian American D. Latino American Answer: D 32. José was born in a country where his parents make less than $2 a day and he is expected to attend grade-school but not college. Jose was most likely born in a _______________. A. developed country B. developing country C. collective culture D. individualistic culture Answer: B. developing country Correct: Poverty and lack of education are issues in many developing countries. C. collective culture Incorrect: José most likely lives in a developing country, which should not be confused with a collective culture, although many developing countries do share this trait. 33. What percent of the world’s population lives on a family income of less than $6,000 per year? A. 20% B. 40% C. 60% D. 80% Answer: D 34. Although economic growth has been strong for the past decade, what region remains the poorest region in the world? A. Africa B. South America C. Southeast Asia D. Western Australia Answer: A 35. What percent of individuals in developed countries attend college or other post-secondary training? A. 30% B. 50% C. 70% D. 90% Answer: B 36. What percent of children in developing countries complete primary schooling? A. 20% B. 40% C. 60% D. 80% Answer: D 37. Statistically speaking, a child born today will most likely be from _______________. A. a developing country B. a developed country C. an economically wealthy country D. a high social economic status culture Answer: A. a developing country Correct: 82 percent of the world’s population is located in developing countries. B. a developed country Incorrect: Developed nations or economically wealthy countries make up 18 percent of the world’s population and are stable in population growth. 38. _______________ cultures emphasize independence and self-expression, whereas _______________ cultures emphasize obedience and group harmony. A. Individualistic; collective B. Collective; individualistic C. Developed; developing D. Developing; developed Answer: A 39. What percent of children in developing countries are enrolled in secondary education? A. 30% B. 50% C. 70% D. 90% Answer: B 40. Who attends colleges, universities, and other forms of post-secondary education in developing countries? A. the wealthy elite B. most of the population C. about half of the middle class D. about one fourth of the middle class Answer: A 41. What term is used to refer to people in the rural areas of developing countries, who tend to adhere more closely to the historical aspects of their culture than people in urban areas do? A. agrarian cultures B. conventional cultures C. traditional cultures D. rural cultures Answer: C. traditional cultures Correct: These cultures closely resemble the culture of early humans through relatively modern times. B. conventional cultures Incorrect: The term is traditional cultures—ones that adhere to the historical aspects of their culture. These cultures closely resemble the culture of early humans through relatively modern times. 42. What general values do developed countries tend to regard highly? A. collectivistic B. individualistic C. traditional D. modern Answer: B. individualistic Correct: Developed countries tend to highly regard individualistic values, in contrast to developing countries that tend to emphasize collectivistic values. A. collectivistic Incorrect: Developed countries tend to highly regard individualistic values, in contrast to developing countries that tend to emphasize collectivistic values. 43. What general values do developing countries tend to regard highly? A. collectivistic B. individualistic C. traditional D. modern Answer: A. collectivistic Correct: Developing countries tend to highly regard collectivistic values, in contrast to developed countries that tend to emphasize individualistic values. B. individualistic Incorrect: Developing countries tend to highly regard collectivistic values, in contrast to developed countries that tend to emphasize individualistic values. 44. What percent of the world’s population lives in the United States? A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 20% Answer: A 45. Within any given country, which of the following sets most of the norms and standards, and holds most of the positions of political, economic, intellectual, and media power? A. majority culture B. minority culture C. ethnic populace D. subcultural groups Answer: A 46. Who sets most of the norms and standards and holds most of the positions of political, economic, intellectual, and media power in most countries? A. power culture B. controlling culture C. minority culture D. majority culture Answer: D. majority culture Correct: The majority culture is generally made of people with high socioeconomic status. B. controlling culture Incorrect: The majority culture sets the norms and standards of a country. 47. What term is often used to refer to a person’s social class, which includes educational level, income level, and occupational status? A. social class status B. socioeconomic status C. tax bracket status D. education status Answer: B 48. The expectations that cultures have for males and females are different from the time they are born. The degree of the difference depends on _______________. A. culture B. age C. gender D. socioeconomic status Answer: A 49. _______________ includes an individual's educational level, income level, and occupational status. A. Nationality B. Ethnicity C. Sociohistorical index D. Socioeconomic status Answer: D 50. Also referred to as a person's social class, his or her _______________ includes the level of education, their income, and occupational status. A. socioeconomic status B. ethnicity C. culture D. sociohistorical index Answer: A 51. In American culture, a physician spends 12 years in college and training, generally has a high income, and possesses a strong occupational status. In terms of socioeconomic status, a physician would most likely be ________________. A. low SES B. middle SES. C. moderate SES. D. high SES. Answer: D. high SES. Correct: Having a higher level of education, strong economic wealth, and high occupational status, a physician would be deemed high SES. A. low SES Incorrect: A high socioeconomic status is related to education, income, and occupational status. In the United States, doctors generally have a high SES. 52. LaWanda has a high school diploma and is currently working as a waitress but is attending school in hopes of becoming a paediatrician. Her current socioeconomic status is likely _____________; however, when she becomes an established paediatrician, her socioeconomic status will be _______________. A. low; high B. high; moderate C. high; low D. moderate; low Answer: A. low; high Correct: Having a lower level of education, a lower income, and a low occupational status, a waitress would be at a lower SES; physicians have one of the highest levels of education, a very high income, and high occupational status, therefore they qualify as higher SES. B. high; moderate Incorrect: A waitress with only a high school diploma has a lower level of education, income, and occupational status than a physician, so LaWanda currently has a lower SES than she will when she becomes a pediatrician. 53. United States infant mortality is higher among _______________ families than in _______________ families, in part because _______________. A. middle-SES; low-SES; middle-SES mothers are more likely to live in rural parts of the country B. middle-SES; high-SES; middle-SES fathers are more likely to be absent from the family C. high-SES; low-SES; high-SES mothers are not likely to consume fluoride in their drinking water D. low-SES; high-SES; low-SES mothers are less likely to receive prenatal care Answer: D 54. The expectations cultures have for males and females are different from the time they _______________. However, the degree of the differences _______________. A. are conceived; are minimal among cultures B. are born; varies greatly among cultures C. reach puberty; is consistent among cultures D. reach adulthood; are minimal among nations Answer: B 55. What term describes a variety of aspects of different groups that include cultural origin, cultural traditions, race, religion, and language? A. gender B. race C. ethnicity D. age Answer: C. ethnicity Correct: Ethnicity is a crucial part of human development. B. race Incorrect: The correct term is ethnicity, of which race is just one part. 56. _______________ may include a variety of components, such as cultural origin, cultural traditions, race, religion, and language. A. Ethnicity B. Race C. Socioeconomic status D. Cultural independency Answer: A 57. Kalid is an African American who was born in New York but is currently living in Alabama. When asked his political and religious beliefs, he describes himself as more similar to those who are located in the northeastern states than those who are located in the southern part of the United States. At times, his friends amuse themselves at Kalid's expense by mocking his Brooklyn accent. The above statements are describing Kalid's _______________. A. nationality B. race C. ethnicity D. mainstream cultural group Answer: C. ethnicity Correct: An individual's country of origin, religion, and language all contribute to his or her ethnicity. A. nationality Incorrect: If one were to solely focus on Kalid’s citizenship, nationality would be correct; however, ethnicity is the correct term because it includes components such as race, cultural traditions, and language. 58. In _______________, the young of any species are born with variations on a wide range of characteristics. Among the young, those who will be _______________ until they can reproduce will be the ones whose variations are best adapted to their environment. A. Social Darwinism; able to gain financial resources B. the Theory of Psychoanalysis; controlled by their unconscious C. natural selection; most likely to survive D. Humanistic Psychology; congruent between their different "selves" Answer: C 59. What term is used to describe the development of the individual? A. ontogenetic development B. phylogenetic development C. polygenetic development D. autogenetic development Answer: A. ontogenetic development Correct: Phylogenetic development refers to development of the human species; ontogenetic development refers to the development of the individual. B. phylogenetic development Incorrect: Phylogenetic development refers to development of the human species; ontogenetic development refers to the development of the individual. 60. What term is used to describe the development of the human species? A. ontogenetic development B. phylogenetic development C. polygenetic development D. autogenetic development Answer: B. phylogenetic development Correct: Ontogenetic development refers to the development of the individual and phylogenetic development refers to development of the human species. A. ontogenetic development Incorrect: Ontogenetic development refers to the development of the individual and phylogenetic development refers to development of the human species. 61. Who first wrote about the principles of evolution in his book The Origin of Species? A. Alfred Binet B. Francis Galton C. Charles Darwin D. Robert Hook Answer: C 62. Charles Darwin, in his book The Origin of Species, first proposes the theory of ________________. A. natural selection B. social Darwinism C. psychosocial reproduction D. the unconscious id Answer: A 63. In the book _______________, Charles Darwin proposes the theory of natural selection. A. The Origin of Species B. Principles of Psychology C. On Becoming a Person D. Walden Two Answer: A 64. What term describes the process in which the young of any species that is born with variations on a wide range of characteristics, the young who will be most likely to survive until they can reproduce will be those whose variations are best adapted to their environment? A. evolution B. adaptive centrism C. mutational change D. natural selection Answer: D. natural selection Correct: Natural selection describes the adaptability of organisms, which is a tenet within the general framework of evolution. A. evolution Incorrect: The correct term, natural selection, describes the adaptability of organisms, which is a tenet within the general framework of evolution. 65. In a town in England, the wings of a local butterfly species had a black and white pattern. Over the years, as air pollution worsened in the town, a coat of black soot often covered everything. From an evolutionary perspective, which of the following is a logical sequencing? A. Butterflies became blacker because the ones with relatively more black on their wings were most likely to blend in with the sooty background. B. Butterflies became lighter because the ones with relatively more white on their wings were least likely to blend in with the sooty background. C. Butterflies became more aggressive because their behaviors were altered by the toxins that were in the black soot. D. Butterflies morphed into moths because environmental conditions triggered an unfolding of a hidden gene. Answer: A. Butterflies became blacker because the ones with relatively more black on their wings were most likely to blend in with the sooty background. Correct: Butterflies that were slightly darker were less likely to be spotted by predators, and more likely to survive and reproduce; over consecutive generations the larger group of butterflies became darker. B. Butterflies became lighter because the ones with relatively more white on their wings were least likely to blend in with the sooty background. Incorrect: The butterflies became lighter only after the amount of pollution was decreased and soot no longer darkened everything in the environment, leaving the lighter butterflies now less vulnerable to predators. 66. Which of the following best describes natural selection? A. Individuals are striving to find consistency between their ideal self, their real self, and their fear self. B. Humans are born as blank slates and they are conditioned unknowingly and without free will by their environment. C. Humans are in a constant struggle to control their unconscious urges for physical gratification and aggressive impulses. D. Species change little by little with each generation, and over a long period of time they can develop into new species. Answer: D 67. Which of the following best describes how the scientific community views Darwin's proposal of evolution? A. Most researchers have discounted the theory of evolution for it lacks empirical and scientific support. B. Darwin’s theory of evolution received a high degree of support at its initial proposal; however, in recent times it has lost the backing of the scientific community. C. There is an enormous amount of evidence that has accumulated to verify the theory and support the principle of natural selection as the main mechanism of evolutionary change. D. Darwin's theory of evolution has been abandoned for the more comprehensive and scientifically supported theory of Intelligent Design. Answer: C 68. The evolutionary line that eventually led to humans is known as the ________________. A. hominid line B. Neolithic line C. Upper Paleolithic line D. amphibious line Answer: A 69. What term refers to walking on two legs? A. bi-leg erectus B. plantar balance C. calcaneus stability D. bipedal locomotion Answer: D 70. Why was walking on two legs a useful adaptation? A. It made running possible. B. It freed the hands to do other things (e.g., use a tool, carry food, etc.). C. It allowed for reaching things at a greater distance. D. It made hominids taller and more frightening to animals. Answer: B. It freed the hands to do other things (e.g., use a tool, carry food, etc.). Correct: This was a precursor to other changes such as the development of agriculture. A. It made running possible. Incorrect: Running was possible already. The adaptation allowed for the use of the hands for things other than standing, walking, or running. 71. By 200,000 years ago the early hominid species had evolved into our species: _______________. A. Homo sapiens B. Hydro sapiens C. Poly sapiens D. Hetero sapiens Answer: A 72. It is believed that Homo sapiens survived and evolved in comparison to other species from the Homo family because _______________. A. their brains were 30 percent larger B. they were better at climbing trees C. they were nocturnal D. their bones were thicker and heavier Answer: A 73. How much larger was the size of early Homo’s brain compared to the brains of earlier hominids? A. 100% B. 200% C. 55% D. 70% Answer: B 74. Evolutionary biologists believe that the larger brains of early Homo babies meant that babies were born less mature than they were for earlier hominids, resulting in _______________. A. a greater likelihood of death at birth B. a longer time before the rest of the body could support the head in infancy C. a longer period of dependency of infants on their parents D. a great likelihood that its head would get stuck in the pelvis opening Answer: C. a longer period of dependency of infants on their parents Correct: This is a trait that modern humans share with their early Homo ancestors. A. a greater likelihood of death at birth Incorrect: The larger, more immature brains resulted in a longer time period of infant dependency on their parents. 75. When did the early hominid species evolve into Homo sapiens? A. 20,000 years ago B. 200,000 years ago C. 2,000,000 years ago D. 20,000,000 years ago Answer: B 76. Human art first appeared during the _______________. A. Upper Paleolithic period B. Lower Mesozoic period C. Middle Cenozoic period D. Lower Jurassic period Answer: A 77. The Upper Paleothic period was from _______________. A. 40,000 to about 10,000 years ago B. 4,000 to about 1,000 years ago C. 60,000 to about 300,000 years ago D. 6,000 to about 60,000 years ago Answer: A 78. It is clear that during the _______________ human began to use boats and trade with others. A. Upper Paleolithic period B. Lower Mesozoic period C. Middle Cenozoic period D. Lower Jurassic period Answer: A 79. Which of the following tools were developed by human beings during the Upper Paleolithic period? A. the bow and arrow and the spear thrower B. the gun and canon C. the folding-blade knife and shovel D. the harpoon and shotgun Answer: A 80. How much larger are the brains of Homo sapiens than the brains of the Homo species that immediately preceded us? A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 70% Answer: B 81. Physically, how much have Homo sapiens changed from the time they evolved from the preceding Homo species through the present? A. very little B. moderately C. quite a lot D. significantly, there is hardly any resemblance Answer: A 82. Which of the following experienced global temperatures that resemble the temperatures of today? A. Neolithic period B. Upper Paleolithic period C. Early Civilization period D. Monolithic period Answer: A 83. Which of the following is an indicator of the Upper Paleolithic period in human evolutionary history? A. Humans began to bury their dead. B. Humans began to walk. C. Humans began to read. D. Humans began hunting animals. Answer: A 84. The cultivation of plants and the domestication of animals occurred during the _______________ period of evolutionary history. A. Neolithic B. Jurassic C. Paleolithic D. Monolithic Answer: A 85. The Upper Paleolithic was the time of the last ________________. A. Ice Age B. period of global warming C. devastating tsunami D. eruption of a Super Volcano Answer: A 86. When was the Neolithic Period? A. 100,000 to 70,000 years ago B. 80,000 to 60,000 years ago C. 40,000 to 10,000 years ago D. 10,000 to 5,000 years ago Answer: D 87. The final major historical change that provided the basis for how we live today began around 5,000 years ago with the development of _______________. A. agriculture and animal husbandry B. roadways C. family units D. civilization Answer: D 88. _______________ is characterized by cities, written language, specialization of work, and differences among people with wealth and status. A. A civilization B. The ethnicity of a group C. Nationality D. A race of people Answer: A 89. Which of the following is a characteristic of human evolutionary history and a similarity that we have with our ancestral relatives, hominid? A. Humans have especially long arms to allow them to move in trees. B. Humans have small skulls to make the birthing process easier. C. Humans have a relatively short time span during which they depend upon adults. D. Humans have a relatively long period of childhood dependence on adults before reaching maturity. Answer: D 90. _______________ claims that many traits and characteristics in human development are influenced by our evolutionary history. A. Evolutionary psychology B. Social Darwinism C. Cultural anthropology D. Natural psychology Answer: A 91. Over the last 100,000 years, Homo sapiens have _______________ biologically and have _______________ socially. A. changed very little; changed very dramatically B. changed very dramatically; changed very little C. not changed at all; remained constant D. evolved to become shorter; regressed to an earlier time period Answer: A 92. Although women are capable of giving birth to at least eight children in the course of their reproductive lives, how many children do most women have today? A. 0 to 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 or more Answer: A 93. From an evolutionary perspective it is believed that the human species originated in _______________. A. the forests and plateaus of South America B. the plains and lowlands of North America C. the grasslands and forests of Africa D. the tundra and deciduous forests of the Arctic Answer: C Short Answer Questions 94. What are the components of SES? Answer: education level, income and occupational status 95. Why was bipedal locomotion considered a useful adaptation? Answer: It may have freed up the hands to do things such as carry things or hold a weapon. These abilities may have helped to ensure survival. 96. Describe two ways that Homo Sapiens was different from earlier Homo species. Answer: Homo Sapiens have smaller and lighter bones, smaller jaws and teeth and a much bigger brain. 97. What are two characteristics that mark civilization, the final historical change that began around 5,000 years ago? Answer: • cities • writing • specialized kinds of work • differences in wealth/status • a centralized political system 98. Describe a research question an evolutionary psychologist might investigate. Answer: the evolutionary basis of why men rate attractiveness as more important in mate selection and women rate earning potential higher Essay Questions 99. India is the second most populous country and is projected to have more people than in any other country by 2050. Describe three aspects of Indian people and/or culture. Answer: Most have arranged marriages and the bride moves in with the groom and his family. They have a caste system in which people are born into a certain social class. It is a developing country that is quickly becoming a leader in the global economy. 100. Give an example of a collectivist culture and a tradition or behavior that illustrates their collectivist beliefs. Answer: Japan would be considered a collectivist culture. In that culture, it would be considered the disgraceful to put one’s elderly parents in an institution. Because older people are revered and because the allegiance to the family is strong, the elderly almost always live in multi-generational families under one roof. MyDevelopmentLab Question Bank Pre-Test 1. What are a group’s customs, beliefs, art, and technology known as? A. culture B. society C. mores D. kinship Answer: A 2. Throughout history, what was the average number of children women typically gave birth to? A. 1 to 3 B. 4 to 8 C. 9 to 12 D. 13 to 15 Answer: B 3. What number represents “replacement rate” in terms of fertility? A. 1.2 B. 2.1 C. 3.3 D. 4.5 Answer: B 4. The most affluent countries in the world are known as what type of countries? A. developing B. developed C. sustained D. emerging Answer: B 5. Between now and 2050, the increase in the population of the United States will be nearly entirely due to what? A. minority fertility B. majority fertility C. immigration D. surrogate motherhood Answer: C 6. According to the population statistics, a child born today is most likely going to be a citizen of what type of country? A. European B. Middle Eastern C. developing D. developed Answer: C 7. What type of culture refers to people who live in rural areas of developing countries who tend to live according to the historical elements of their culture? A. conservative B. archaic C. traditional D. conventional Answer: C 8. A professor spends nearly a decade in school, has a high income, and has a strong occupational status. What would this person’s socioeconomic status (SES) likely be? A. low SES B. middle SES C. moderate SES D. high SES Answer: D 9. Greg views himself as Asian-American. He was born in the United States but incorporates many aspects of Asian culture into his everyday life. What is he defining himself in terms of? A. traditional culture B. nationality C. race D. ethnicity Answer: D 10. Major changes in the way that humans lived occurred around 5,000 years ago. What was the major factor that influenced this change in the way humans lived? A. advances in medicine B. belief in God and the development of religion C. the increase in the human lifespan D. the development of civilization Answer: D Post-Test 1. Researchers initially believed that development was universal. Who did they study when they believed this to be true? A. Americans B. Europeans C. Africans D. South Americans Answer: A 2. What is the Total Fertility Rate? The number of _________________. A. pregnancies per woman B. births per woman C. conceptions per woman D. miscarriages per woman Answer: B 3. What percent of the current world’s population does not live in the most affluent countries? A. 82% B. 73% C. 63% D. 53% Answer: A 4. What is the poorest region of the world? A. South America B. Northern Europe C. Africa D. Southeast Asia Answer: C 5. What is the term that refers to characteristics of different groups that include cultural origin, traditions, race, religion, and language? A. race B. community C. ethnicity D. age Answer: C 6. What term is used to describe the concept that the offspring most likely to survive until they can reproduce will be the ones whose variations are best adapted to their environment? A. biological selection B. adaptive selection C. natural selection D. genetic selection Answer: C 7. In what way did the adaptation of walking on two legs help hominids? A. It made hominids faster since they could now run. B. They could now reach objects that they could not before. C. It freed the hands to do other things. D. It made hominids taller. Answer: C 8. Your cousin has a high school diploma and is currently working in a fast-food business. She hopes of becoming a lawyer. If she is successful, what socioeconomic status will she likely have? A. low B. moderate C. middle D. high Answer: D 9. Juan lives in a country in which his parents make less than $2.00 a day. His parents want him to get an education, but have no plans for him to go to college. Juan was born in a _______________. A. collective culture B. individualistic culture C. developed country D. developing country Answer: D 10. For the past 200,000 years, Homo sapiens have changed very little biologically speaking. What accounts for the major differences that can be seen in other aspects of human life? A. The only real difference concerns technology. B. the advancement of the scientific method C. the major change in life expectancy D. different cultures Answer: D Chapter Exam 1. Growth and change across the lifespan is known as _______________. A. evolution B. development C. change D. growth Answer: B. 2. For most of human history, what was the total population? A. approximately 2 million B. under 6 million C. under 10 million D. approximately 14 million Answer: C 3. According to the text, if current trends continue, when will the worldwide Total Fertility Rate reach the replacement rate? A. 2020 B. 2050 C. 2080 D. 2110 Answer: B 4. What percent of the world’s population is comprised of developed countries? A. less than 20% B. more than 30% C. 68% D. 82% Answer: A 5. What is the poorest region of the world? A. Africa B. South America C. Western Europe D. Australia Answer: A 6. What values do developing countries regard as most important? A. collectivistic B. traditionalistic C. individualistic D. paternalistic Answer: A 7. What is another name for the cultural group that sets most norms and standards in a country? A. majority culture B. minority culture C. collectivist culture D. individualistic culture Answer: A 8. What concept suggests that the young of any species are born with variations on a wide range of characteristics and those who survive are the ones best adapted to the environment? A. natural selection B. psychoanalysis C. humanism D. behaviorism Answer: A 9. What evolutionary line led to humans? A. hominid B. Neolithic C. mammal D. sapiens Answer: A 10. When did hominids evolve into Homo sapiens? A. 60,000 years ago B. 80,000 years ago C. 200,000 years ago D. 120,000 years ago Answer: C 11. How much have Homo sapiens changed from the time they evolved into Homo sapiens until now? A. very little B. some C. quite a bit D. considerably Answer: A 12. During what period did the cultivation of plants and the domestication of animals occur? A. Monolithic B. Paleolithic C. Neolithic D. Jurassic Answer: C 13. During what period was the last Ice Age? A. Upper Paleolithic B. Neolithic C. Jurassic D. Cenozoic Answer: A 14. What is characterized by cities, written language, and specialization of work? A. socialization B. nationality C. civilization D. ethnicity Answer: C 15. How many children do most women today have? A. 0 to 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 or more Answer: A Quick Review 1. Around 10,000 years ago the human population began to increase considerably. Why? A. the development of agriculture and the domestication of animals B. medical advances C. civilization D. better ventilation of dwellings Answer: A 2. What is expected to occur to developed countries in the near future and to continue for decades? A. a continuous increase B. a continuous decrease C. a slight increase followed by a drastic decline D. a slight decrease followed by a drastic increase Answer: B 3. By the year 2050, what country will have the steepest decline in population? A. Japan B. United States C. Mexico D. Uganda Answer: A 4. The population of the United States represents what percent of the world’s population? A. 5% B. 15% C. 25% D. 35% Answer: A 5. In the United States, why is infant mortality so high in low SES families? A. Mothers cannot afford nutritious foods. B. Families are more likely to be absent. C. There is a lack of prenatal care. D. They do not take prenatal vitamins. Answer: C 6. How does the scientific community view Darwin’s theory of evolution? A. Darwin's theory of evolution received a high degree of support at its initial proposal; however, in recent times it has lost the backing of the scientific community. B. Most researchers have discounted the theory of evolution because it lacks empirical and scientific support. C. Darwin’s theory of evolution has been abandoned for the more comprehensive and scientifically supported theory of Intelligent Design. D. There is an enormous amount of evidence that has accumulated to verify the theory and support the principle of natural selection as the main mechanism of evolutionary change. Answer: D 7. Homo babies were born with larger brains and were less mature than earlier hominids. This resulted in __________________. A. a higher probability of death in infancy B. very slow development C. a higher probability of vertebra breaking in the cervical region in infancy D. a longer period of dependency on parents Answer: D 8. During what period did human art first appear? A. Lower Jurassic B. Middle Cenozoic C. Lower Mesozoic D. Upper Paleolithic Answer: D 9. The brains of Homo sapiens were how much larger than the brains of the Homo species that just preceded Homo sapiens? A. 90% B. 85% C. 70% D. 30% Answer: D 10. Evolutionarily speaking, where did the human species originate? A. South America B. North America C. Africa D. Australia Answer: C Video Guide Questions Short Answer Questions 1. Describe an example of a chance event that could impact either the Green or Brown Beetle population. Answer: Answers will vary. Sample answers: A flood could occur which would kill off all of the brown beetles, or a new animal may be released onto the island which only prefers to eat the green beetles therefore the green beetle population would dwindle. A sudden temperature increase could favor the Green Beetle population, while heavy rainfall might benefit the Brown Beetle population. A severe weather event like a hurricane or a prolonged drought could dramatically impact the Green or Brown Beetle population by destroying their habitat and food sources, leading to a decrease in their numbers. 2. Define gene flow and list an example of it either using the beetle population from the video or another type of insect or animal. Answer: Gene flow deals with moving into and out of a population. Examples will vary. The example in video is the driftwood carrying in the brown and green beetles into the green beetle population. Gene flow is the transfer of genetic material between populations through migration or interbreeding, promoting genetic diversity. An example is the movement of beetles between isolated patches of habitat, facilitating genetic exchange and adaptation within the population. 3. If a drought was causing the Brown Beetle population to grow due to natural selection, what should then occur if the weather balanced out again causing a more lush and less dry environment? Describe your answer in detail. Answer: If the environmental conditions flourished again, it would lead us to believe that the green beetle population would begin to grow again due to the fact that they would find natural hiding places in the green lush surfaces and be able to better hide themselves from predators. Multiple Choice Questions 1. The term for a population evolving due to a chance event is _______________. A. gene flow B. genetic drift C. natural selection D. allele frequency Answer: B 2. When individuals with inherited traits better suited to their environment survive and produce more offspring than other individuals, we call this process _______________. A. natural selection B. chance event C. genetic drift D. gene flow Answer: A 3. Which of the following is an example of Natural Selection? A. A branch of driftwood carries brown beetles to an island of green beetles. B. A branch of driftwood carries green beetles to an island of green beetles. C. A drought causes the landscape to become brown and therefore better camouflages Brown beetles protecting them from being eaten by birds. More brown beetles are left among the green and brown beetle population, and therefore are able to reproduce more. D. A storm occurs which causes a tree to be struck by lightning. The tree catches fire and most of the beetle population is killed. A few beetles are able to survive by floating out to another island on a piece of driftwood. Answer: C Section 2 Theories of Human Development Multiple Choice Questions 1. What is probably the oldest known conception of the life course, written about 3,000 years ago? A. the Dharmashastras B. the Bible C. the Koran D. the Talmud Answer: A 2. According to the sacred law books of the Hindu religion, how long does each stage of a man’s life last? A. 5 years B. 15 years C. 25 years D. 35 years Answer: C 3. The Dharmashastras, the sacred law books of the Hindu religion, divides lifespan into ________________. A. two stages, each of which lasts 50 years B. three stages, each of which lasts 25 years C. four stages, each of which lasts 25 years D. six stages, each of which lasts 30 years Answer: C 4. Which of the following is a correct order for man’s life stages as described by the Dharmashastras? A. forest dweller, apprentice, householder, and renunciant B. householder, apprentice, renunciant, and forest dweller C. renunciant, forest dweller, householder, and apprentice D. apprentice, householder, forest dweller, and renunciant Answer: D 5. Aadit is in his early teens and is dependent on his parents. As he grows up and learns the skills necessary for adult life, he will move forward and become independent. According to the Dharmashastras, the sacred law books of the Hindu religion, Aaddit is in the _______________ stage. A. apprentice B. householder C. forest dweller D. renunciant Answer: A. apprentice Correct: The apprentice stage is between the ages of 0 and 25. He is dependent upon his parents and in the process of learning new skills. B. householder Incorrect: At this stage, closer to age 26, one has become independent. 6. From the Dharmashastras, at which of the following stages are people supposed to begin to withdraw from worldly attachments? This means an end to sexual life, a decline in work responsibilities, and the beginning of a transfer of household responsibilities to the sons of the family. A. apprentice stage B. householder stage C. forest dweller stage D. renunciant stage Answer: C. forest dweller stage Correct: In this stage, from age 51 to 75, individuals are to pass worldly possessions and social responsibilities to their sons. D. renunciant stage Incorrect: Individuals at this go even further to reject worldly attachments and prepare for the end of this life and entrance into the next. 7. Yuthika is 42 years old, married, and the father of three children. He is considered head of the household and has many responsibilities. Beyond taking care of his own children he is also responsible for taking care of his elderly parents. According to Dharmashastras, the sacred law books of the Hindu religion, Yuthika is in the _______________ stage. A. apprentice B. householder C. forest dweller D. renunciant Answer: B. householder Correct: The householder stage is from the ages of 26 to 50; and major characteristics are family and work responsibilities and becoming the head of a household. A. apprentice Incorrect: The apprentice is 0 to 26 years of age, when a boy is still dependent on his parents. 8. According to Dharmashastras, the sacred law books of the Hindu religion, an individual who is 65 years old is in the _______________ stage. A. apprentice B. householder C. forest dweller D. renunciant Answer: C 9. According to Dharmashastras, the sacred law books of the Hindu religion, an individual who is 45 years old is in the _______________ stage. A. apprentice B. householder C. forest dweller D. renunciant Answer: B 10. The Dharmashastras, the sacred law books of the Hindu religion, say that life has _______________ stages. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 Answer: C 11. According to the sacred law books of the Hindu religion, what is the purpose of life during the final stage (renunciant)? A. to withdraw from the world B. to prepare for the end of life and to entry into the next C. to embrace the world and gain material possessions to pass to the next generation D. to reach the highest level of spirituality Answer: B 12. According to Solon, a Greek philosopher who lived 2,500 years ago, how many segments are there in a lifespan? A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 Answer: B 13. According to Solon, a Greek philosopher who lived 2,500 years ago, how long did each segment of the lifespan last? A. 5 years B. 7 years C. 9 years D. 11 years Answer: B 14. Ancient philosopher Solon divided lifespan into _______________. A. two 35-year segments B. five 13 year segments C. ten 7-year segments D. fifteen 5-year segments Answer: C 15. Which of the following best describes a life stage as proposed by the ancient Greek philosopher Solon? A. Ages 28–35: The ages of marriage and parenthood, when a man bethinks him that this is the season for courting. B. Age 13: The age of moral responsibility, when a boy has his Bar Mitzvah signifying that he is responsible for keeping the religious commandments, rather than his parents being responsible for him. C. Age 56–63: The religious ideal in this stage is for a man to withdraw from the world and literally live in the forest, devoting himself to prayer and religious study, living only on alms and cultivating patience and compassion. D. Age 63–70: The renunciant goes even farther in rejecting worldly attachments. The purpose of life in this stage is simply to prepare for the end of this life and entry into the next. Answer: A 16. The Jewish holy book, the Talmud, describes the lifespan as consisting of _____________ segments. A. 10 B. 14 C. 20 D. 25 Answer: B 17. Like the Hindu Dharmashastras, the life course described in the Talmud goes up to age _____________. A. 70 B. 80 C. 90 D. 100 Answer: D 18. Which of the following best describes a life stage from the Jewish holy book, the Talmud? A. Ages 35-42: A stage of maturity of mind and morals, when his mind, ever open to virtue, broadens, and never inspires him to profitless deeds. B. Age 13: The age of moral responsibility, when a boy has his Bar Mitzvah signifying that he is responsible for keeping the religious commandments, rather than his parents being responsible for him. C. Age 60: The religious ideal in this stage is for a man to withdraw from the world and literally live in the forest, devoting himself to prayer and religious study, living only on alms and cultivating patience and compassion. D. Age 42–56: The renunciant goes even farther than the forest dweller in rejecting worldly attachments. The purpose of life in this stage is simply to prepare for the end of this life and entry into the next. Answer: B 19. When comparing three ancient conceptions of life, the Dharmashastras, the Talmud, and the philosopher Solon, a common theme is that _______________. A. preparation for life is made in youth, skills and expertise are gained in adulthood, and wisdom and peace are the fruits of old age. B. the lifespan has a maximum of 120 years and those years can be divided into six substages. C. youth is a time for maturity, adulthood is a time of social responsibility, and the final stage is a time for psychological regression and self-absorption. D. all of these perspectives assume that individuals will have a short lifespan and not make it to the final stages of the life cycle. Answer: A. preparation for life is made in youth, skills and expertise are gained in adulthood, and wisdom and peace are the fruits of old age. Correct: All three perspectives provide distinct stages in which individuals grow and mature with time. B. the lifespan has a maximum of 120 years and those years can be divided into six substages. Incorrect: The Dharmashastras end at age 70, the Talmud ends at 100, and Solon ends life’s stages at 100 years. 20. When comparing three ancient conceptions of life: the Dharmashastras, the Talmud, and the philosopher Solon, a major difference is _______________. A. they are all based upon biological and genetic evidence B. they all come from a Western historical point of view C. they all end at 100 years of life D. they each have very different ways of dividing up the lifespan Answer: D. they each have very different ways of dividing up the lifespan Correct: The Dharmashastras has four stages, the Talud has 14, and Solon has 10 stages. C. they all end at 100 years of life Incorrect: Solon’s stages end at age 100; the Dharmashastras at 70; the Talmud stages go to 100 years. 21. Based upon an understanding of three ancient conceptions of life, the Dharmashastras, the Talmud, and the philosopher Solon, it is clear that _______________. A. lifespan is not really divided into clear and definite biologically based stages but is partly socially driven B. stages of the lifespan are consistent across cultures and therefore must be genetically based C. lifespan is determined by one’s genetic inheritance and social factors do not play a role in longevity D. lifespan is divided into clear and definite biologically based stages and is not influenced by social factors Answer: A. lifespan is not really divided into clear and definite biologically based stages but is partly socially driven Correct: Dissimilar to insects’ life stages of larva, juvenile, and adult, the human lifespan is also culturally and socially driven. D. lifespan is divided into clear and definite biologically based stages and is not influenced by social factors Incorrect: From a superficial understanding one might assume that the lifespan is broken into clear and distinct stages; however, when one compares the stages of three different perspectives it is clear that social forces play a role. 22. One important difference among the three ancient conceptions of human development is that they have very different ways of _______________. A. dividing the lifespan into segments or stages B. defining the afterlife C. developing a sense of the lifespan based on their religious thoughts D. expressing their theories regarding development Answer: A 23. It is important to recognize that theories regarding development are not just biologically based, but also involve ________________. A. physiological changes B. behavior and learning attributes C. social and cultural aspects D. hormone changes Answer: C. social and cultural aspects Correct: While adolescents everywhere will experience puberty, for example, culture will have a large effect on how they experience it. D. hormone changes Incorrect: There are differences across the lifespan in terms of hormones, but views regarding development will be based on social and cultural conventions as well. 24. According to the text, how long has the scientific study of human development existed? A. 20 years B. 70 years C. 120 years D. 200 years Answer: C. 120 years Correct: The scientific study of human development is a relatively young field. D. 200 years Incorrect: The scientific study of human development has existed for 120 years. 25. Working with persons suffering from various mental health problems, Freud concluded that a consistent theme across patients was that they seemed to have experienced some kind of _______________. A. incongruent self-concept that is interfering with daily functioning B. momentous event that classically conditioned a fear within them C. traumatic event in childhood now buried in their unconscious D. biological unfolding of the genetic code that is interfering with daily life Answer: C. traumatic event in childhood now buried in their unconscious Correct: The essence of Freudian psychotherapy is unlocking traumatic events from one’s childhood that are buried in the unconscious. A. incongruent self-concept that is interfering with daily functioning Incorrect: Incongruent self-concept is consistent with Rogerian perspective 26. According to Freud, traumatic events during childhood that are buried in the unconscious mind are also known as _______________ memories. A. repressed B. expressed C. conscious D. conditioned Answer: A 27. Freud developed the first method of psychotherapy, which he called _______________. A. psychoanalysis B. psychosocial moratorium C. behavioral therapy D. humanistic psychology Answer: A 28. Sigmund Freud divided human development into _______________ stages. A. psychosexual B. psychosocial C. psychobiological D. psychocognitive Answer: A 29. Which of the following comprise Freud’s theory of personality? A. id, ego, superego B. conscious, collective unconscious, subcortical unconscious C. the self, the shadow, the anima D. real self, fear self, future self Answer: A 30. According to Freud, when a traumatic event is buried it is ________________. A. sublimated B. repressed C. cathartic D. forgotten Answer: B. repressed Correct: Freud believed that repressed traumatic memories affect a person’s development even if he or she cannot recall them. C. cathartic Incorrect: Cathartic is a term that refers to the notion that certain experiences can release repressed anxieties. 31. Freud developed the first method of psychotherapy, which he called _______________. A. psychosexual therapy B. psychodynamic theory C. dream analysis D. psychoanalysis Answer: D. psychoanalysis Correct: A major component of psychoanalysis was unearthing repressed memories through discussion of dreams and childhood experiences. C. dream analysis Incorrect: Dream analysis is one aspect of psychoanalysis, but is not the method of psychotherapy. 32. What was the goal of Freud’s psychotherapeutic approach? A. to make repressed memories conscious B. to keep repressed memories permanently repressed C. to have the client express his or her sexuality without reprimands or judgment D. to reestablish child–parental relationships Answer: A. to make repressed memories conscious Correct: Freud believed that simply uncovering repressed memories could be enough to heal a patient. B. to keep repressed memories permanently repressed Incorrect: The goal of psychoanalysis is to bring repressed memories into the client’s awareness to be assessed and analyzed. 33. According to Freud, what is enough to heal the patient? A. to make repressed memories conscious B. to keep repressed memories permanently repressed C. to have the client express his or her sexuality without reprimands or judgment D. to reestablish child–parental relationships Answer: A. to make repressed memories conscious Correct: Freud had patients talk about their dreams and childhood memories in an effort to uncover repressed memories of trauma. B. to keep repressed memories permanently repressed Incorrect: The goal of psychoanalysis is to bring repressed memories into the client’s awareness to be assessed and analyzed. 34. What did Freud believe was the force that drove human development? A. biology B. culture C. sexuality D. family life Answer: C. sexuality Correct: Later theories of development recognize that sexuality is only one of many driving forces. B. culture Incorrect: Freud believed the driving force is sexuality. 35. What is Freud’s theory of human development? A. bio-sexual theory B. psychosexual theory C. sexual stage theory D. libido-drive theory Answer: B 36. Which of the following is a correct order of Freud’s first three psychosexual stages? A. oral stage, anal stage, and phallic stage B. phallic stage, oral stage, and anal stage C. anal stage, phallic stage, and oral stage D. oral stage, phallic stage, and anal stage Answer: A 37. Daquon, who is 4 years old, at times notices that his penis becomes erect and is fascinated by this “strange” phenomenon. According to Freud, Daquon is in the _______________ stage of psychosexual development. A. oral B. anal C. phallic D. fixation Answer: C. phallic Correct: At age 4 he notices his genitalia and is fascinated; according to Freud, this is a classic signifier of the phallic stage. B. anal Incorrect: The anal stage happens closer to age 2; at this time infants are potty training and may become fascinated by feces. 38. Freud proposed that all children experience a(n) _______________ in which they desire to displace their _______________ parent and enjoy sexual access to the _______________ parent. A. Thanatos drive; other-sex; same-sex B. Oedipus complex; same-sex; other-sex C. Catharsis; same-sex; other-sex D. Freudian slip; other-sex; same-sex Answer: B 39. What operates on the pleasure principle and constantly seeks immediate and unrestrained satisfaction? A. id B. ego C. superego D. libido Answer: A. id Correct: The id functions in opposition to the superego, which acts as one’s conscience. B. ego Incorrect: According to Freud, the ego balances the demands of the id and the superego. 40. Adults in the environment teach the child to develop a conscience that restricts the satisfaction of desires and makes the child feel guilty for disobeying. What did Freud call this aspect of his theory? A. id B. ego C. superego D. libido Answer: C. superego Correct: Freud believed that the superego functioned in opposition to the id, which constantly seeks immediate satisfaction. B. ego Incorrect: According to Freud, the ego balances the demands of the id and the superego. 41. According to Freud, what balances the demands of the id and the superego? A. id B. ego C. superego D. libido Answer: B. ego Correct: The ego operates on the reality principle, which balances the id’s desire for pleasure with the constraints of the superego. C. superego Incorrect: According to Freud, the superego refers to the individual’s conscience. 42. What principle describes an individual’s ability to seek satisfaction within the constraints imposed by the superego? A. pleasure principle B. reality principle C. balancing principle D. libido principle Answer: B. reality principle Correct: Freud believed that the reality principle is what drives the ego, as opposed to the pleasure principle that drives the id. A. pleasure principle Incorrect: According to Freud, the pleasure principle refers to the individual’s desire to seek satisfaction of biological drives. 43. According to Freud, what stage of development are infants in when sexual sensations are concentrated in the mouth? A. oral B. anal C. phallic D. latency Answer: A 44. According to Freud, what stage of development are infants in when sexual sensations are concentrated in the anus? A. oral B. anal C. phallic D. latency Answer: B 45. According to Freud, what is the most important stage in his theory? A. anal B. phallic C. latency D. genital Answer: B 46. Freud proposed that all children desired to replace their same-sex parent and enjoy sexual access to the other-sex parent. What was Freud’s term for this concept? A. genital complex B. incest complex C. parental complex D. Oedipus complex Answer: D. Oedipus complex Correct: The Oedipus complex is named for the Greek myth in which Oedipus unwittingly fulfilled a prophecy that said he would kill his father and marry his mother. C. parental complex Incorrect: Although the concept involved parents, the term Freud used is the Oedipus complex. 47. During what stage did Freud believe the child represses sexual desires and focuses his or her energy on learning social and intellectual skills? A. anal B. phallic C. latency D. genital Answer: C. latency Correct: Freud believed that this stage occurred in middle childhood after the phallic phase. D. genital Incorrect: According to Freud, it is during the latency stage that children focus on social and intellectual skills. 48. A child who had been overly frustrated in the oral stage, such as being weaned too early, would develop an adult personality that might include smoking cigarettes, nibbling fingernails, and a tendency to make “biting” remarks. According to Freud this individual has developed a(n) ________________. A. fixation B. Oedipal complex C. crisis D. reality principle Answer: A. fixation Correct: By receiving gratification through the oral orifice Freud would suggest that this individual is fixated, which derives from negative experiences while in the oral stage of development during infancy. B. Oedipal complex Incorrect: The Oedipal complex is a period of fixation on the other-sex parent that Freud theorized occurs during the phallic stage. 49. During which stage did Freud believe that the individual’s sexual drive reemerges, but this time in a way approved by the superego and directed toward persons outside the family? A. anal B. phallic C. latency D. genital Answer: D. genital Correct: Freud believed that this stage occurs during adolescence, after the period of latency. B. phallic Incorrect: According to Freud, it was during the genital stage that individuals focused their reemerging sexuality on members outside the family. 50. According to Freud, when did everything important to development occur? A. during the oral and anal stages B. before the latency stage C. before adulthood D. during adulthood Answer: C. before adulthood Correct: His five stages of psychosexual development end with adolescence and the genital stage. D. during adulthood Incorrect: According to Freud, one’s personality was set long before adulthood. 51. According to Freud, someone who was frustrated during the oral stage would be likely to smoke or bite his or her fingernails. Freud would say that the individual was _______________. A. neurotic B. fixated C. completely “normal” D. psychotic Answer: B. fixated Correct: According to Freud, the only way to remove these fixations was through psychoanalysis. A. neurotic Incorrect: According to Freud, when someone is frustrated at a particular stage, he or she is “fixated” at that stage. 52. Which of the following is a major criticism of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory of human development? A. He overly focused on sexuality and it is hard to reduce human development to a single motive. B. He overly studied children and spent too much time on experimental methods. C. He underemphasizes the significance of childhood and overemphasizes later time periods. D. He spent too much time studying a diversity of subjects and people from varying ages. Answer: A 53. Your roommate is a smoker. He really would like to quit and has been reading about Freudian theory. He thinks that he is fixated at the oral stage and that he should make an appointment with a clinician who specializes in psychosexual therapy. What would you tell him? A. Few professionals adhere to Freud’s theory, even psychoanalysts, so he should try something else. B. He should probably try it. Freud would say that he was orally fixated. C. It sounds to you like he is actually anally fixated. D. It will take time, but psychoanalysis should probably work for him. Answer: A. Few professionals adhere to Freud’s theory, even psychoanalysts, so he should try something else. Correct: Most people who study human development today agree that human behavior is governed by more complex motivations than just sexuality. B. He should probably try it. Freud would say that he was orally fixated. Incorrect: Although Freud would argue that your roommate was orally fixated, few professionals adhere to his theory. 54. Which of the following theorists proposes that human development is broken into psychosocial stages? A. Erik Erikson B. Sigmund Freud C. B. F. Skinner D. Carl Rogers Answer: A 55. Unlike Freud, Erikson proposed that human development continues _______________ and is not solely determined by the years of childhood. A. throughout the lifespan B. into the teenage years C. until the mid-20s D. until a midlife crisis Answer: A. throughout the lifespan Correct: Erikson’s psychosocial stages are each significant in their own right and continue until late adulthood. D. until a midlife crisis Incorrect: Many are familiar with Erikson’s concept of midlife crisis; however, this is only one stage, called ego generativity versus stagnation. 56. Erik Erikson’s psychosocial theory comprises _______________ stages. A. four cognitive B. five psychosexual C. eight psychosocial D. three moral Answer: C 57. Which of the following is a correct order of Erik Erikson’s third, fourth, and fifth stages of psychosocial development? A. initiative vs. guilt, identity vs. identity confusion, generativity vs. stagnation B. ego integrity vs. despair, intimacy vs. isolation, identity vs. identity confusion C. trust vs. mistrust, industry vs. inferiority, autonomy vs. shame and doubt D. initiative vs. guilt, industry vs. inferiority, identity vs. identity confusion Answer: D 58. Grant is in the 3rd grade and is enthusiastic about learning in school. Beyond recess he enjoys reading books, doing his math homework, and learning new spelling words. He is also confident in his ability to accomplish goals that he has set for himself. Which of Erikson psychosocial stages is Grant in? A. trust vs. mistrust B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt C. initiative vs. guilt D. industry vs. inferiority Answer: D. industry vs. inferiority Correct: During the grade school years the child is in Erikson’s industry vs. inferiority stage. C. initiative vs. guilt Incorrect: Initiative vs. guilt is a stage prior to elementary school, closer to age 5 and preschool. 59. Erikson’s eighth and final stage of psychosocial development is _______________. A. trust vs. mistrust B. generativity vs. stagnation C. ego integrity vs. despair D. industry vs. inferiority Answer: C 60. Today, what is the status of Freud’s stages of psychosexual stages in explaining human development? A. Few people who study human development adhere to the theory. B. It is the accepted theory of how people’s personalities develop. C. There are some arguments regarding the theory, but overall it has met the test of time. D. The first three stages have been very explanatory, but the two last are not. Answer: A. Few people who study human development adhere to the theory. Correct: Most people who study human development today agree that human behavior is governed by more complex motivations than just sexuality. C. There are some arguments regarding the theory, but overall it has met the test of time. Incorrect: Most professionals who study human development do not adhere to the theory as a way to explain human development. 61. Who developed a psychosocial theory in which the driving force behind development is not sexuality but the need to become integrated into the social and cultural environment? A. Freud B. Erikson C. Bronfenbrenner D. Piaget Answer: B. Erikson Correct: Although Erikson was part of Freud’s circle in Vienna, he doubted the validity of Freud’s theories. A. Freud Incorrect: Freud believed the driving force is sexuality. 62. What was one of the ways that Erikson’s theory differed from Freud’s theory? Erikson believed that _______________. A. sexuality was even more important than Freud did B. personality was set at birth, while Freud thought that it was completed by age 6 C. development continued throughout the lifespan, and Freud believed that only the early years were important D. biological factors were more important in terms of development, and Freud believed that culture was more important Answer: C. development continued throughout the lifespan, and Freud believed that only the early years were important Correct: Erikson’s theory of human development continues through late adulthood. A. sexuality was even more important than Freud did Incorrect: Freud believed the driving force is sexuality, Erikson did not. 63. Erikson believed that each stage had a distinctive developmental challenge, which he referred to as a _______________. A. fixation B. sensitivity C. critical period D. crisis Answer: D. crisis Correct: Erikson believed that a successful resolution of the crisis prepares the person well for the next stage of development. A. fixation Incorrect: Freud discussed fixations. The developmental challenge for Erikson was the crisis. 64. What happens when a person who had difficulty with the developmental challenge in one stage enters the next stage? He or she is _______________. A. equally likely to do well with the new stage as someone who achieved the developmental challenge at the earlier stage B. at high risk for being unsuccessful at the next stage as well C. advised to regress to the earlier stage and successfully complete the developmental challenge before moving on D. more likely to do well since he or she experienced the difficulty in the previous stage Answer: B. at high risk for being unsuccessful at the next stage as well Correct: This is based on Erik Erikson's psychosocial development theory, which posits that successful resolution of each developmental stage's crisis is crucial for healthy psychological development. A. equally likely to do well with the new stage as someone who achieved the developmental challenge at the earlier stage Incorrect: Erikson believed that failure to complete the crisis in one stage increased the likelihood of failure at the next stage. 65. According to Erikson, what is the developmental challenge during infancy? A. trust vs. mistrust B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt C. initiative vs. guilt D. industry vs. inferiority Answer: A. trust vs. mistrust Correct: At this stage, a child establishes a bond with his or her caregivers. B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt Incorrect: The developmental challenge in infancy is trust versus mistrust. 66. According to Erikson, what is the developmental challenge during toddlerhood? A. trust vs. mistrust B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt C. initiative vs. guilt D. industry vs. inferiority Answer: B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt Correct: In this stage, a toddler starts to develop a healthy sense of self as distinct from others. A. trust vs. mistrust Incorrect: The developmental challenge in toddlerhood is autonomy versus shame and doubt. 67. According to Erikson, what is the developmental challenge during early childhood? A. trust vs. mistrust B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt C. initiative vs. guilt D. industry vs. inferiority Answer: C. initiative vs. guilt Correct: During this stage in early childhood, a person learns to initiate activities in a purposeful way. B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt Incorrect: The developmental challenge in early childhood is initiative versus guilt. 68. According to Erik Erikson, a toddler who is 3 years old and develops a sense of self distinct from others is in which of the following psychosocial stages? A. trust vs. mistrust B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt C. initiative vs. guilt D. industry vs. inferiority Answer: B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt Correct: From age 2 to 4 toddlers are in Erikson’s autonomy versus shame and doubt stage; the child attempts to be autonomous based upon his or her sense of self. A. trust vs. mistrust Incorrect: Trust versus mistrust is Erikson’s first stage of life, encountered during infancy. 69. According to Erikson, what is the developmental challenge during late childhood? A. trust vs. mistrust B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt C. initiative vs. guilt D. industry vs. inferiority Answer: D. industry vs. inferiority Correct: During this stage one begins to learn the skills and knowledge of his or her culture. C. initiative vs. guilt Incorrect: The developmental challenge in late childhood is industry versus inferiority. 70. According to Erikson, what is the developmental challenge during adolescence? A. identity vs. identity confusion B. intimacy vs. isolation C. generativity vs. stagnation D. ego integrity vs. despair Answer: A. identity vs. identity confusion Correct: During this stage, one develops a secure and coherent identity. B. intimacy vs. isolation Incorrect: The developmental challenge in adolescence is identity versus identity confusion. 71. According to Erikson, what is the developmental challenge during early adulthood? A. identity vs. identity confusion B. intimacy vs. isolation C. generativity vs. stagnation D. ego integrity vs. despair Answer: B. intimacy vs. isolation Correct: During this stage, one establishes a long-term, committed love relationship. A. identity vs. identity confusion Incorrect: The developmental challenge in early adulthood is intimacy versus isolation. 72. According to Erikson, what is the developmental challenge during middle adulthood? A. identity vs. identity confusion B. intimacy vs. isolation C. generativity vs. stagnation D. ego integrity vs. despair Answer: C. generativity vs. stagnation Correct: During this stage, one is focused on caring for others and contributing to the well-being of the young. B. intimacy vs. isolation Incorrect: The developmental challenge in middle adulthood is generativity versus stagnation. 73. According to Erikson, what is the developmental challenge during late adulthood? A. identity vs. identity confusion B. intimacy vs. isolation C. generativity vs. stagnation D. ego integrity vs. despair Answer: D. ego integrity vs. despair Correct: During this stage, one evaluates his or her lifetime and accepts life as it is. C. generativity vs. stagnation Incorrect: The developmental challenge in late adulthood is integrity versus despair. 74. Which theory of human development has endured better? A. Freud’s psychosexual theory B. Erikson’s psychosocial theory C. Gilbert’s biosocial theory D. Hall’s bio-behavioral theory Answer: B. Erikson’s psychosocial theory Correct: There is near-consensus among researchers who study human development that development is a lifelong process with important changes occurring at each period, whereas Freud believed that all development occurred before adulthood. A. Freud’s psychosexual theory Incorrect: Erikson’s psychosocial theory has endured better. Nearly all researchers who study human development would argue that development is a lifelong process with important changes occurring at each period. 75. Urie Bronfenbrenner’s ecological theory focuses on _______________ that shape human development in the social environment. A. biological factors B. genetic inputs C. instinctive drive D. multiple influences Answer: D 76. Whose theory is not a stage theory of human development but rather a theory that focuses on the multiple influences that shape human development in the social environment? A. Freud B. Erikson C. Bronfenbrenner D. Piaget Answer: C. Bronfenbrenner Correct: Bronfenbrenner presented his theory as a reaction to what he viewed as an overemphasis in developmental psychology on the immediate environment. B. Erikson Incorrect: Although Erikson was very interested in the social aspects of development, his theory was a stage theory. Bronfenbrenner’s theory was not. 77. Bronfenbrenner’s ecological theory has _______________ key levels or systems that play a part in human development. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 Answer: C 78. What is Bronfenbrenner’s term for the immediate environment, the settings where people experience their daily lives? A. microsystem B. mesosystem C. exosystem D. macrosystem Answer: A. microsystem Correct: In most cultures the microsystem includes relationships with parents, siblings, peers, teachers, coaches, etc. B. mesosystem Incorrect: Bronfenbrenner referred to the person’s immediate environment as the microsystem. 79. What is Bronfenbrenner’s term for the network of interconnections between the various immediate environments that the individual experiences? A. microsystem B. mesosystem C. exosystem D. macrosystem Answer: B. mesosystem Correct: The mesosystem helps explain why a parent’s abusive behavior may result in a child having difficulty with teachers. C. exosystem Incorrect: Bronfenbrenner referred to the network of interconnections between the microsystems as the mesosystem. 80. Which of the following are components of the microsystem from Bronfenbrenner’s ecological theory? A. parents, siblings, peers and friends, and teachers B. schools, religious institutions, and the media C. cultural beliefs and values, and economic and governmental systems D. time and historical change Answer: A. parents, siblings, peers and friends, and teachers Correct: The microsystem is made up of elements that affect the child directly and are based upon daily, immediate contact. B. schools, religious institutions, and the media Incorrect: Larger social institutions such as schools and religion are components of the exosystem; they are influential, however they have a more indirect effect than the microsystem. 81. In Asian countries such as South Korea, competition to get into college is intense and depends chiefly on adolescents’ performance on a national exam at the end of high school; consequently, the high school years are a period of extreme academic stress. Fierce competition to get into college is an example of which of the following of Bronfenbrenner’s systems? A. microsystem B. exosystem C. macrosystem D. mesosystem Answer: B. exosystem Correct: The exosystem is comprised of social institutions and may have an indirect effect on development, as compared to the microsystem having a direct effect. A. microsystem Incorrect: The microsystem is comprised of one’s immediate environment, including parents, teachers, and friends. 82. What is Bronfenbrenner’s term for the societal institutions that have indirect but potentially important influences on development (e.g., schools, religious institutions, media)? A. microsystem B. mesosystem C. exosystem D. macrosystem Answer: C. exosystem Correct: The exosystem is comprised of social institutions and may have an indirect effect on development, as compared to the microsystem having a direct effect. B. mesosystem Incorrect: Bronfenbrenner referred to the exosystem as the societal institutions that have indirect effects on development. 83. What is Bronfenbrenner’s term for the broad system of cultural beliefs and values and the economic and governmental systems that are built on those beliefs and values? A. mesosystem B. exosystem C. macrosystem D. chronosystem Answer: C. macrosystem Correct: For example, the macrosystem in countries such as Iran and Saudi Arabia is built on the beliefs and values of Islam. B. exosystem Incorrect: The exosystem is comprised of social institutions and may have an indirect effect on development. 84. What is Bronfenbrenner’s term for the changes that occur in developmental circumstances over time, both with respect to individual development and to historical changes? A. mesosystem B. exosystem C. macrosystem D. chronosystem Answer: D 85. Many theories of development do not address culture. Why does Bronfenbrenner’s theory think that culture is so important? He recognizes that _______________. A. cultural beliefs are the basis for many other conditions of children’s development B. nearly everyone lives in a very similar culture C. culture should be factored out to determine what really influences development D. culture is damaging and can be devastating to a young child’s development Answer: A. cultural beliefs are the basis for many other conditions of children’s development Correct: Bronfenbrenner believed that other developmental psychologists over-emphasized the immediate enviroment. C. culture should be factored out to determine what really influences development Incorrect: Bronfenbrenner believed that culture was a very important aspect of development and influenced other aspects of development. Culture heavily influences the way that people develop. 86. The textbook that you are using, A Cultural Approach to Human Development, divides development into _______________. A. major theories B. major stages C. psychological paradigms D. psychoanalytic phases Answer: B 87. In the textbook A Cultural Approach to Human Development, after the stage of adolescence there are _______________ stages of adulthood. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 Answer: C 88. _______________ is a life stage in which most people are not as dependent on their parents as they were in childhood and adolescence but have not yet made commitments to the stable roles in love and work that structure adult life for most people. A. Emerging adulthood B. Young adulthood C. Middle adulthood D. Late adulthood Answer: A 89. Within the textbook, the stage of early childhood is from ________________. A. birth to 12 months B. 12 to 36 months C. 3 to 6 years D. 6 to 9 years Answer: C 90. Scholars of human development generally regard development as _______________. A. discontinuous B. continuous C. stage-like D. abrupt Answer: B 91. Which of the following signifies the onset of adolescence? A. puberty B. a deepening voice C. widening of the hips D. hormonal fluctuations Answer: A 92. Human development can be viewed from a stage perspective, or as a gradual, ________________ process. A. continuous B. disjointed C. sloping D. inverted Answer: A. continuous Correct: There are two major paradigms that developmentalists may hold: stage and/or continuous models. D. inverted Incorrect: Inverted developmental patterns are not discussed in this chapter. 93. Emerging adulthood exists in some cultures and not others, and consequently young adult responsibilities such as marriage and stable work may be taken on as early as _______________ or as late as _______________. A. 17 or 18; 29 or 30 B. 24 or 25; 36 or 37 C. 34 or 35; 42 or 43 D. 45 or 46; 51 or 52 Answer: A Short Answer Questions 94. Describe one way that Erikson’s theory was different from Freud’s. Answer: Erikson placed more emphasis on the social and cultural basis of development and did not believe that events and influences of early childhood were primary determinants of later development. He believed that development happened throughout the lifespan. 95. Give an example of a country with a macrosystem that is different from the one where you grew up. Explain how that difference would likely impact your development. Answer: Answers will vary: Example- Afghanistan has macrosystem beliefs that women are inferior to men and, therefore, should not be educated. As a female, opportunities would be far fewer there than they are in the U.S. Growing up in a collectivist society like Japan would likely emphasize group goals, harmony, and respect for authority, shaping behaviors like conformity and cooperation. In contrast, growing up in an individualistic culture emphasizes personal freedom, autonomy, and self-expression, leading to a focus on personal achievement and independence. These differences in macrosystems can significantly influence one's values, behaviors, and social interactions. 96. Define two of the systems in Bronfenbrenner’s theory and give a concrete example of each. Answer: microsystem- the immediate setting. A child’s home is an example. Mesosystem- the connections between microsystems. An example would be a parent going to a school conference 97. Why is emerging adulthood considered to be a phenomenon of developed countries rather than developing countries? Answer: Emerging adulthood is the stage between adolescence and young adulthood. Usually, the person is still dependent on their parents financially because they are pursuing an education, but they are less dependent than they were earlier in the sense that they make more independent decisions. They have not yet taken on many of the roles of adulthood such as starting a career, getting married or having a child because all of these milestones happen later today than they did in previous generations. In developing countries, emerging adulthood is less likely to exist because education usually ends by adolescence and marriage and childbearing happens in the late teens or early twenties. 98. Why would you expect the textbook author, Arnett, to use Bronfenbrenner’s model as a frame for his book more than Freud’s theory? Answer: Bronfenbrenner’s ecological theory emphasizes the need to look at how various aspects of the environment shape human development. Unlike Freud, he highlights the importance of culture as well as emphasizing that children actively shape their environments. Essay Questions 99. In what religion are there sacred law books called the Dharmashastras? Briefly describe the following four stages described in these books and put them in the correct order: Forest dweller, Apprentice, Householder, and Renunciant. Answer: These law books are part of the Hindu religion. Apprentice- learning skills Householder- man marries and is in charge of the household Forest dweller- person begins to withdraw from a world of worldly possessions and devote themselves to prayer. Renunciant- a time to prepare for death. 100. Describe one similarity and one difference in the way that the conception of the life course is outlined in the Dharmashastras, the view of the ancient Greek philosopher, Solon, and the Talmud. Answer: They are similar in that all have a time of learning early in life, and a time of responsibility in mid-life, followed by a time of preparation for death at the end of life. They all exclude women in their stages. MyDevelopmentLab Question Bank Pre-Test 1. According to the Dharmashastras how long does each stage of a man's life last? A. About 10 years B. 15 years C. 20 years D. About 25 years Answer: D 2. According to the Dharmashastras at what stage are people supposed to begin to withdraw from worldly attachments? A. Apprentice stage B. Forest dweller stage C. Householder stage D. Renunciant state Answer: B 3. Developmental theories should not just be biologically based, but also _______________. A. physiologically based B. socially and culturally based C. behaviorally based D. hormonally based Answer: B 4. The first form of psychotherapy, developed by Freud, is known as what? A. Psychodynamic theory B. Psychoanalysis C. Psychosexual therapy D. Dream analysis Answer: B 5. Your son noticed his penis because it sometimes becomes erect and he seems to be fascinated by this phenomenon. According to Freud, in what stage is your son? A. Oral B. Anal C. Phallic D. Fixation Answer: C 6. During what stage did Freud believe the individual represses sexual desires and focuses on learning social and intellectual skills? A. Oral B. Anal C. Latency D. Genital Answer: C 7. What conflict does Erikson believe occurs during his last stage? A. Industry vs. inferiority B. Generativity vs. stagnation C. Trust vs. mistrust D. Ego integrity vs. despair Answer: D 8. What stage would Erikson say a three-year-old who develops a sense of self would be in? A. Industry vs. inferiority B. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt C. Ego integrity vs. despair D. Trust vs. mistrust Answer: B 9. How many systems are involved in Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 Answer: D 10. Adolescence in many developed countries has been extended considerably. Adulthood has been delayed as well. What term would be an appropriate term to use to describe this situation? A. Extended adulthood B. Late childhood C. Delayed adulthood D. Emerging adulthood Answer: D Post Test 1. What is the correct order for a man's life stages according to the Dharmashastras? A. apprentice, householder, forest dweller, and renunciant B. forest dweller, apprentice, householder, and renunciant C. householder, apprentice, renunciant, and forest dweller D. renunciant, forest dweller, householder, and apprentice Answer: A 2. Solon divided the lifespan into _______________. A. 5 13-year segments B. 10 7-year segments C. 15 5-year segments D. 20 3-year segments Answer: B 3. Theories regarding development should not just include biology, but also ______________ A. Physiological aspects B. social and cultural aspects C. behavior aspects D. hormonal aspects Answer: B 4. What is the concept that Freud believed describes the desire of the son or daughter to enjoy sexual access to the opposite-sex parent? A. Thanatos drive B. Oedipus complex C. Catharsis D. Freudian slip Answer: B 5. Freud believed that everything important to development occurred _______________. A. during adolescence B. during infancy C. before adulthood D. during adulthood Answer: C 6. Your daughter likes to read and is doing well in math and spelling. She is confident in her abilities to accomplish her goals. What Eriksonian stage is your daughter in? A. Industry vs. inferiority B. Initiative vs. guilt C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt D. Trust vs. mistrust Answer: C 7. What challenge does Erikson believe characterizes early adulthood? A. Industry vs. inferiority B. Generativity vs. stagnation C. Intimacy vs. isolation D. Trust vs. mistrust Answer: C 8. In Asian countries competition to get into college can be intense. Fierce competition to get into college is an example of which Bronfenbrenner system? A. Microsystem B. Macrosystem C. Mesosystem D. Exosystem Answer: D 9. Emerging adulthood exists in some cultures and not others. Young adulthood may occur in some cultures as early as 17 or 18 or as late as _______________. A. 29 or 30 B. 32 or 33 C. 35 or 36 D. 38 or 39 Answer: A 10. If a three-year old toddler has a sense of self distinct from others what psychosocial stage would Erikson believe that the toddler is in? A. Initiative vs. guilt B. Trust vs. mistrust C. Industry vs. inferiority D. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt Answer: D Chapter Exam 1. The sacred law books of the Hindu religion, the Dharmashastras, divide the life span into how many stages? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Answer: B 2. According to the Dharmashastras, what is the purpose of life during the final stage? A. To embrace the world B. To prepare for the end of this life C. To withdraw from the world D. To reach the highest level of spirituality Answer: B 3. The Talmud, the Jewish Holy Book, describes the lifespan as consisting of how many segments? A. 12 B. 14 C. 16 D. 18 Answer: B 4. Theories of development include not only a biological component, but _______________. A. a cultural component B. physiological changes C. a behavioral component D. hormonal changes Answer: A 5. Freud divided development into what type of stages? A. Psychosocial B. Psychobiological C. Psychosexual D. Psychocognitive Answer: C 6. What force did Freud believe drove human development? A. Biology B. Culture C. Parental influence D. Sexual desire Answer: D 7. According to Freud, what part of the mind operates on the pleasure principle and seeks immediate gratification? A. Libido B. Superego C. Ego D. Id Answer: D 8. According to Freud, at what stage does the individual's sexual drive reemerge, but in a way approved by the superego? A. Anal B. Phallic C. Latency D. Genital Answer: D 9. Which developmental theorist believed that human development was comprised of psychosocial stages? A. Freud B. Skinner C. Rogers D. Erikson Answer: D 10. According to Erikson, what is the challenge for the developing individual during infancy? A. Learning about culture B. Developing a healthy sense of self C. Initiating activities in a purposeful way D. Establishing a bond with a trusted caregiver Answer: D 11. According to Erikson, what stage are developing individuals in during middle adulthood? A. Industry vs. inferiority B. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt C. Initiative vs. guilt D. Generativity vs. stagnation Answer: D 12. Which human development theory has endured the best? A. Freud's B. Gilbert's C. Hall's D. Erikson's Answer: D 13. According to Bronfenbrenner, what comprises the microsystem? A. cultural beliefs and values, and economic and governmental systems B. time and historical change C. schools, religious institutions, and the media D. relationships with parents, siblings, peers and friends, and teachers Answer: D 14. According to Bronfenbrenner, what is the term that is used to describe the changes in development over time with respect to individual and historical changes? A. Chronosystem B. Exosystem C. Mesosystem D. Macrosystem Answer: A 15. Human development theorists regard development as _______________. A. continuous B. discontinuous C. stagnant D. abrupt Answer: D Quick Review 1. What was probably the oldest known written description of the life course written 3,000 years ago? A. The Dharmashastras B. The Bible C. The Koran D. The Talmud Answer: A 2. Solon divided the lifespan into several segments each lasting how many years? A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11 Answer: B 3. Freud segmented human development into what types of stages? A. Psychosocial B. Psychosexual C. Psychobiological D. Psychocognitive Answer: B 4. What aspect of Freud's theory involves the pleasure principle and constantly seeking immediate and unrestrained satisfaction? A. Ego B. Id C. Superego D. Libido Answer: B 5. What theorist proposed that human development was segmented into psychosocial stages? A. Darwin B. Rogers C. Erikson D. Freud Answer: C 6. How do contemporary developmental psychologists view Freud's theory? A. The last theory has been substantiated, but not the others. B. Some adhere to the theory. C. Few adhere to the theory. D. It is accepted as how people develop. Answer: C 7. What challenge does Erikson believe occurs during toddlerhood? A. Industry vs. inferiority B. Generativity vs. stagnation C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt D. Trust vs. mistrust Answer: C 8. According to Erikson, what challenge faces individuals in late adulthood? A. Generativity vs. stagnation B. Intimacy vs. isolation C. Identity vs. identity confusion D. Ego integrity vs. despair Answer: D 9. What Bronfenbrenner system involves parents, siblings, peers and friends, and teachers? A. Microsystem B. Exosystem C. Macrosystem D. Chronosystem Answer: A 10. According to the textbook, what ages comprise early childhood? A. Birth to 12 months B. 12 to 36 months C. 3 to 6 years D. 6 to 9 years Answer: C Video Guide Questions Short Answer Questions 1. Describe the types of relationships that Erikson connects to the stage of intimacy vs. isolation. Answer: The types of relationships include friendship, love, sexual intimacy, and marriage 2. Discuss Erikson’s views on how the stage of intimacy vs. isolation relates to marriage. Answer: Erikson states that marriage will not work if the individuals are not ready to fuse their own personalities with another individual without the fear of losing themselves. Intimacy is achieved once the individuals have resolved this issue according to Erikson. 3. Erikson discusses his thoughts on why some marriages among younger or less mature individuals might not be successful. Do you agree or disagree with these thoughts? Why? Answer: Marriages among younger or less mature individuals may face challenges due to factors such as limited life experience, emotional maturity, and self-awareness. These factors can contribute to difficulties in communication, conflict resolution, and shared goal-setting, potentially leading to higher rates of marital dissatisfaction or divorce. Multiple Choice Questions 1. In this video, Erikson discusses which of the following stages? A. integrity vs. despair B. intimacy vs. isolation C. initiative vs. guilt D. identity vs. role confusion Answer: B 2. In this video, Erikson discusses his views on intimacy. He states that he considers it to include which of the following? A. friendship B. identity C. education D. hatred Answer: A 3. Erikson states that what will not work if a person is not ready emotionally? A. career B. finances C. marriage D. pregnancy Answer: C Section 3 How We Study Human Development Test Item File Multiple Choice Questions 1. In its classic form, the scientific method has how many steps? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 Answer: C 2. What is the first step of the scientific method? A. Identify a question of scientific interest. B. Form a hypothesis. C. Choose a research method and a research design. D. Collect data. Answer: A 3. According to the text, what is a researcher’s idea about one possible answer to the question of interest? A. a scientific idea B. a hypothesis C. a proof D. a law Answer: B 4. A researcher is interested in examining how well children who are good at delaying gratification do academically. The researcher would state “children who can delay gratification get better grades in school than children who cannot delay gratification.” What step of the scientific method was just accomplished? A. identifying a question of scientific interest B. forming a hypothesis C. selecting a research method and a research design D. collecting data Answer: B. forming a hypothesis Correct: A hypothesis is one possible answer to the question of interest. A. identifying a question of scientific interest Incorrect: The researcher just generated a hypothesis to examine scientifically. 5. The scientific method involves five basic steps: _______________. A. observe the environment; generate a theory of the phenomenon to be studied; generate possible hypotheses; systematically vary variables; and conduct an experiment B. collect data to test a theory; manipulate variables within a laboratory setting; conduct a statistical analysis of the data; synthesize the results; and publish the findings C. identify a question to be investigated; form a hypothesis; choose a research method and a research design; collect data to test the hypothesis; and draw conclusions that lead to new questions and hypotheses D. generate a conclusion; isolate variables; determine how variables are related to the conclusion; conduct the research study; and published the findings Answer: C 6. The first step in the scientific method is to ________________. A. collect data to test the hypothesis B. identify a question of scientific interest C. form a hypothesis D. choose a research method and a research design Answer: B 7. Cameron is a graduate student who is working on her doctorial thesis and is in the process of conducting a research study on how learning phonics contributes to reading skills in 1st graders. Based upon the scientific method, after collecting data to test her hypothesis, Cameron’s next task is to ________________. A. draw conclusions and form new questions and hypotheses B. identify a question of scientific interest C. form a hypothesis D. choose a research method and a research design Answer: A. draw conclusions and form new questions and hypotheses Correct: Collecting data is the fourth step; and drawing conclusions in formulating new questions and hypotheses is the fifth and last step of the scientific method. B. identify a question of scientific interest Incorrect: This is the first step. 8. The second step in the scientific method is to _______________. A. collect data to test the hypothesis B. identify a question of scientific interest C. form a hypothesis D. choose a research method and a research design Answer: C 9. A _______________ is the researcher’s idea about one possible answer to the question of interest. A. paradigm B. theory C. hypothesis D. world view Answer: C 10. Which of the following is an example of a scientific hypothesis? A. “Space exploration benefits our world and the United States needs to increase funding for NASA.” B. “Marital satisfaction tends to improve when the youngest child is grown and leaves the home because parents now have more time and energy for the marital relationship.” C. “HIV causes AIDS, and AIDS is a disease and will never be cured.” D. “If a tree falls in the forest, and no one is there to hear it; does it make a sound?” Answer: B. “Marital satisfaction tends to improve when the youngest child is grown and leaves the home because parents now have more time and energy for the marital relationship.” Correct: This is a testable statement based upon a question of marital satisfaction and child rearing. A. “Space exploration benefits our world and the United States needs to increase funding for NASA.” Incorrect: This is an opinion; it is not testable based on scientific research. 11. Questionnaires and interviews are examples of _______________. A. ways to generate hypotheses B. faulty research designs C. statistical procedures used to analyze data D. the research method Answer: D. the research method Correct: Questionnaires and interviews are two commonly used examples of the research method. A. ways to generate hypotheses Incorrect: Questionnaires and interviews are two commonly used examples of the research method. 12. The plan for when and how to collect the data for a study is the _______________. A. data collection schedule B. research design C. scientific plan D. research method Answer: B. research design Correct: The research design is the plan for when and how to collect the data, while the research method is the global approach to research. D. research method Incorrect: The research design is the plan for when and how to collect the data, while the research method is the global approach to research. 13. A researcher is interested in whether toddlers who are taught to solve a puzzle can remember the strategy two weeks later. What would be the population of interest? A. all toddlers B. the toddlers in the study C. all children D. only toddlers who are in preschool Answer: A. all toddlers Correct: Studies are designed to answer questions regarding populations, not just answer questions regarding those who are in the study. B. the toddlers in the study Incorrect: The population of interest would be all toddlers. Studies are designed to answer questions regarding populations, not just answer questions regarding those who are in the study. 14. How does the text define the term “population”? A. only those individuals who are in the research study B. the entire category of people C. a smaller subset of an entire category of people D. those individuals in the research pool Answer: B. the entire category of people Correct: The sample should be representative of the population so that the results can be generalized back to the population. A. only those individuals who are in the research study Incorrect: The population is defined as the entire category of people. The sample should be representative of the population so that the results can be generalized back to the population. 15. How does the text define the term “sample”? A. only those individuals who are in the research study B. the entire category of people C. a smaller subset of an entire category of people D. those individuals in the research pool Answer: A. only those individuals who are in the research study Correct: The sample is defined as the group of people who participate in a research study. The population is the entire category of people. B. the entire category of people Incorrect: The sample is defined as the group of people who participate in a research study. The population is the entire category of people. 16. What is the goal when developing a sample for a research study? To generate a sample that will be ________________. A. easy to find B. an answer to the scientific question C. representative of the population D. as large as possible Answer: C. representative of the population Correct: The sample should represent the population of interest so that the results can be generalized from the sample to the population. B. an answer to the scientific question Incorrect: The sample should represent the population of interest so that the results can be generalized from the sample to the population. 17. What principle defines the concept when findings from a sample can be used to draw appropriate conclusions regarding the population? A. generalization B. representation C. theory formation D. sample characterization Answer: A. generalization Correct: If the sample represents the population, then the results from it can be generalized. B. representation Incorrect: Generalization refers to when the findings from the sample can be used to understand the population. If the sample represents the population, then the results from it can be generalized. 18. What aspect of a study outlines the way the study was conducted and how the data were collected? A. procedure B. method C. statistical analysis D. generating conclusions Answer: A. procedure Correct: The procedure is determined by the research design. B. method Incorrect: The procedure outlines the way the study was conducted. 19. The last step of the scientific method is to _______________. A. form a hypothesis B. choose a research method and a research design C. collect data D. draw conclusions Answer: D 20. The third step in the scientific method is to A. collect data to test the hypothesis. B. identify a question of scientific interest. C. form a hypothesis. D. choose a research method and a research design. Answer: D 21. The first step in the scientific method is _______________; the third step is to _______________. A. identifying a question of scientific interest; choose a research method and a research design B. forming a hypothesis; choose a research method and a research design C. identifying a question of scientific interest; collect data to test the hypothesis D. collecting data to test the hypothesis; choose a research method and a research design Answer: A 22. A sample is _______________. A. a framework that presents a set of interconnected ideas in an original way and inspires further research B. a group of people who participate in a research study C. a statement indicating that participation in the study is voluntary, and that persons may withdraw from participation in the study at any time D. the way the study is conducted and the data are collected Answer: B 23. The sample should represent the _______________, which is the entire category of people the sample represents. A. theory B. population C. variable D. hypothesis Answer: B 24. To study adolescents’ attitudes toward contraceptive use, a researcher recruits subjects from a waiting room of a community clinic that offers free contraceptive services to all. This researcher has a sample that is _______________. A. not representative of all adolescents B. similar to the general population of adolescents C. representative of adolescents in America, but not other developed nations D. representative of female adolescents and not males Answer: A. not representative of all adolescents Correct: Recruiting at a community clinic limits one’s subject pool and is biased. B. similar to the general population of adolescents Incorrect: The sample is only representative of individuals who use the services of the community clinic and not all adolescents in general. 25. Which of the following best describes when findings from the sample make it possible to draw conclusions about the larger population that the sample is intended to represent? A. generalizability B. validity C. reliability D. standardization Answer: A 26. The _______________ of the study is the way the study is conducted and the data are collected. A. validity B. procedure C. reliability D. sample Answer: B 27. Which of the following best describes a theory? A. a framework that presents a set of interconnected ideas in an original way and inspires further research B. the way the study is conducted and the data are collected C. a group of people who participate in a research study D. the researcher’s idea about one possible answer to the question of interest Answer: A 28. Once a researcher writes a manuscript describing the methods used, the results of the statistical analyses, and the interpretation of the results, the researcher typically _______________. A. submits the manuscript for publication in a scientific journal B. posts the manuscript on his or her website C. sends the manuscript to other researchers D. files the manuscript away so that no one else can duplicate the study Answer: A 29. Which of the following best describes an Institutional Review Board (IRB)? A. Subjects are told what the purposes of the study are, what participation in the study involves, what risks (if any) are involved in participating, and what the person can expect to receive in return for participation. B. Subjects must be told the true purpose of the study and the reason for the deception. C. Personal information will not be shared with anyone outside the immediate research group and any results from the research will not identify any of the participants by name. D. They are usually comprised of people who have research experience themselves and therefore have experience that enables them to judge whether the research being proposed follows reasonable ethical guidelines. Answer: D 30. What is the process by which an editor of a journal sends a manuscript to other researchers to evaluate for potential publication in a journal? A. editorial evaluation B. editor’s choice C. publication priority D. peer review Answer: D 31. According to the text, a framework that represents a set of interconnected ideas in an original way and inspires further research is the definition of a _______________. A. research study B. hypothesis C. theory D. scientific method Answer: C. theory Correct: A theory generates hypotheses that can be tested in research, and research leads to modifications of a theory, which generates more hypotheses and research. B. hypothesis Incorrect: A hypothesis is one aspect of a theory. The text defines theory as the set of interconnected ideas. 32. To prevent ethical violations, most institutions that sponsor research, such as universities and research institutes, require a proposal for research to be approved by a(n) _______________. A. Ethical Standard Board B. Institutional Review Board C. Department of Research D. University Research Sponsorship Department Answer: B 33. The purpose of an Institutional Review Board is _______________. A. to prevent ethical violations and judge whether the research being proposed follows reasonable ethical guidelines B. to design research studies, test hypothesizes, and secure funding C. to generate theories, measure variables, and publish findings in peer-review journals D. supervise and monitor research that is being conducted and to support the mission of the university Answer: A 34. Frank is a researcher at a large university and is nervous about an important meeting with a group who will scrutinize his research proposal while judging whether or not it follows reasonable ethical guidelines. Frank is meeting with ________________. A. an institutional review board B. a rank and tenure committee C. a president’s board committee D. a funding and endowment board Answer: A. an institutional review board Correct: The phrase “while judging whether or not it follows reasonable ethical guidelines” is the signifier of an IRB. D. a funding and endowment board Incorrect: An endowment board determines the financial appropriateness of a proposal. Its role is not discussed in the text. 35. _______________ occurs at the beginning of the research study, whereas the _______________ occurs at the end. A. Reliability; confidentiality B. Confidentiality; reliability C. Informed consent; debriefing D. Debriefing; informed consent Answer: C 36. Participants want to feel sure that their responses will be _______________. A. graded fairly B. recorded accurately C. confidential D. not judged Answer: C 37. What are usually comprised of people who have research experience themselves and therefore have experience that enables them to judge whether the research being proposed follows reasonable ethical guidelines? A. Department of Research B. Ethical Standard Board C. Institutional Review Board D. University Research Sponsorship Department Answer: C 38. What is the most important consideration in human development research in terms of ethical standards? That the participants will _______________. A. gain knowledge about themselves B. have fun participating C. not be harmed D. learn something from the study Answer: C 39. What typically includes information about who is conducting the study, what the purposes of the study are, what participation in the study involves, what risks (if any) are involved in participating, and what the person can expect to receive in return for participation? A. IRB proposal B. an informed consent form C. research participation advertisement D. study proposal Answer: B 40. Once the study has been carried out and the data collected, the participants must be ________________. A. debriefed B. paid C. allowed to leave D. evaluated for psychological damage Answer: A 41. Professor Smith is conducting a research study on discrimination; however, he is afraid that if he tells subjects the true nature of his research they might provide a socially desirable response and skew his results. To minimize socially desired responses and skewed results Professor Smith may use _______________. A. deception B. informed consent C. an intuitional review board D. a debriefing Answer: A. deception Correct: Withholding the true intent of the research study from subjects would minimize socially desirable responses. B. informed consent Incorrect: Informed consent is a standard ethical requirement of human development research regardless of the research method. 42. Informed consent is for _______________ of the research study, whereas a debriefing is for _______________. A. the beginning; the end of a study B. the end; the beginning of a study C. animal subjects; human subjects D. human subjects; animal subjects Answer: A. the beginning; the end of a study Correct: Informed consent is provided to subjects at the beginning of a study to provide them with enough information to decide whether or not to participate; the debriefing is provided at the end of a study, sharing results and findings. B. the end; the beginning of a study Incorrect: This is the reverse of the correct answer. 43. Institutional Review Boards (IRBs) require researchers to show that deception in a proposed research study _______________. A. is a clear objective of the American Psychological Association B. will be completely funded by endowment C. will contribute to scientific knowledge D. will cause no harm to subjects Answer: D 44. When subjects _______________, they are provided with findings, results, and conclusions of the research study they participated in. In addition, if deception was used they must be told the true purpose of the study and the reason for the deception. A. are randomly selected B. provided informed consent C. are debriefed D. are dependent variables Answer: C. are debriefed Correct: Results, findings, and major conclusions are provided to subjects during the debriefing. Also, if deception was used the rationale and justification are explained. D. are dependent variables Incorrect: The dependent variable is the outcome that is measured to calculate the results of the experiment. 45. Which of the following best describes confidentiality within scientific research? A. Subjects must be told the true purpose of the study and the reason for any deception that may have been part of the study. B. Personal information will not be shared with anyone outside the immediate research group and any results from the research will not identify any of the participants by name. C. They are usually comprised of people who have research experience themselves and therefore have experience that enables them to judge whether the research being proposed follows reasonable ethical guidelines. D. Subjects are told what the purposes of the study are, what participation in the study involves, what risks (if any) are involved in participating, and what the person can expect to receive in return for participation. Answer: B 46. Which of the following best describes informed consent within scientific research? A. Subjects must be told the true purpose of the study and the reason for any deception that may have been part of the study. B. Personal information will not be shared with anyone outside the immediate research group and any results from the research will not identify any of the participants by name. C. Subjects are told what the purposes of the study are, what participation in the study involves, what risks (if any) are involved in participating, and what the person can expect to receive in return for participation. D. They are usually comprised of people who have research experience themselves and therefore have experience that enables them to judge whether the research being proposed follows reasonable ethical guidelines. Answer: C 47. Which of the following best describes a debriefing within scientific research? A. Subjects must be told the true purpose of the study and the reason for any deception that may have been part of the study. B. Personal information will not be shared with anyone outside the immediate research group and any results from the research will not identify any of the participants by name. C. They are usually comprised of people who have research experience themselves and therefore have experience that enables them to judge whether the research being proposed follows reasonable ethical guidelines. D. Subjects are told what the purposes of the study are, what participation in the study involves, what risks (if any) are involved in participating, and what the person can expect to receive in return for participation. Answer: A 48. What is the most commonly used method in social science research? A. case study B. survey C. experiment D. correlational study Answer: B 49. When participants are provided with specific responses to choose from on a questionnaire, what type of format is being used? A. open-ended question format B. closed-question format C. stream of consciousness format D. multiple choice format Answer: B 50. When participants are allowed to state their responses following the questions, what type of format is being used? A. open-ended question format B. closed-question format C. stream of consciousness format D. multiple choice format Answer: A 51. What research method allows a researcher to hear people describe their lives in their own words? A. case study B. survey C. experiment D. interview Answer: D 52. What is an example of a qualitative research design? A. case study B. questionnaire C. experiment D. interview Answer: D 53. Which of the following best describes a questionnaire with a closed-question format? A. observing people and recording their behavior either through filming or through written records B. participants are allowed to state their own responses following the question C. researchers spend a considerable amount of time among the people they wish to study, often by actually living among them D. participants are provided with specific responses to choose from Answer: D 54. Which of the following best describes a questionnaire with an open-ended question format? A. observing people and recording their behavior either through filming or through written records B. participants are allowed to state their own responses following the question C. researchers spend a considerable amount of time among the people they wish to study, often by actually living among them D. participants are provided with specific responses to choose from Answer: B 55. Which of the following research questions would be best examined by a questionnaire? A. What is the rate of alcohol use of high school students? B. What are the cognitive abilities of a 3-year-old? C. How does damage to the brain affect one’s cognitive and behavioral abilities? D. How do antidepressant drugs minimize depressive symptoms? Answer: A. What is the rate of alcohol use of high school students? Correct: High schools students are under the legal age to drink alcohol so there is no other ethical alternative research method. D. How do antidepressant drugs minimize depressive symptoms? Incorrect: The effects of antidepressant drugs are best examined within an experimental design. 56. Qualitative data is _______________, whereas quantitative data is _______________. A. informed consent; debriefing B. reliable; valid C. non-numerical; numerical D. internally measured; externally measured Answer: C 57. Professor Parks is conducting a research study where he is asking individuals to rate their satisfaction with their first year of college. His questionnaire is based upon a scale where students respond to questions by choosing one of the following descriptors: "5. very satisfied; 4. somewhat satisfied; 3. not very satisfied; 2. not at all satisfied." Professor Parks is gathering _______________. A. valid data B. quantitative data C. qualitative data D. reliable data Answer: B. quantitative data Correct: This kind of scale allows researchers to convert closed questions from a qualitative measure to quantitative measure. C. qualitative data Incorrect: A questionnaire that asks open-ended questions or direct observations is closer to qualitative measure. 58. Which of the following best describes ethnographic research? A. observing people and recording their behavior either through filming or through written records B. participants are allowed to state their own responses following the question C. researchers spend a considerable amount of time among the people they wish to study, often by actually living among them D. participants are provided with specific responses to choose from Answer: C 59. Clarence Maloney is a cultural anthropologist. Having lived with individuals from the Republic of Maldives in the Indian Ocean, he has chronicled their daily lives and provided detailed descriptions of this cultural group to the scientific community. Currently, climatologists and anthropologists are working together to illustrate how rising sea levels have changed the daily behaviors of these people and are comparing it to what Maloney had described in the past. Which of the following best describes the type of research that Clarence Maloney conducted? A. an ethnography B. a quasi-experiment C. a correlation D. a survey Answer: A. an ethnography Correct: Ethnographies are commonly used by anthropologists. They may live with a cultural group, describing many detailed aspects. B. a quasi-experiment Incorrect: This is an example of an ethnography, commonly used by anthropologists. 60. Observational methods have an advantage over questionnaires and interviews in that they involve ________________. A. the reporting of behavior by a close relative of the participant B. actual behavior rather than self reports of behavior C. self-reporting of behavior D. less-involved data analysis Answer: B 61. What type of research method involves researchers spending a considerable amount of time among the people they wish to study, often by actually living among them? A. ethnographic research B. on-site research C. group-processing research D. survey research Answer: A 62. A book that presents an anthropologist’s observations of what life is like in a particular culture is known as a(n) ________________. A. biography B. ethnography C. groupography D. anthrography Answer: B 63. What is the main disadvantage of the ethnographic method? A. It is a flawed method. B. Most groups usually will not allow researchers to study them. C. Researchers do not place any validity on the design. D. It requires a great deal of time and sacrifice on the part of the researcher. Answer: D 64. What research method entails the detailed examination of the life of one person or a small number of people? A. survey B. interview C. case study D. experiment Answer: C 65. What is a disadvantage of the case study method? The results are _______________. A. not valid B. difficult to generalize C. usually exaggerated by the participant D. too difficult to analyze Answer: B 66. Jean Piaget based his ideas about infants’ cognitive development on his detailed observations of his own three children. This is an example of what research method? A. survey B. interview C. case study D. experiment Answer: C. case study Correct: Case studies examine one person or a small group of people. A. survey Incorrect: The method that examines one person or a small group of people is the case study. Surveys are generally used for large groups of people. 67. _______________ refers to the consistency of measures, whereas _______________ refers to the truthfulness of a measurement. A. Reliability; validity B. Validity; reliability C. Variance from the mean; standardization D. Standardization; variance from the mean Answer: A 68. _______________ refers to the consistency of measurements—if a research method obtains similar results on different occasions. A. Standardization B. Measurability C. Validity D. Reliability Answer: D 69. _______________ refers to the truthfulness of a method—if a research method measures what it claims to measure. A. Variance from the mean B. Validity C. Reliability D. Standardization Answer: B 70. What research term refers to the consistency of measurements? A. validity B. reliability C. correlation D. generalization Answer: B. reliability Correct: For example, a study where two different interviewers obtained similar results from interviewees would be considered reliable. A. validity Incorrect: According to the text, validity refers to the truthfulness of a method. 71. According to the text, what research term refers to the truthfulness of a method? A. validity B. reliability C. correlation D. generalization Answer: A. validity Correct: Validity is more difficult to establish than reliability. B. reliability Incorrect: Reliability refers to the consistency of a measure. 72. _______________ are programs intended to change the attitudes or behavior of the participants. A. Interventions B. Primary preventions C. Experiments D. Confounding variables Answer: A 73. In _______________ research, data is collected on a sample of people on a single occasion. Then, the researcher examines potential relations between variables in the data, based on the hypotheses of the study. A. semi-reliable B. quasi-lateral C. longitudinal D. cross-sectional Answer: D 74. Professor Cook is conducting a research study on the cognitive abilities of infants and young children. Rather than follow subjects from birth to the age of 10, he assesses small groups from various ages. Of 1-year-olds he measures five children, of 2-year-olds he measures five different children, and so forth. By the time he has completed his study Dr. Cook has an assessment of 50 different children from 10 different age groups. Which of the following describes the research method that Dr. Cook is using? A. a cross-sectional design B. a longitudinal design C. a quasi-experimental design D. a semi-reliable design Answer: A. a cross-sectional design Correct: In cross-sectional research, data are collected on a sample of people on a single occasion. Then, the researcher examines potential relations between variables in the data, based on the hypotheses of the study. B. a longitudinal design Incorrect: A longitudinal study follows the same persons over time and collects data on two or more occasions. 75. A(n) _______________ is a statistical relationship between two variables, such that knowing one of the variables makes it possible to predict the other. A. correlation B. theory C. experiment D. quasi-experiment Answer: A 76. A(n) _______________ means that when one variable increases the other increases as well; a(n) _______________ means that when one variable increases the other decreases. A. positive correlation; negative correlation B. negative correlation; positive correlation C. additive correlation; subtractive correlation D. subtractive correlation; additive correlation Answer: A 77. Which of the following is an example of a positive correlation? A. exercise and physical health B. immunizations and illnesses C. poor weather conditions and motor vehicle accidents D. gas prices and the rate of driving Answer: A. exercise and physical health Correct: As exercise increases, a person’s physical health would be predicted to increase. B. immunizations and illnesses Incorrect: This is a negative correlation; as immunizations increase, the rate of illnesses would be predicted to decrease. 78. Which of the following is an example of a negative correlation? A. exercise and physical health B. study time and grades C. exposure to sunlight and plant growth D. gas prices and the rate of driving Answer: C. exposure to sunlight and plant growth Correct: As gas prices increase, the rate of driving would be predicted to decrease B. study time and grades Incorrect: As study time increases, one would predict an increase in grades; a positive correlation. 79. It is a basic statistical principle of scientific research that _______________, meaning that when two variables are correlated it is not possible to tell whether one variable ______________ the other. A. the standard curve is always correlational; is expressed by B. quasi-experiments have functionality; is related to C. correlation does not imply causation; caused D. hypotheses always support the theory; acted as a catalyst for Answer: C. correlation does not imply causation; caused Correct: A basic principle of a correlation is that one cannot imply causation just because two factors are related; there are too many variables that are unaccounted for. B. quasi-experiments have functionality; is related to Incorrect: The term quasi-experimental does not have a scientific meaning and is not discussed in the text. 80. What type of design collects data on a sample of people on a single occasion? A. survey method B. longitudinal method C. cross-sectional method D. correlational method Answer: C. cross-sectional method Correct: Cross-sectional studies can be completed quickly and inexpensively, but the resulting correlations can be difficult to interpret. B. longitudinal method Incorrect: The longitudinal method observes a group for at least two measurements and potentially many measurements. 81. What is the main strength of a cross-sectional study? It can _______________. A. isolate the influence of a generation B. be completed quickly and inexpensively C. assess the influence of time between measurements D. assess the strength of a relationship Answer: B. be completed quickly and inexpensively Correct: The main disadvantage is that resulting correlations can be difficult to interpret. C. assess the influence of time between measurements Incorrect: Since the cross-sectional design only assesses a group at one time of measurement, it cannot be used to evaluate the influence of time between measurements. 82. What type of correlation occurs when both variables increase in the same direction together? A. positive correlation B. negative correlation C. inverse correlation D. multiple correlation Answer: A. positive correlation Correct: For example, as exercise increases, a person’s physical health would be predicted to increase. B. negative correlation Incorrect: When both variables vary in the same direction, the correlation is positive. 83. What type of correlation occurs when one variable increases while the other variable decreases? A. positive correlation B. negative correlation C. no correlation D. multiple correlation Answer: B. negative correlation Correct: As gas prices increase, the rate of driving would be predicted to decrease. A. positive correlation Incorrect: When the variables vary in opposite directions, the correlation is negative. 84. A(n) _______________ design is one in which the same persons are followed over time and data are collected on two or more occasions. A. ethnographic research B. quasi-experimental research C. longitudinal research D. cross-sectional research Answer: C 85. Dr. Mitchell is conducting a research study on temperament. As a basis of this study he plans to follow 1,000 subjects from the age of 5 to the age of 35. At periodic times he will revisit subjects and their temperament. Dr. Mitchell’s research study is planned to last for 30 years. Which of the following best describes the type of research Dr. Mitchell is conducting? A. ethnographic research B. quasi-experimental research C. longitudinal research D. cross-sectional research Answer: C. longitudinal research Correct: The same persons are followed over time and data are collected on two or more occasions. The length of longitudinal research designs varies widely, from a few weeks or months to years or even decades. D. cross-sectional research Incorrect: Cross-sectional studies sample various subjects from smaller subpopulations of the larger desired time frame. 86. The _______________ variable is the variable that is different for the experimental group than for the control group. The _______________ variable is the outcome that is measured to calculate the results of the experiment. A. quasi-experimental; correlational B. correlational; quasi-experimental C. dependent; independent D. independent; dependent Answer: D 87. The _______________ variable is the variable that is different for the experimental group than for the control group. A. quasi-experimental B. correlational C. dependent D. independent Answer: D 88. The _______________ variable is the outcome that is measured to calculate the results of the experiment. A. quasi-experimental B. correlational C. dependent D. independent Answer: C 89. A basic statistical principle of scientific research is that correlation ________________. A. indicates causation B. does not imply causation C. implies causation if it is significantly positive D. implies causation if it is significantly negative Answer: B. does not imply causation Correct: This principle is nevertheless frequently overlooked in research on human development. A. indicates causation Incorrect: Correlation does not indicate causation, it only indicates a significant relationship. 90. What type of design follows the same group of people over time and data are collected on two or more occasions? A. survey method B. longitudinal method C. cross-sectional method D. correlational method Answer: B. longitudinal method Correct: The length of longitudinal studies varies widely, from a few weeks or months to a few years or decades. C. cross-sectional method Incorrect: The cross-sectional design observes a group for only one measurement. 91. What effect occurs when the performance of people of different ages varies because they grew up in different generations? A. gender effect B. time of measurement effect C. age effect D. cohort effect Answer: D. cohort effect Correct: Longitudinal studies that follow one population over time can minimize the cohort effect. C. age effect Incorrect: The effect of aging is a different course of variability than the cohort effect even though aging is influenced by the generation in which one was born. 92. What term describes when participants drop out of a longitudinal study? A. selective survival B. attrition C. cohort effect D. selective sampling Answer: B. attrition Correct: Attrition is highest among low-SES groups, meaning longitudinal studies can end up being less representative of the SES range of the entire population. C. cohort effect Incorrect: The cohort effect occurs because of differences in generations. Attrition is the term that describes when participants drop out of a longitudinal study. 93. In an experiment, what group receives the treatment? A. experimental group B. comparison group C. cohort group D. control group Answer: A. experimental group Correct: The experimental group receives the treatment so that the performance of the participants in this group can be compared to the performance of the participants in the control group to determine if the treatment had an effect. D. control group Incorrect: The control group does not receive the treatment so that the performance of the participants in this group can be compared to the performance of the participants in the experimental group to determine if the treatment had an effect. 94. In an experiment, what group does not receive the treatment? A. experimental group B. comparison group C. cohort group D. control group Answer: D. control group Correct: The control group does not receive the treatment so that the performance of the participants in this group can be compared to the performance of the participants in the experimental group to determine if the treatment had an effect. A. experimental group Incorrect: The experimental group receives the treatment so that the performance of the participants in this group can be compared to the performance of the participants in the control group to determine if the treatment had an effect. 95. According to the text, what variable in an experiment is different for the experimental group than for the control group? A. extraneous variable B. control variable C. dependent variable D. independent variable Answer: D. independent variable Correct: The independent variable is the variable that is manipulated in an experiment to determine if the treatment is effective. A. extraneous variable Incorrect: The extraneous variables are all of the variables in an experiment that are not the independent or dependent variables. 96. According to the text, what variable in an experiment is measured to calculate the results of the experiment? A. extraneous variable B. control variable C. dependent variable D. independent variable Answer: C. dependent variable Correct: The dependent variable is what distinguishes the experiment group from the control group. D. independent variable Incorrect: The independent variable is the variable that is manipulated in an experiment to determine if the treatment is effective. 97. What is the advantage of the experimental method? A. It can detect correlations. B. It allows for a high degree of control over the participant’s behavior. C. It helps to describe the behavior of a single participant. D. It follows a group of participants over many times of measurement. Answer: C. It helps to describe the behavior of a single participant. Correct: Rather than monitoring behavior that occurs naturally, the researcher attempts to change the normal patterns of behavior by randomly assigning participants to an experimental or a control group. D. It follows a group of participants over many times of measurement. Incorrect: Although longitudinal designs can be experimental, the advantage of the experimental method is that it allows for the very careful control of extraneous variables. 98. A _______________ is a situation that exists naturally but that provides interesting scientific information to the perceptive observer. A. holistic experiment B. natural experiment C. random experiment D. quasi-experiment Answer: B 99. _______________ twins have exactly the same genes, whereas _______________ twins have about half their genes in common, the same as other siblings. A. Natural; conjoined B. Conjoined; natural C. Monozygotic; dizygotic D. Dizygotic; monozygotic Answer: C 100. According to the text, what type of experiment occurs when the researcher does not control the variables in a particular environment but provides interesting scientific information to the perceptive observer? A. developmental experiment B. natural experiment C. accidental experiment D. qualitative experiment Answer: B. natural experiment Correct: Observing adoptive families for whom no genetic relationship exists is one example of a natural experiment. A. developmental experiment Incorrect: The type of experiment that occurs when the researcher does not control the variables of interest are natural experiments. Short Answer Questions 101. Your professor assigns a presentation and requires that all sources come from peer-reviewed journals. What does peer-reviewed mean? Answer: This means that the editor of the journal sends the manuscript to others who are expert in the field who then decide whether the work is rigorous enough to meet the standards of publication. 102. Give an example of qualitative data. Can a researcher turn interview data into quantitative data? Explain. Answer: Answers will vary: Example - A researcher could ask students about their hoped-for self and feared self in an interview. Responses could then be coded into categories, such as: health, education, family. An example of qualitative data is interview transcripts detailing participants' personal experiences with a healthcare system. Yes, a researcher can turn interview data into quantitative data by coding responses into categories and then counting the frequency of each category, allowing for statistical analysis of patterns and trends. 103. Questionnaires are the most commonly used research method in the social sciences. Are there any disadvantages? Explain. Answer: Questionnaires that provide closed-end responses can not capture the complexity of many phenomena in the same way that open-ended interviews can. Yes, there are disadvantages to using questionnaires in social science research. Respondents may misinterpret questions, leading to inaccurate answers. Additionally, the fixed response options can limit the depth of information gathered, and low response rates can result in non-representative samples, compromising the validity of the findings. 104. What is ethnographic research and are there any disadvantages? Answer: Ethnographic research is often conducted by anthropologists. It entails living among a population to get an insider’s view of a culture. The disadvantages include: a lot of time and money to spend long periods of time in often remote areas and also, the researcher may be biased in his/her interpretations. 105. Who was Doddy and how did Darwin study him? Answer: Doddy was Darwin’s infant son who Darwin studied by keeping a diary to learn how development progresses. In this case study method Darwin documented his observations, such as how Doddy got angry when cake was taken away from him and he slapped his nurse. He concluded that this aggressive behavior must be innate because Doddy had never been hit. Essay Questions 106. In 1947, Sidney Farber injected a two-year-old boy who had leukemia with various versions of an experimental drug that led to remission. By the next year he had treated 16 patients and had enough data for a publication. Parents were sometimes told about the drug trial, but often it was after the fact. Children were almost never informed or consulted. Authorities at Children’s Hospital in Boston were infuriated at these clinical trials; they figured that because these children were on their deathbeds anyways, it would be better to “let them die in peace.” Can clinical trials, such as these, be carried out with children today? Why or why not? Answer: Many clinical trials are being carried out today but, because we now have Institutional Review Boards (IRBs), Farber would be required to get informed consent from the parents of children under age 18, and the child would be told that they were free to stop the experiment at any time for any reason. 107. A recent study examined the association between marijuana use and depressive symptoms among 622 African American Youth (Repetto et al., 2008). Participants were interviewed six times from high school into emerging adulthood. Marijuana use was measured by asking how many times they had used marijuana in the past 30 days and depression was measured based on their score on a six-item inventory. What type of research design was used and what are the independent and dependent variables? Answer: This was a longitudinal study. The independent variable was level of marijuana use; the dependent variable whether or not they were depressed. The research design used is a longitudinal study, as participants were interviewed multiple times over an extended period. The independent variable is marijuana use, measured by the frequency of use in the past 30 days. The dependent variable is depressive symptoms, assessed through a six-item inventory score. MyDevelopmentLab Question Bank Pre-Test 1. Which step of the scientific method is identifying a question of scientific interest? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth Answer: A 2. When a researcher uses questionnaires and interviews, what is the researcher using? A. A faulty research design B. The research method C. A statistical procedure D. Ways to generate hypotheses Answer: B 3. When performing a research study the major goal is to generate a sample that is _______________. A. able to answer the scientific question B. representative of the population C. as large as possible D. easy to acquire Answer: B 4. A framework that represents a set of interconnected ideas in an original way and inspires further research is _______________. A. the scientific method B. a theory C. a research study D. a hypothesis Answer: B 5. You are conducting your first study. If you tell the participants the nature of the study they might provide socially desirable responses. To minimize socially desirable responses, what technique might you use? A. IRB board B. Informed consent C. Deception D. Debriefing Answer: C 6. When research participants describe their lives in their own words, what research technique is being used? A. Experiment B. Case study C. Interview D. Survey Answer: C 7. A written document that represents an anthropologist's observations of what life is like in a culture is known as _______________. A. an anthrography B. a groupography C. a biography D. an ethnography Answer: D 8. What measure in research refers to the consistency of measurements? A. Generalization B. Correlation C. Reliability D. Validity Answer: C 9. You are interested in studying the potential changes in intelligence over the lifespan. You have selected 250 people who are currently two years old and you plan to assess them every five years for 40 years. What type of study are you planning on conducting? A. Quasi-experimental B. Ethnographic C. Cross-sectional D. Longitudinal Answer: D 10. There are several types of twins. Some twins share 100% of their genes and others share considerably less. Of the following what type of situation involves twins that share about half their genes in common? A. Identical B. Conjoined C. Monozygotic D. Dizygotic Answer: D Post-Test 1. What did the text define as one possible Answer to a particular research question? A. Hypothesis B. Proof C. Law D. Research question Answer: A 2. Scientific hypotheses are generated for research studies. Which of the following is an example of a scientific hypothesis? A. "Space exploration benefits our world and the United States needs to increase funding for NASA." B. "Marital satisfaction tends to improve when the youngest child is grown and leaves the home because parents now have more time and energy for the marital relationship." C. "HIV cause AIDS, and AIDS is a disease that will never be cured." D. "If a tree falls in the forest, and no one is there to hear it; does it make a sound?" Answer: B 3. What is the third step in the scientific method? A. Write the results B. Select a research method and a design C. Form a hypothesis D. Collect and analyze data Answer: B 4. When an editor of a journal sends a manuscript to others researchers to evaluate the manuscript for potential publication, what process is occurring? A. Research evaluation B. Peer review C. Editor's evaluation D. Research endeavor Answer: B 5. When, during the research study, does debriefing occur? A. During the IRB review B. When the study is being submitted for publication C. After the study has been completed D. During data collection Answer: C 6. What type of questionnaire is being used when participants are provided with specific responses to choose from? A. Stream of consciousness format B. Multiple-choice format C. Closed-question format D. Open-question format Answer: C 7. You are going to conduct a research study to investigate how important students believe technology is for teaching. Your questionnaire is based upon a Likert Scale that asks students to respond to questions by choosing one of the following descriptors: "5 - very close; 4 - somewhat close; 3 - not very close; 2 - not at all close." What type of data are you collecting? A. Valid B. Quantitative C. Reliable D. Qualitative Answer: B 8. You are interested in collecting data based on observing one kindergarten student. What type of research would this be? A. Experiment B. Interview C. Case study D. Survey Answer: C 9. What type of correlation describes the situation in which the more training a person engages the faster his or her race times become? A. Curved correlation B. Absence of a correlation C. Positive correlation D. Negative correlation Answer: C 10. There are several types of research approaches. The correlational approach, for example, allows researchers to determine if there is a relationship between two variables. What is the advantage of the experimental research method? A. It allows for a detailed evaluation of a single participant. B. It helps researchers determine what to examine next. C. It detects relationships. D. It allows the researcher a high degree of control. Answer: D Chapter Exam 1. How many steps does the scientific method have? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 Answer: C 2. What is the first step in the scientific method? A. Collect data B. Identify a question of scientific interest C. Form a hypothesis D. Create a design Answer: B 3. What term describes an entire category of people? A. Population B. Sample C. Research pool D. generation Answer: A 4. What terms is used to indicate that findings from the sample make it possible to draw conclusions about the population? A. Generalizability B. Validity C. Reliability D. Standardization Answer: A 5. What document provides information about who is conducting the study, what the purpose of the study is, what participation in the study involves, what risks are involved in participating, and what the person can expect to receive in return for participation? A. IRB proposal B. Research participation form C. Informed consent form D. Study proposal Answer: C 6. What research method is most commonly used in social science? A. Correlation B. Experiment C. Case study D. Questionnaire Answer: D 7. Which of the following is an example of a qualitative research design? A. Questionnaire B. Survey C. Experiment D. Interview Answer: D 8. What measure involves consistency such that similar results are found on different occasions? A. Correlation B. Standardization C. Validity D. Reliability Answer: D 9. What term is used in research to evaluate the truthfulness of a method? A. Measurement B. Standardization C. Reliability D. Validity Answer: D 10. When two variables vary in the same direction, what type of correlation has occurred? A. Strong B. Inconsistent C. Negative D. Positive Answer: D 11. What type of research design is being used when the same group is followed over several measurement times? A. Quasi-experimental B. Experimental C. Cross-sectional D. Longitudinal Answer: D 12. What variable is the variable that is manipulated and is different for the experimental and control groups? A. Ethnographic B. Extraneous C. Dependent D. Independent Answer: D 13. In terms of causation, under what circumstances does a correlation indicate causation? A. If the correlation coefficient is positive B. If the correlation coefficient is significant C. If the correlation is negative D. By itself, it never indicates causation Answer: D 14. Participants sometimes drop out of a longitudinal study. What term is used to describe this situation? A. Cohort effect B. Selective survival C. Selective sampling D. Attrition Answer: D 15. When conducting a research study, what group receives the independent variables (treatment)? A. Cohort group B. Comparison group C. Control group D. Experimental group Answer: D Quick Review 1. What are the steps of the scientific method? A. identify a question of scientific interest; form a hypothesis; choose a research method and a research design; collect data to test the hypothesis; and draw conclusions and form new questions and hypotheses B. collect data to test a theory; manipulate variables within a laboratory setting; conduct a statistical analysis of the data; synthesize the results; and publish the findings C. observe the environment; generate a theory of the phenomenon to be studied; generate possible hypotheses; systematically vary variables; and conduct an experiment D. generate a conclusion; isolate variables; determine how variables are related to the conclusion; conduct the research study; and publish the findings Answer: A 2. What is a "sample"? A. The entire category of people B. Only those individuals who are in the research study C. Individuals in the research pool D. A subset of a population for which data are collected in a scientific study Answer: D 3. The sample should _________________ the population. A. be smaller than B. represent C. be larger than D. validate Answer: B 4. What is one of the most important concerns for participants in a research study? They want to feel that their responses will be _______________. A. recorded accurately B. confidential C. graded fairly D. intelligent Answer: B 5. What is the process that occurs when participants are provided with the findings, results, conclusions, and true purpose of the study in which they participated? A. Ethical standards B. Informed consensus C. Debriefing D. Selectivity Answer: C 6. Quantitative data represents differences in _______________. A. gender B. kind or type C. amount D. categories Answer: C 7. When a variable has been consistently measured across several times of measurement, it is said to be _______________. A. valid B. quantitative C. reliable D. qualitative Answer: C 8. A _______________ is a statistical relationship between two variables, such that knowing about one variable helps to predict the other. A. experiment B. quasi-experiment C. correlation D. theory Answer: C 9. What is a major advantage of using the cross-sectional method to collect data? A. It can assess the strength of a relationship. B. It assesses the influence of time between measurements. C. It can disentangle all of the important variables. D. It can be executed quickly and inexpensively. Answer: D 10. In an experiment, what group does not receive the treatment? A. Age group B. Cohort group C. Experimental group D. Control group Answer: D Video Guide Questions Short Answer Questions 1. List at least two aspects of the experiment that would be considered unethical according to today’s standards and explain why. Answer: There was no informed consent, the veterans were not informed fully about the experiment, the health of the individuals was at risk, and medical interventions were withheld. 2. Do you feel that race is an important factor in the discussion of this experiment? Why or why not? Answer: Yes, race is an important factor in this experiment because it focuses on African American youth, a specific demographic that may experience unique social, cultural, and economic factors influencing both marijuana use and depression. Understanding these context-specific influences is crucial for accurately interpreting the findings and tailoring interventions. 3. Imagine that you are a researcher who has been instructed to conduct an experiment similar to the one discussed in this clip. What protocols would you include to ensure that your study is ethical and that none of your subjects is harmed? Answer: To ensure the study is ethical, I would obtain informed consent from all participants, ensuring they understand the study's purpose and procedures. I would guarantee confidentiality and anonymity of their responses. Additionally, I would provide resources and support for participants experiencing distress and ensure the study design has been reviewed and approved by an institutional review board (IRB). Multiple Choice Questions 1. Informed consent deals will _________________. A. knowledge about the researcher B. understanding the aspects of the experiment C. understanding psychology D. knowing more about psychological research Answer: B 2. What condition did the individuals in the experiment discussed in this video have? A. Syphilis B. Gonorrhea C. AIDS D. Herpes Answer: A 3. What was the ethnic makeup of the individuals discussed in this video? A. 100% black researchers, 100% white subjects B. There was a good mix of several ethnicities. C. 100% white researchers, 100% black subjects D. 100% Asian researchers, 100% white subjects Answer: C Practice Test Questions from the Textbook 1. The United States A. is the developed country that will experience the steepest decline in population between now and 2050. B. is one of the few developed countries that will experience an increase in population, due largely to immigration. C. is expected to have approximately the same proportion of Latinos by 2050, but far fewer African Americans. D. has a total fertility rate that is lower than most developed countries due to the availability of birth control. Answer: B 2. If a researcher wanted to measure the socioeconomic status (SES) of her adult participants, she would need to ask them about all of the following EXCEPT their A. educational level. B. number of children. C. income level. D. occupational status. Answer: B 3. Unlike earlier Homo species, Homo sapiens had A. much heavier and thicker bones. B. bigger teeth. C. a slightly smaller brain. D. smaller jaws. Answer: D 4. Which of the following occurred during the Neolithic period? A. The climate got much colder. B. Humans began to bury their dead for the first time. C. The domestication of animals developed. D. People lived an unsettled life and often slept in temporary housing. Answer: C 5. Which of the following best represents the impact of evolution on human development? A. Biologically, humans have changed drastically since the origin of Homo sapiens. B. Our development of bipedal locomotion is the most distinctive characteristic of our species. C. Cultures shape the raw material of biology into widely different paths throughout the life span. D. Instincts reduce humans’ capacity for cultural learning more than they reduce animals’ capacity for cultural learning. Answer: C 6. The Dharmashastras are the sacred law books of the ___________________ religion that describes four stages of a man’s life. A. Christian B. Jewish C. Hindu D. Buddhist Answer: C 7. The three traditional conceptions of life (in the Dharmashastras, the Talmud, and as proposed by Solon) differ A. in that only one is a view of how we develop if all goes well. B. in the way that they divide the life span. C. in the level of maturity they attribute to youth. D. in the stage of life when wisdom is evident. Answer: B 8. According to Freud A. attachment security is the driving force behind human development throughout life. B. everything important in development happened before adulthood. C. a small percentage of children experience an Oedipus complex that leads them to want to have sexual access to their opposite-sex parents. D. the root of mental health problems in his patients was that they seemed to have experienced some type of traumatic event during puberty. Answer: B 9. Although Shanamae makes a good salary in sales, she is questioning whether her work in the retail industry is making a meaningful contribution to society. She is thinking of going back to school to train to be a nurse so that she can give back to society by helping others. According to Erikson, she is in the stage of A. ego integrity versus despair. B. industry versus inferiority. C. generativity versus stagnation. D. industry versus stagnation. Answer: C 10. The United States’ belief in the value of individual freedom as demonstrated in its capitalist economic system and its governmental system of representative democracy reflects which system of Bronfenbrenner’s theory? A. exosystem B. chronosystem C. microsystem D. macrosystem Answer: D 11. Which statement concerning the developmental period of emerging adulthood is most accurate? A. It is a life stage in which most people have not yet made commitments to the stable roles of love and work that structure adult life. B. It is a stage of life that exists mainly in developing countries because people in these countries do not have the resources to assume adult roles at the same pace as their counterparts in developed countries. C. Emerging adulthood is a period that replaces middle age. D. Emerging adults are more dependent on their parents than their adolescent counterparts. Answer: A 12. __________________ generates hypotheses that can be tested in research. A. An unbiased sample B. A theory C. The research design D. The research method Answer: B 13. In the famous case of Henrietta Lacks, an African American woman’s cancer cells were removed from her cervix without her knowledge by a surgeon right before her death in 1951. Researchers wanted to study these HeLa cells to learn about the genes that cause cancer and those that suppress it. The ethical requirement of ___________________ would protect against this happening today. A. informed consent B. deception C. confidentiality D. generalizability of the findings Answer: A 14. Which of the following is true regarding research methods? A. Qualitative data is considered unscientific among most researchers in the field of psychology. B. The strength of the case study approach is the ability to generalize the findings. C. The ethnographic method allows the researcher to learn how people behave in their daily lives. D. The most commonly used method in social science research is the open-ended interview. Answer: C 15. Which of the following is a problem with cross-sectional research? A. Participants tend to drop out of the study. B. It tends to be more expensive to conduct than longitudinal research. C. It tends to be more time-consuming than longitudinal research. D. It yields a correlation, which may be difficult to interpret. Answer: D Test Bank for Human Development: A Cultural Approach Jeffrey J. Arnett 9780205987887, 9780134641348