ATI Cardiovascular Targeted Exam Questions with Answers and Detailed
Rationales
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has a prescription for the transdermal
nitroglycerin patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Apply the new patch to the same site as the previous patch
B. Place the patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints
C. Keep the patch on 24 hr per day
D. Replace the patch at the onset of angina
Answer: Place the patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints
2. A nurse in an emergency room is assessing a client who has a brady dysrhythmia. Which of
the following findings should the nurse monitor for?
A. Confusion
B. Friction rub
C. Hypertension
D. Dry skin
Answer: Confusion
Brady dysrhythmia can cause decreased systemic perfusion, which can lead to confusion.
3. A nurse is admitting a client who has a leg ulcer and a history of diabetes mellitus. The nurse
should use which of the following focused assessments to help differentiate between an arterial
ulcer and a venous stasis ulcer?
A. Explore the client's family history of peripheral vascular disease
B. Note the presence or absence of pain at the ulcer site
C. Inquire about the presence or absence of claudication
D. Ask if the client has had a recent infection
Answer: Inquire about the presence or absence of claudication
Clients who have arterial ulcers experience claudication, but those who have venous ulcers do
not.
4. A nurse is providing teaching for a client who is 2 days postoperative following a heart
transplant. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "You might no longer be able to feel chest pain."
B. "Your level of activity intolerance will not change."
C. "After 6 months, you will no longer need to restrict your sodium intake."
D. "You will be able to stop taking immunosuppressants after 12 months."
Answer: "You might no longer be able to feel chest pain."
Heart transplant clients usually are no longer able to feel chest pain due to the denervation of the
heart.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted for treatment of left-sided heart failure with
intravenous loop diuretics and digitalis therapy. The client is experiencing weakness and an
irregular heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain client's current weight
B. Review serum electrolyte values
C. Determine the time of the last digoxin dose
D. Check the client's urine output
Answer: Review serum electrolyte values.
Weakness and irregular heart rate indicate that the client is at the greatest risk for electrolyte
imbalance, an adverse effect of loop diuretics. The first action the nurse should take is to review
the client's electrolyte values, particularly the potassium level, because the client is at risk for
dysrhythmias from hypokalemia.
6. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following
manifestations should the nurse expect to find?
A. Increased abdominal girth
B. Weak peripheral pulses
C. Jugular venous neck distention
D. Dependent edema
Answer: Weak peripheral pulses.
Weak peripheral pulses are related to decreased cardiac output resulting from left-sided heart
failure.
7. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of deep-vein thrombosis and is receiving
warfarin. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings indicates the medication
is effective?
A. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
B. Minimal bruising of extremities
C. Decreased blood pressure
D. INR 2.0
Answer: INR 2.0
The nurse should identify that an INR of 2.0 is within the desired reference range of 2.0 to 3.0
for a client who has a deep-vein thrombosis and is receiving warfarin to reduce the risk of new
clot formation and a stroke.
8. A nurse is preparing a client for coronary angiography. The nurse should report which of the
following findings to the provider prior to the procedure?
A. Hemoglobin 14.4 g/dL
B. History of peripheral arterial disease
C. Urine output 200 mL/4 hr
D. Previous allergic reaction to shellfish
Answer: Previous allergic reaction to shellfish
9. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has a blood pressure of 254/139
mmHg. The nurses recognizes that the client is in a hypertensive crisis. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A. Initiate seizure precautions
B. Tell the client to report vision changes
C. Elevate the head of the client's bed
D. Start a peripheral IV
Answer: Elevate the head of the client's bed.
The greatest risk to this client is organ injury due to severe hypertension. Therefore, the first
action the nurse should take is to elevate the head of the client's bed to reduce blood pressure and
promote oxygenation.
10. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of several male clients who have peripheral
arterial disease. The nurse should plan to provide dietary teaching for the client who has which of
the following laboratory values?
A. Cholesterol 180 mg/dL, HDL 70 mg/dL, LDL 90 mg/dL
B. Cholesterol 185 mg/dL, HDL 50 mg/dL, LDL 120 mg/dL
C. Cholesterol 190 mg/dL, HDL 25 mg/dL, LDL 160 mg/dL
D. Cholesterol 195 mg/dL, HDL 55 mg/dL, LDL 125 mg/dL
Answer: Cholesterol 190 mg/dL, HDL 25 mg/dL, LDL 160 mg/dL
The expected reference range of cholesterol is less than 200 mg/dL, HDL above 45 mg/dL for
men and above 55 mg/dL for women, and LDL less than 130 mg/dL.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) in 2
hr. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further clarification by the
nurse?
A. "My arthritis is really bothering me because I haven't taken my aspirin in a week."
B. "My blood pressure shouldn't be high because I took my blood pressure medication this
morning."
C. "I took my warfarin last night according to my usual schedule."
D. "I will check my blood sugar because I took a reduced dose of insulin this morning."
Answer: "I took my warfarin last night according to my usual schedule."
Clients who are scheduled for a CABG should not take anticoagulants, such as warfarin, for
several days prior to the surgery to prevent excessive bleeding.
12. A nurse is caring for a client following insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Which of the
following client statements indicates a potential complication of the insertion procedure?
A. "I can't get rid of these hiccups."
B. "I feel dizzy when I stand."
C. "My incision site stings."
D. "I have a headache."
Answer: "I can't get rid of these hiccups."
Hiccups can indicate that the pacemaker is stimulating the chest wall or diaphragm, which can
occur as a result of a lead wire perforation.
13. A nurse is assessing a client who has pulmonary edema related to heart failure. Which of the
following findings indicates effective treatment of the client's condition?
A. Absence of adventitious breath sounds
B. Presence of a nonproductive cough
C. Decrease in respiratory rate at rest
D. SaO2 86% on room air
Answer: Absence of adventitious breath sounds
Adventitious breath sounds occur when there is fluid in the lungs. The absence of adventitious
breath sounds indicates that the pulmonary edema is resolving.
14. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy and develops hematuria.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take if the client's aPTT is 96 seconds?
A. Increase the heparin infusion flow rate by 2 mL/hr
B. Continue to monitor the heparin infusion as prescribed
C. Request a prothrombin time (PT)
D. Stop the heparin infusion
Answer: Stop the heparin infusion.
The nurse should identify that the client's aPTT is above the critical value and the client is
displaying manifestations of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should discontinue the heparin
infusion immediately and notify the provider to reduce the risk of client injury.
15. A nurse is caring for a postoperative client 1 hr following an aortic aneurysm repair. Which of
the following findings can indicate shock and should be reported to the provider?
A. Serosanguineous drainage on dressing
B. Severe pain with coughing
C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
D. Increase in temperature from 36.8 C (98.2 F) to 37.5C (99.5 F)
Answer: Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Urine output less than 30 mL/hr is a manifestation of shock. Urine output is decreased due to a
compensatory decreased blood flow to the kidneys, hypovolemia, or graft thrombosis or rupture.
16. A nurse is teaching a client who is starting to take an ACE inhibitor to treat hypertension. The
nurse should instruct the client to notify his provider if he experiences which of the following
adverse effects of this medication?
A. Tendon pain
B. Persistent cough
C. Frequent urination
D. Constipation
Answer: Persistent cough
A persistent cough is an adverse effect of ACE inhibitors. The client should report this finding to
the provider and discontinue the medication.
17. A nurse is caring for a client who has endocarditis. Which of the following findings should
the nurse recognize as a potential complication?
A. Ventricular depolarization
B. Guillain-Barre syndrome
C. Myelodysplastic syndrome
D. Valvular disease
Answer: Valvular disease
Valvular disease or damage often occurs as a result of inflammation or infection of the
endocardium.
18. A nurse is caring for a client who had an onset of chest pain 24 hr ago. The nurse should
recognize that an increase in which of the following is diagnostic of a myocardial infarction
(MI)?
A. Myoglobin
B. C-reactive protein
C. Creatine kinase-MB
D. Homocysteine
Answer: Creatine kinase-MB
Creatine kinase-MB is the isoenzyme specific to the myocardium.
Elevated creatine kinase-MB indicates myocardial muscle injury.
19. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who had an anterior myocardial
infarction. The client's history reveals she is 1 week postoperative following an open
cholecystectomy. The nurse should recognize that which of the following interventions is
contraindicated?
A. Administering IV morphine sulfate
B. Administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
C. Helping the client to the bedside commode
D. Assisting with thrombolytic therapy
Answer: Assisting with thrombolytic therapy
The nurse should recognize that major surgery within the previous 3 weeks is a contraindication
for thrombolytic therapy.
20. A nurse is providing health teaching for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is
at risk for developing peripheral arterial disease?
A. A client who has hypothyroidism
B. A client who has diabetes mellitus
C. A client whose daily caloric intake consists of 25% fat
D. A client who consumes two 12-oz bottles of beer a day
Answer: A client who has diabetes mellitus
Diabetes mellitus places the client at risk for microvascular damage and progressive peripheral
arterial disease.
21. A nurse is assessing a client who has dilated cardiomyopathy. Which of the following
findings should the nurse expect?
A. Dyspnea on exertion
B. Tracheal deviation
C. Pericardial rub
D. Weight loss
Answer: Dyspnea on exertion
The nurse should identify dyspnea on exertion as an expected manifestation of dilated
cardiomyopathy. Dyspnea on exertion is due to ventricular compromise and reduced cardiac
output.
22. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has heart failure. The nurse should
instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately to the provider?
A. Weight gain of 0.9kg (2 lb) in 24 hr
B. Increase of 10 mm Hg in systolic blood pressure
C. Dyspnea with exertion
D. Dizziness when rising quickly
Answer: Weight gain of 0.9 kg (2 lb) in 24 hr
When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should determine that the
priority finding is a weight gain of 0.5 to 0.9 kg (1 to 2 lb) in 1 day. This weight gain is an
indication of fluid retention resulting from worsening heart failure. The client should report this
finding immediately.
23. A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for exercise
electrocardiography at 1100. Which of the following statements by the client requires the nurse
to contact the provider for possible rescheduling?
A. "I'm still hungry after the bowl of cereal I ate at 7 a.m."
B. "I didn't take my heart pills this morning because the doctor told me not to."
C. "I have had chest pain a couple times since I saw my doctor in the office last week."
D. "I smoked a cigarette this morning to calm my nerves about having this procedure."
Answer: "I smoked a cigarette this morning to calm my nerves about having this procedure."
Smoking prior to this test can change the outcome and places the client at additional risk. The
procedure should be rescheduled if the client has smoked before the test.
24. A nurse is monitoring a client's ECG monitor and notes the client's rhythm has changed from
normal sinus rhythm to supraventricular tachycardia. The nurse should prepare to assist with
which of the following interventions?
A. Delivery of a percordial thump
B. Vagal stimulation
C. Administration of atropine IV
D. Defibrillation
Answer: Vagal stimulation.
The nurse should identify that vagal stimulation might temporarily convert the client's heart rate
to normal sinus rhythm. The nurse should have a defibrillator and resuscitation equipment at the
client's bedside because vagal stimulation can cause brady dysrhythmias, ventricular
dysrhythmias, or asystole.
25. A nurse is planning a presentation for a group of clients who have hypertension. Which of the
following lifestyle modifications should the nurse include? (select all that apply.)
A. Limited alcohol intake
B. Regular exercise program
C. Decreased magnesium intake
D. Reduced potassium intake
E. Tobacco cessation
Answer: Limit alcohol intake
Regular exercise program
Tobacco cessation
26. A nurse is caring for a client who is being treated for heart failure and has a prescription for
furosemide. The nurse should plan to monitor for which of the following as an adverse effect of
this medication?
A. Shortness of breath
B. Lightheadedness
C. Dry cough
D. Metallic taste
Answer: Lightheadedness
Furosemide can cause a substantial drop in blood pressure, resulting in lightheadedness or
dizziness.
27. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is experiencing atrial fibrillation. The
nurse should plan to monitor for and report which of the following findings to the provider
immediately?
A. Slurred speech
B. Irregular pulse
C. Dependent edema
D. Persistent fatigue
Answer: Slurred speech
The greatest risk to this client is injury from an embolus caused by the pooling of blood that can
occur with atrial fibrillation. Slurred speech can indicate inadequate circulation to the brain
because of an embolus. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding to the provider
immediately.
28. A nurse is caring for a client who is 8 hr postoperative following a coronary artery bypass
graft (CABG). Which of the following client findings should the nurse report?
A. Mediastinal drainage 100 mL/hr
B. Blood pressure 160/80 mm Hg
C. Temperature 37.1 C (98.8 F)
D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
Answer: Blood pressure 160/80 mm Hg
The nurse should report an elevated blood pressure following a CABG because increased
vascular pressure can cause bleeding at the incision sites.
