MEDICATION AIDE ACTUAL EXAM 450 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS 2023-2024 UPDATE ALREADY GRADED A++
1. A severe, life threatening sensitivity to an antigen is
a. drug reaction
b. side effect
c. anaphylaxis
d. allergic reation
Answer: anaphlaxis
2. When giving a rectal or vaginal drug, you should wear
a. mask
b. shoe coverings
c. gloves
d. eye shields
Answer: gloves
3. Vaginal drugs are often given
a. bedtime
b. before the shower
c. early afternoon
d. late afternoon
Answer: bedtime
4. You are giving drugs from a drug cart. When you ender a person’s room you,
a. ask a CNA to watch the cart for you
b. leave the unlocked cart in the hallway
c. wheel the drug cart into the room
d. lock the cart before entering the persons room
Answer: lock the cart before entering the persons room
5. Otic means
a. sublingual
b. mouth
c. eye
d. ear
Answer: ear
6. Oral drugs can be given if the person
a. is vomiting
b. unconscious or comatose
c. able to swallow
d. risk for aspiration
Answer: able to swallow
7. To make sure you have the right person when giving a drug, you use at least
a. three identifiers
b. two identifiers
c. one identifier
d. four identifiers
Answer: two identifiers
8. A drug is ordered p.c. this drug is given,
a. after meals
b. upon wakening
c. before meals
d. at bedtime
Answer: after meals
9. Oral drugs are ordered for a person who is comatose. You should
a. notify the doctor
b. call the pharmacist for IM drugs
c. ask the nurse what to do
d. give the drugs as ordered
Answer: ask the nurse what to do
10. When applying a topical drug, you do all the following EXCEPT
a. document before you apply the drug
b. apply the dose form to clean, dry skin
c. wear gloves
d. practice hand hygiene before and after the application
Answer: document before you apply the drug
11. When do you record a drug as given on the MAR?
a. at once after giving the drug
b. after all drugs are given at the end of the med pass
c. at the end of the shift
d. after the CNA gives the drug
Answer: at once after giving the drug
12. A sublingual drug is given
a. under the tongue
b. on the skin
c. between the cheek and molar teeth
d. in the eye
Answer: under the tongue
13. You gave a drug to the wrong person this is
a. abuse
b. malpractice
c. fraud
d. negligence
Answer: negligence
14. only a portion of a controlled substance is ordered. What should you do with the unused
portion?
a. return it to the medicine room
b. Return it to the pharmacy
d. save the unused portion for the next dose
d. document and place the unused portion in a designated secure, locked area until it can be
appropriately dispose of per facility policy
Answer: document and place the unused portion in a designated secure, locked area until it can
be appropriately dispose of per facility policy
15. Taking a person's drugs for your own use is
a. drug diversion
b. malpractice
c. boundary crossing
d. negligence
Answer: drug diversion
16. A person has difficulty swallowing his or her drug. You
a. hold the drug
b. call the pharmacist
c. tell the doctor
d. tell the nurse
Answer: tell the nurse
17. If you fail to do something that a reasonable and careful person would have done, you are
a. committing libel
b. fraudulent
c. abusive
d. negligent
Answer: negligent
18. When giving an eye medication, you
a. apply the drops or ointment to the cornea
b. give eye drops at room temperature
c. remove eye secretions by cleaning from the outer to the inner aspect of the eye
d. tilt the persons head forward
Answer: give eye drops at room temperature
19. The nurse asks you to perform a task that is in your job description. You have not done this
task before. You
a. refuse to do the task without an explanation
b. ignore the request from the nurse
c. tell the nurse you have not done the task before and ask for help
d. do the task without asking questions
Answer: tell the nurse you have not done the task before and ask for help
20. Primary routes of excretion for a drug are
a. secretion into saliva and breast milk
b. elimination through urine and feces
c. exhalation from the lungs
d. evaporation from the skin and nails
Answer: elimination through urine and feces
21. Ear medications are given
a. at room temperature
b. after being heated
c. cold
d. directly from the refrigerator
Answer: at room temperature
22. drugs should be stored in a refrigerator
a. with fluids
b. beverages
c. only for drugs
d. with food
Answer: only for drugs
23. A person has an allergy to a drug listed on the MAR. you should
a. tell the unit secretary
b. tell the nurse
c. call the doctor
d. give the drug
Answer: tell the nurse
24. A prescription label is not complete. you should
a. give the drug
b. check the expiration date
c. tell the nurse
d. call the pharmacy
Answer: tell the nurse
25. The basic unit of body structure is the
a. cell
b. neuron
c. nephron
d. ovum
Answer: cell
26. The outer layer of skin is called the:
a. dermis
b. epidermis
c. integument
d. myelin
Answer: epidermis
27. Which is not a function of the skin?
a. provides the protective covering for the body
b. regulates body temperature
c. senses cold, pain, touch, and pressure
d. provides the shape and framework for the body
Answer: provides the shape and framework for the body
28. Which allows movement?
a. bone marrow
b. synovial membrane
c. joints
d. ligaments
Answer: joints
29. skeletal muscles
a. Are under voluntary control (Correct answer)
b. Appear smooth
c. Are found in the walls of organs
d. Contain striations (striped appearance)
e. Are responsible for involuntary movements
Answer: Are under voluntary control
30. Which does for is not a liquid?
a. emulsions
b. elixirs
c. troches
d. syrups
Answer: Troches
31. To apply ear drops to a person 3 years of age or older, you:
a. instill the drops without pulling the ear
b. pull the ear down and back
c. pull the ear upward and back
d. pull the ear down and forward
Answer: pull the ear upward and back
32. A watery preparation containing suspended particles is:
a. lotion
b. cream
c. ointment
d. powder
Answer: lotion
33. A drug interaction occurs when:
a. person cannot control the ingestion of drugs
b. withdrawal symptoms occur if the drug is not taken for a certain period
c. the action of one drug is altered by the action of another drug
d. a person begins to need higher dosages to produce the same effects that lower dosages one
produced
Answer: the action of one drug is altered by the action of another drug
34. You are applying a trans-dermal patch. You
a. cover the patch with plastic wrap
b. remove the old trans-dermal path before applying the new patch
c. discard it in the trash
d. tell the person the drug is absorbed quickly
Answer: remove the old trans-dermal path before applying the new patch
35. Before giving a drug, you must
a. take the persons pulse
b. measure the blood pressure
c. check the care plan
d. check the allergies
Answer: check the allergies
36. Knowledge of what is right conduct and what is wrong conduct is
a. criminal law
b. civil law
c. advanced directives
d. ethics
Answer: ethics
37. one tsp equals
a. 5mL
b. 30mL
c. 2mL
d. 10mL
Answer: 5mL
38. You are applying topical nitroglycerin. You
a. rub or massage the ointment into the skin
b. check for an old application before applying a new one
c. apply it in the per area
d. apply the ointment to an irritated or open area
Answer: check for an old application before applying a new one
39. You are not sure of something on a drug order. you should
a. call the pharmacist
b. tell the nurse
c. transcribe the order as written
d. call the doctor
Answer: tell the nurse
40. before giving a suspension, you
a. mix the drug with food
b. warm the drug
c. dilute the drug
d. shake the bottle
Answer: shake the bottle
41. you suspect a person is being abused in your facility. You should
a. call the police
b. tell another med aide
c. share your concerns with the nurse
d. tell the social worker
Answer: share your concerns with the nurse
42. The intentional mistreatment or harm of another person is
a. malpractice
b. defamation
c. abuse
d. neglect
Answer: abuse
43. controlled substances are
a. left at the persons bedside
b. kept in a locked cabinet or in a locked drawer
c. regulated state laws
d. are kept in the persons drug drawer
Answer: kept in a locked cabinet or in a locked drawer
44. ocular or optic drugs are given into the
a. eye
b. mouth
c. nose
d. ear
Answer: eye
45. before applying a topical drug, you should
a. provide privacy
b. expose the person's entire body
c. treat the person rudely
d. keep doors and window coverings open
Answer: provide privacy
46. As a med aide, you should
a. perform acts that are against your morals or religion
b. work within the legal limits of your role
c. perform functions that are beyond the legal limits of your role
d. function beyond your training limits
Answer: work within the legal limits of your role
47. A drug is ordered q.8.h. the drug should be given
a. daily
b. every 4 hours
c. four times a day
d. every eight hours
Answer: every eight hours
48. You are giving liquid drug. You
a. return the extra liquid back to the bottle
b. give cough syrup last
c. dilute the drug with water
d. mix all the liquid drugs together
Answer: give cough syrup last
49. A doctor begins to give you a telephone order. You
a. politely give your name and title and ask the doctor to wait for a nurse
b. give the phone to a unit secretary
c. write the order on the MAR
d. accept the order from the doctor
Answer: politely give your name and title and ask the doctor to wait for a nurse
50. when giving oral drugs, you should
a. follow the 6 rights of drug administration
b. help feed a person
c. follow the three checks of label and MAR check
d. A and C
Answer: A and C
51. You tell a patient about your personal problems. This is
a. professional sexual misconduct
b. boundary crossing
c. boundary sign
d. boundary violation
Answer: boundary violation
52. you need to give a person two different eye drugs. How long should you wait between drugs?
a. 60 min
b. 24 hours
c. 30 min
d. 1-5 min
Answer: Usually 1-5 minutes
53. The following statements are about prescription labels. Which is FALSE?
a. if a label is not complete, tell the nurse
b. check the expiration date
c. you may give a drug after the expiration date
d. always read the label carefully
Answer: You may give the drug after the expiration date
54. To prevent infections, you should
a. practice hand hygiene before giving drugs
b. practice hand hygiene after giving drugs
c. practice hand hygiene before and after giving drugs
d. wear gloves when giving an oral drug
Answer: practice hand hygiene before and after giving drugs
55. A drug is dropped on the floor. You should
a. dispose of it following agency policy
b. keep it for yourself.
c. give it to the person
d. return it to the drug box
Answer: dispose of it following agency policy
56. A cone shaped, solid drug inserted into a body opening is called
a. foam
b. tablet
c. gel
d. suppository
Answer: suppository
57. The purpose of a nurse practice act is to
a. protect the public welfare and safety
b. protect the safety of nursing assistive personnel
c. protect health care workers
d. protect the welfare of nursing assistive personnel
Answer: protect the public welfare and safety
58. When giving oral drugs, you should
a. mix solid drugs with liquid drugs
b. stay with the person while he or she takes the drug
c. place a bottle lid upside down on a clean surface
d. give liquid drugs before solid drugs
Answer: stay with the person while he or she takes the drug
59. Which of the following prevents a tablet from dissolving in the stomach?
a. Enteric coating
b. layering
c. scoring
d. granules
Answer: enteric coating
60. you are giving a buccal tablet. The tablet is
a. placed between the cheek and the molar teeth
b. crushed before you give it to the person
c. taken with a full glass of water
d. placed under the tongue
Answer: placed between the cheek and the molar teeth
61. to give the right dose, you
a. compare the dose on the pharmacy label against the progress notes
b. compare the dose on the pharmacy label against the graphic sheet
c. compare the dose on the pharmacy label against the MAR
d. compare the dose on the pharmacy label against the Kardex
Answer: compare the dose on the pharmacy label against the MAR
62. you made a drug error and need to complete an incident report. You:
a. complete the incident report according to facility policy
b. contact the doctor about the error.
c. give your opinions about why the error occurred
d. record the error in the progress notes
Answer: complete the incident report according to facility policy
63. A drug is ordered q. i. d. The drug should be given:
a. twice a day
b. three times a day
c. four times a day
d. daily
Answer: 4 times a day
64. Which is used to give a vaginal cream, gel, or foam?
a. an applicator provided by the manufacturer
b. suppository
c. gloved finger
d. cotton-tipped swab
Answer: an applicator provided by the manufacturer
65. Drug cart keys should be
a. given to the unit clerk when you enter a person’s room
b. kept with you when you enter a person’s room
c. kept on the cart when you enter a person’s room
d. given to a CNA when you enter a person’s room
Answer: kept with you when you enter a person’s room
66. Which of the following characteristics describe skeletal muscles?
a. Are involuntary in nature
b. Are striated and smooth
c. Are under voluntary control
d. Appear striped and smooth
Answer: Are under voluntary control
67. The highest functions in the brain take place in the
a. cerebral cortex
b. medulla
c. brainstem
d. spinal nerves
Answer: cerebral cortex
68. The ear is involved with
a. regulating body movements
b. balance
c. the smoothness of body movements
d. controlling involuntary movements
Answer: balance
69. The liquid part of the blood is the
a. hemoglobin
b. red blood cell
c. plasma
d. white blood cell
Answer: plasma
70. Which part of the heart pumps blood TO the body?
a. right atrium
b. left atrium
c. right ventricle
d. left ventricle
Answer: left ventricle
71. Which carry blood away from the heart?
a. Capillaries
b. Veins
c. Venules
d. Arteries
Answer: Veins
72. oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged
a. in the bronchi
b. between the alveoli and capillaries
c. between the lungs and pleura
d. in the trachea
Answer: between the alveoli and capillaries
73. Digestion begins in the
a. mouth
b. stomach
c. small intestines
d. colon
Answer: mouth
74. Most food absorption takes place in the
a. stomach
b. small intestine
c. colon
d. large intestines
Answer: small intestine
75. urine is formed by the
a. jejunum
b. kidneys
c. bladder
d. liver
Answer: kidneys
76. urine passes from the body through the
a. ureters
b. urethra
c. anus
d. nephrons
Answer: urethra
77. The male sex gland is called the
a. penis
b. semen
c. testis
d. scrotum
Answer: testis
78. The male sex cell is called
a. semen
b. ovum
c. gonad
d. sperm
Answer: sperm
79. the female sex gland is the
a. ovary
b. cervix
c. uterus
d. vagina
Answer: ovary
80. the discharge of the lining of the uterus is called
a. endometrium
b. ovulation
c. fertilization
d. menstruation
Answer: menstruation
81. the immune system protects the body from
a. low blood sugar
b. disease and infection
c. loss of fluid
d. stunted growth
Answer: disease and infection
82. the endocrine glands secrete
a. hormones
b. mucus
c. semen
d. insulin
Answer: hormones
83. Skin absorption of drugs is enhanced in infants. this is because their skin,
a. is thinner
b. has more water
c. is dry
d. has fewer hair follicles
Answer: has more water
84. You are giving drugs to an older person. Which of the following may enhance skin
absorption?
a. thin skin
b. dry skin
c. wrinkled skin
d. decreased blood flow to the skin
Answer: thin skin
85. A tablet is too large for a person to swallow. With the nurse's permission, you can
a. crush the tablet and mix it with food
b. give the liquid form of the same drug
c. ask the person to chew the tablet
d. dissolve the drug in water
Answer: crush the tablet and mix it with food
86. Before giving a chewable tablet, you should
a. taste the drug
b. ask about the person's saliva flow
c. mix the drug with food
d. ask about loose teeth
Answer: ask about loose teeth
87. These statements are about gastro-intestinal absorption of drugs in older persons. Which is
FALSE?
a. gastric acid secretion increases
b. stomach emptying is slower
c. GI mobility is slower
d. blood flow to the stomach and intestines is decreased
Answer: gastric acid secretion increases
88. Drugs are given orally to an older person. The person is at risk for the following except
a. enzymes
b. ulcers
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
Answer: enzymes
89. Drug distribution is likely to be greater in
a. infants
b. persons with liver disease
c. persons with kidney disease
c. older persons
Answer: infants
90. In persons with liver or kidney disease, you should expect drug dosages to be
a. increased
b. decreased
c. within the normal range
d. half the normal range
Answer: decreased
91. Therapeutic drug monitoring is done to measure
a. metabolites
b. enzymes
c. a drug's concentration in body fluids
d. drug toxicity
Answer: a drug's concentration in body fluids
92. You assist the nurse with therapeutic drug monitoring by measuring
a. vital signs and urine output
b. gastric pH
c. blood pH
d. drug blood levels
Answer: vital signs and urine output
93. The following are used to give oral drugs to children except
a. medicine cups
b. oral droppers
c. oral syringes
d. pacifiers
Answer: pacifiers
94. A child cannot swallow a capsule. With the nurse's permission, you can
a. sprinkle the contents onto small amounts of applesauce, jelly or pudding
d. sprinkle the contents into a flavored drink
c. dilute the capsule following the manufacturer's instructions
d. have the child chew the drug
Answer: sprinkle the contents onto small amounts of applesauce, jelly or pudding
95. From birth through the teenage years, children should not be given
a. tylenol
b. advil
c. penicillin
d. aspirin
Answer: aspirin
96. When giving drugs to an infant, you should
a. support the child's head
b. let the child choose which drug to take first
c. place a tablet near the back of the child's tongue
d. use a straw if the drug can stain teeth
Answer: support the child's head
97. To remove and unpleasant after-taste, you should let the child
a. have candy
b. rinse with a flavored drink
c. choose which drug form to take
d. choose where to take the drug
Answer: rinse with a flavored drink
98. Which is a useful reminder for when to take drugs?
a. medicine cup
b. oral dropper
c. oral syringe
d. drug organizer
Answer: drug organizer
99. A tablet is "scored" what does "scored" mean?
a. you keep track of the number of tablets given to the person
b. the tablet can be broken in half
c. a "score" means 20. there are 20 doses in the tablet
d. the tablet is time released.
Answer: the tablet can be broken in half
100. A pregnant woman should do the following except
a. try non-drug treatments before trying drugs
b. take only drugs ordered by the doctor
c. have one alcoholic drink a day
d. take prescribed drugs after the infant is done breast-feeding
Answer: have one alcoholic drink a day
101. The brand name of a drug is
a. its trade name
b. it chemical structure
c. the common name
d. the name listed by the FDA
Answer: its trade name
102. A prescription drug
a. affects one body system
b. has one use
c. needs a doctor order
d. is not approved for use by the FDA
Answer: needs a doctor order
103. OTC drugs
a. are called recreational drugs
b. are sold without a prescription
c. have no therapeutic use
d. require the phrase "Rx only" on the label
Answer: are sold without a prescription
104. Drugs act in the human body by
a. Forming a chemical bond within specific sites
b. creating new body responses
c. reconstituting a body fluid
d. diluting a body fluid
Answer: Forming a chemical bond within specific sites
105. the process by which the body inactivated a drug is called
a. absorption
b. distribution
c. metabolism
d. excretion
Answer: metabolism
106. A drug is given by the enteral route. You know that the drug is given
a. into a vein
b. into a muscle
c. beneath the skin
d. into the GI tract
Answer: into the GI tract
107. The nurse tells you that the blood level of a drug is too high. You know that the
a. person is taking illegal drugs
b. person is at risk for high toxicity
c. the rate or absorption is low
d. the rate of excretion is high
Answer: person is at risk for high toxicity
108. Most drugs are metabolized
a. in the kidneys
b. by white blood cells
c. by the GI tract
d. in the liver
Answer: liver
109. Most drugs leave the body through
a. the skin
b. the lungs
c. saliva
d. urine and feces
Answer: urine and feces
110. Which is life threatening:
a. an allergic reaction
b. an adverse drug reaction
c. an idiosyncratic drug reaction
d. an anaphylactic reaction
Answer: an anaphylactic reaction
111. A person complains of severe itching. You observe raised, irregular patches on the person's
skin. This is called
a. a side effect
b. an adverse drug reaction
c. anaphylaxis
d. hives
Answer: hives
112. A hyper-sensitivity to a drug is called
a. an allergic reaction
b. an adverse drug reaction
c. side effect
d. an anaphylactic reaction
Answer: an allergic reaction
113. Which has no active ingredients?
a. IM
b. IV
c. subcutaneous
d. placebo
Answer: placebo
114. A person needs higher dosages of a drug to produce the same effects that lower dosages
once gave. This is called
a. tolerance
b. dependence
c. cumulative effect
d. drug interaction
Answer: tolerance
115. When checking drug information you must use
a. the PDR
b. package inserts
c. the most current resource
d. online resources
Answer: the most current resource
116. A single drug order is given
a. at once
b. as needed
c. at a certain time
d. at bedtime
Answer: at a certain time
117. Which abbreviation is on the "do not use" list?
a. QD
b. PO
c. AC
d. q6h
Answer: QD
118. Which abbreviation is safe to use?
a. cc
b. U
c. QOD
d. mL
Answer: mL
119. A drug order state to give the drug if the person has not had a bowel movement for 3 days.
Where will you find information about the drug order?
a. the Kardex
b. graphic sheet
c. progress notes
d. care plan
Answer: the Kardex
120. You gave a PRN drug as directed by the nurse. Besides the MAR, where should you record
giving the drug?
a. the Kardex
b. graphic sheet
c. progress notes
d. care plan
Answer: progress notes
121. When is a copy of the order sent to the pharmacy?
a. as soon as it is written
b. after it is transcribed
c. at the end of the shift
d. at the time noted by the doctor
Answer: after it is transcribed
122. After transcribing a drug order, you should do the following EXCEPT
a. place a check mark by the order
b. write noted or posted on the order
c. sign, date, and time the order
d. give the drug
Answer: give the drug
123. A drug is given daily. What time should you put on the MAR?
a. 0900
b. the agency's standard time for a drug given daily
c. the time the drug was ordered
d. the time preferred by the person
Answer: the agency's standard time for a drug given daily
124. A drug order was changed from daily to twice a day. When transcribing the new order to the
MAR, you should do the following except
a. erase the first order
b. discontinue the first order
c. put an X through every date and time not included in the order
d. transcribe the new order on a new line
Answer: erase the first order
125. A drug is dispensed in a packed for each drug ordered. This is done with the
a. floor stock system
b. individual prescription order system
c. unit dose system
d. narcotic control system
Answer: unit dose system
126. The pharmacy sends a 3-5 day supply of an ordered drug to the nursing unit. This is done
with the
a. floor stock system
b. individual prescription order system
c. unit dose system
d. computer-controlled dispensing system
Answer: individual prescription order system
127. A narcotics count is required
a. at the end of the shift
b. every week
c. every month
d. whenever a dose is removed
Answer: at the end of the shift
128. to receive oral drugs, the person must be able to
a. state his or her name
b. identify the drug
c. sit in fowler's position
d. swallow
Answer: swallow
129. oral drug orders are written as follows. Which should you question?
a. 10 mL
b. 10 mL per os
c. 10 mL orally
d. 10 mL by mouth
Answer: 10 mL per os
130. Which dose form contains granules?
a. tablet
b. capsule
c. time-release capsule
d. lozenge
Answer: time-release capsule
131. Which form is held in the mouth to dissolve?
a. tablet
b. capsule
c. time-release capsule
d. lozenge
Answer: lozenge
132. Another name for a lozenge is
a. elixir
b. emulsion
c. troche
d. suspension
Answer: troche
133. Which is NOT a liquid dose form?
a. elixir
b. emulsion
c. lozenge
d. syrup
Answer: lozenge
134. Which dose form should you shake before pouring the drug?
a. suspension
b. timed-released capsule
c. elixir
d. syrup
Answer: suspension
135. Which has a hollow rubber ball at one end?
a. souffle cup
b. medicine cup
c. medicine dropper
d. oral syringe
Answer: medicine dropper
136. A person has 4 drugs ordered for 0900. Which should you give first?
a. the liquid drug
b. a drug in a unit dose package
c. a solid drug
d. the most important drug
Answer: the most important drug
137. Before giving a person a solid dose form, you should have the person
a. eat some food
b. drink a small amount of water
c. drink a full glass of water
d. tilt his or her head back
Answer: drink a small amount of water
138. Topical Drug Absorption is affected by the following except
a. the time of application
b. how long the drug is in contact with the skin
c. skin thickness
d. amount of water in the tissues
Answer: the time of application
139. a topical drug is applied to debride a wound. Debriding is done to
a. relieve itching
b. provide a protective barrier to the skin
c. reduce inflammation
d. promote healing
Answer: promote healing
140. Which of the following do you shake and has watery preparation?
a. cream
b. lotion
c. ointment
d. powder
Answer: lotion
141. Lotions are used for the following reasons except
a. absorb moisture
b. soothe and protect the skin
c. relieve itching
d. cleanse the skin
Answer: absorb moisture
142. Which topical dose form is dabbed on?
a. cream
b. lotion
c. ointment
d. powder
Answer: lotion
143. These statements are about applying powder. Which is false?
a. you shake or sprinkle powder onto the person
b. powder is applied in a thin layer
c. powder is slippery and can cause falls
d. after applying powder you smooth over the area for even coverage.
Answer: you shake or sprinkle powder onto the person
144. Before applying a topical dose form, ALWAYS
a. provide for the person's privacy
b. follow isolation precautions
c. shave the application site
d. clip hair at the application site
Answer: provide for the person's privacy
145. An ointment is in a jar. What should you use to remove the amount ordered?
a. your hand
b. a sterile tongue blade
c. a syringe
d. a measuring spoon
Answer: a sterile tongue blade
146. These statements are about nitro-glycerine ointment and transdermal drug delivery systems.
Which is FALSE?
a. an old application is removed before applying a new one
b. you rub or massage the ointment into the skin
c. the application site is rotated
d. the drug is applied to the skin site with little or no hair
Answer: you rub or massage the ointment into the skin
147. Which is used to measure the ordered dose of nitroglycerin ointment?
a. a measuring spoon
b. medicine cup
c. dose-measuring paper
d. transdermal patch
Answer: dose-measuring paper
148. Eye drops are ordered you should use
a. a syringe
b. a dropper from the supply cart
c. the dropper supplied by the drug manufacturer
d. a squeeze bottle.
Answer: the dropper supplied by the drug manufacturer
149. Which is NOT a position for giving eye medications?
a. supine
b. sitting
c. Fowler's
d. with the head over the edge of the mattress.
Answer: with the head over the edge of the mattress.
150. A drug order states that a medication is to be given "OS" what should you do?
a. give the drug to the left eye
b. give the drug to the right eye
c. give the drug to both eyes
d. check with the nurse
Answer: check with the nurse
151. After an eye ointment is applied, the person should
a. wipe eye
b. rub eye
c. close the eyes gently
d. stare straight ahead
Answer: close the eyes gently
152. Ear medications are given
a. cold
b. at room temperature
c. after being heated
d. directly from the refrigerator
Answer: at room temperature
153. What should you do to remove excess cerumen?
a. tongue blade
b. cotton-tipped applicator
c. gauze and saline
d. wet washcloth
Answer: wet washcloth
154. to instil a drug means to give
a. a puff by squeezing a tube
b. a spray by squeezing a container
c. it drop by drop
d. it in a strip fashion
Answer: it drop by drop
155. Ear drops are ordered for both ears. How long should you wait before giving ear drops in
the second ear?
a. no waiting is required
b. 1-5 minutes
c. 5-10 mins
d. 10-15 mins.
Answer: 5-10 mins
156. You inserted a cotton pledget after giving ear drops. How long should it remain in place?
a. 1 min
b. 5 mins
c. 10 mins
d. 15 mins
Answer: 15 mins
157. After receiving nose drops, how long should a patient remain in supine position?
a. 1 min
b. 5 mins
c. 10 mins
d. 15 mins
Answer: 5 mins
158. Which is the best position for giving nasal spray?
a. supine
b. side-lying
c. Fowler's
d. with hand over the edge of the mattress
Answer: Fowler's
159. To give a nasal spray, you give a puff of spray as the person
a. blows his or her nose
b. takes a deep breath
c. exhales deeply
d. holds his or her breath
Answer: takes a deep breath
160. Before a person uses a MDI spacer, you should
a. squeeze the dispensing valve to remove foreign objects
b. shake the MDI and spacer
c. ask the person to inhale
d. have the person rinse out his or her mouth with water
Answer: shake the MDI and spacer
161. The mouthpiece of an MDI spacer is
a. placed 1-2 inches in front of the persons mouth
b. placed 3-4 inches in front of the person mouth
c. positioned on the persons lips
d. placed in the persons mouth
Answer: placed in the persons mouth
162. After using the MDI, the person does the following EXCEPT
a. holds his or her breath for about 10 seconds
b. exhales slowly through the mouth
c. inhales more puffs immediately
d. rinses the mouth with water if a cortico-steroid was inhaled
Answer: inhales more puffs immediately
163. a cone-shaped, solid drug that is inserted into a body opening is called
a. tablet
b. foam
c. gel
d. suppository
Answer: suppository
164. For vaginal suppositories the client should be in an ___________ position.
a. lithotomy position
b. sims' position
c. left side-lying position
d. supine position
Answer: lithotomy position
165. After receiving a vaginal drug, the woman is positioned in
a. lithotomy position
b. sims' position
c. left side-lying position
d. supine position
Answer: supine position
166. To protect garments and bed linens after giving a vaginal drug, you can
a. apply a perineal pad of panty shield
b. place a waterproof pad under the buttocks
c. elevate the woman's hips on pillows
d. ask the woman to use a bed pan or toilet
Answer: apply a perineal pad of panty shield
167. To give a rectal drug, the person is positioned in
a. lithotomy position
b. sims' position
c. right side-lying position
d. supine position
Answer: Sims' position
168. Rectal suppositories usually melts in
a. 5-10 minutes
b. 15-20 minutes
c. 20-25 minutes
d. 25-30 minutes
Answer: 15-20 minutes
169. a rectal suppository can be given
a. for fever
b. after rectal surgery
c. after prostate surgery
d. if the person has diarrhea
Answer: for fever
170. Which is used to give a rectal suppository?
a. a gloved finger
b. an applicator provided by the manufacturer
c. a cotton-tipped applicator
d. enema tube
Answer: gloved finger
171. Nerve signals or impulses are caused by
a. neurons
b. synapses
c. agonists
d. neurotransmitters
Answer: neurotransmitters
172. Which is NOT an adrenergic agent?
a. levodopa
b. dopamine
c. epinephrine
d. norepinephrine
Answer: levodopa
173. Most adrenergic agents cause
a. vaso-constriction
b. vaso-dilation
c. broncho-spasm
d. hypotension
Answer: vaso-constriction
174. Beta-blocking agents are commonly used to treat
a. hypotension
b. hypertension
c. vaso-constriction
d. respiratory disorders
Answer: hypertension
175. When giving a beta blocker, you assist with assessment by
a. measuring heart rate and blood pressure
b. observing the color of urine
c. asking the person to use a pain rating scale
d. observing the person's level of alertness
Answer: measuring heart rate and blood pressure
176. Cholinergic agents are used in the treatment of
a. myocardial infarction
b. parkinsons disease
c. myasthenia gravis
d. heart failure
Answer: myasthenia gravis
177. Anti-cholinergic actions include the following EXCEPT
a. increasing the heart rate
b. drying respiratory secretions
c. increasing GI mobility
d. dilating the pupil
Answer: increasing GI mobility
178. Which of the following drugs is an anti-cholinergic?
a. carvedilol (Coreg)
b. terbutaline (Brethine)
c. bethanechol (Urecholine)
d. atropine (Atropine Sulfate)
Answer: atropine (Atropine Sulfate)
179. When giving an anticholinergic agent, you assist with assessment by
a. measuring heart rate and blood pressure
b. observing the color of urine
c. asking the person to use a pain rating scale
d. observing the person's level of alertness
Answer: measuring heart rate and blood pressure
180. Sedative-hypnotic drugs are used to
a. produce sleep
b. dry respiratory secretions before surgery
c. decrease drooling and tremors
d. stimulate the central nervous system
Answer: produce sleep
181. All of the following are barbiturates EXCEPT
a. phenobarbital (Luminal)
b. pentobarbital (Nembutal)
c. secobarbital (Seconal)
d. flurazepam (Dalmane)
Answer: flurazepam
182. The benzodiazepines are used for the following reasons except
a. to dry respiratory secretions
b. produce mild sedation
c. produce sleep
d. pre-operative sedation
Answer: to dry respiratory secretions
183. the following are benzodiazepines except
a. zolpidem (ambien)
b. lorazepam (Ativan)
c. estazolam (ProSom)
d. triazolam (halcion)
Answer: zolpidem (ambien)
184. Which drug is NOT used to promote sleep?
a. chloral hydrate (Aquachloral)
b. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
c. zaleplon (Sonata)
d. carbidopa, levodopa (Sinemet)
Answer: carbidopa, levodopa (Sinemet)
185. Which is a common side effect of drugs used to treat Parkinson's?
a. drooling
b. rigid, stiff muscles
c. orthostatic hypotension
d. tremors
Answer: orthostatic hypotension
186. Signs and symptoms of Parkinson's are caused by a deficiency of
a. levodopa
b. dopamine
c. carbidopa
d. norepinephrine
Answer: dopamine
187. The following drugs are used to treat Parkinson's EXCEPT
a. pramipexole (Mirapex)
b. ropinirole (Requip)
c. secobarbital (Seconal)
d. selegiline (Eldepryl)
Answer: secobarbital (Seconal)
188. Drugs used to treat Parkinson's
a. depress the CNS
b. increase the amount of dopamine available to brain cells
c. cure the disease
d. inhibit the use of dopamine
Answer: increase the amount of dopamine available to brain cells
189. a state of severe mental impairment is called
a. anxiety
b. depression
c. mood disorder
d. psychosis
Answer: psychosis
190. Many of the drugs used to treat mental disorders affect the
a. CNS
b. endocrine system
c. respiratory system
d. cardiovascular system
Answer: CNS
191. Which of the following are used to treat anxiety?
a. benzodiazepines
b. monoamine oxidase inhibitors
c. selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors
d. anti-manic agents
Answer: benzodiazepines
192. the following drugs are used to treat anxiety EXCEPT
a. alprozolam (Xanax)
b. diazepam (Valium)
c. clorazepate (tranxene)
d. fluoxetine (Prozac)
Answer: fluoxetine (Prozac)
193. the following drugs are used to treat anxiety EXCEPT
a. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
b. paroxetine (Paxil)
c. hydroxyzine (Atarax)
d. fluvoxamine (Luvox)
Answer: paroxetine (Paxil)
194. Which of the following is used to produce sedation before surgery?
a. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
b. chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
c. lorazepam (Ativan)
d. clorazepate (tranxene)
Answer: hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
195. Mood disorders are treated with
a. anti-anxiety meds
b. anti-depressants
c. anti-psychotic
d. sedative-hypnotics
Answer: anti-depressants
196. Which of the following have severe side effects when taken with aged cheese and other
foods?
a. monamine oxidase inhibitors
b. tri-cyclics
c. selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors
d. benzodiazepines
Answer: monamine oxidase inhibitors
197. The last does of an MAOI is usually given no later than
a. 1400
b. 1600
c. 1800
d. 2000
Answer: 1800
198. What is the most common side effect of an MAOI?
a. orthostatic hypotension
b. sedation
c. insomnia
d. mouth dryness
Answer: orthostatic hypotension
199. Which of the following is an MAOI?
a. doxepin
b. fluoxtine
c. sertraline
d. phenelzine
Answer: phenelzine (Nardil)
200. Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors are used to treat
a. anxiety
b. depression
c. bipolar disorder
d. schizophrenia
Answer: depression
201. How long does it usually take to see the effects of SSRIs?
a. 1 week
b. 1-2 weeks
c. 2-4 weeks
d. 4-6 weeks
Answer: 2-4 weeks
202. Which is an SSRI?
a. sertraline
b. amitriptyline hydrochloride
c. phenelzine
d. doxepin
Answer: sertraline
203. Which is not an anti-depressant?
a. bupropion hydrochloride
b. mirtazapine
c. buspirone
d. trazodone hydrochloride
Answer: buspirone
204. Which is an anti-manic agent?
a. lithium carbonate
b. paroxetine
c. fluoxetine
d. sertraline
Answer: lithium carbonate
205. Anti-Manic agents are used to treat
a. psychosis
b. bipolar disorder
c. anxiety
d. depression
Answer: bipolar disorder
206. The full effect of anti-manic agents are usually seen in
a. 5-7 days
b. 7-14 days
c. 10-21 days
d. 6 months
Answer: 10-21 days
207. Lithium can cause a loss of
a. sodium
b. calories
c. protein
d. potassium
Answer: sodium
208. The most common psychotic disorder is
a. hallucinations
b. delusions
c. schizophrenia
d. PTSD
Answer: schizophrenia
209. Anti-psychoitc drugs often cause
a. involuntary muscle movements
b. severe hypertension
c. suicidal actions
d. sedation
Answer: involuntary muscle movements
210. The following are anti-psychotic agents EXCEPT
a. diazepam
b. chlorpromazine
c. prochlorperazine
d. haloperidol
Answer: diazepam
211. a body part may jerk. The person does not lose consciousness. This is
a. epilepsy
b. partial seizure
c. generalized seizure
d. petit mal seizure
Answer: partial seizure
212. Anti-convulsant drugs control seizures by affecting
a. neurons in the brain
b. nerves in the central nervous system
c. voluntary muscles
d. involuntary muscles
Answer: neurons in the brain
213. Seizure treatment must always contain
a. anti-convulsant therapy
b. benzodiazepines
c. the cause of the seizures
d. treatment of epilepsy
Answer: the cause of the seizures
214. Which is a benzodiazepine?
a. diazepam
b. ethotoin
c. phenytoin
d. ethosuximide
Answer: diazepam
215. When giving a benzodiazepine you must
a. give the drug with food or milk
b. provide for safety
c. give good oral hygiene
d. measure blood pressure
Answer: provide for safety
216. Succinimides are given
a. with food or milk
b. at bedtime
c. before meals
d. after meals
Answer: with food or milk
217. Before giving carbamazepine, you
a. measure blood glucose
b. give good oral hygiene
c. measure weight
d. give the person food.
Answer: Measure weight
218. When giving most anti-convulsant, you observe the following EXCEPT
a. the persons speech pattern
b. urine color
c. degree of alertness
d. orientation to the person, time, and place
Answer: urine color
219. Which drug's dosage is based on the person's body weight?
a. valproic acid
b. tiagabine
c. topiramate
d. zonisamide
Answer: valproic acid
220. Which are given to reduce fever?
a. opiate agonists
b. salicylates
c. methadone-like derivatives
d. opiate partial agonists
Answer: salicylates
221. The following are opiate agonists EXCEPT
a. codeine and morphine sulfate
b. oxycontin and Percodan
c. Talwin and Darvon
d. Dilaudid and Demerol
Answer: Talwin and Darvon
222. Which are the strongest anti-lipemic drugs?
a. bile acid-binding resins
b. fibric acids
c. statins
d. Zetia and Omacor
Answer: statins
223. Common side effects of anti-lipemic drugs are
a. chest pain
b. nausea
c. hypotension
d. dizziness
Answer: nausea
224. In a normal cardiac cycle, the impulse starts in the
a. atria
b. SA node
c. AV node
d. bundle of His
Answer: SA node
225. Another term for dysrhythmia is
a. Tachycardia
b. Arrhythmia
c. Bradycardia
d. Hypertension
Answer: Arrhythmia
226. Which dysrhythmia has more P waves than QRS complexes?
a. sinus tachycardia
b. premature atrial contractions
c. atrial flutter
d. atrial fibrillation
Answer: atrial flutter
227. dysrhythmia that develop above the bundle of His are called
a. sinus dysrhythmias
b. premature contractions
c. junctional rhythms
d. supra-ventricular dysrhythmias
Answer: supra-ventricular dysrhythmias
228. Ventricular dysrhythmias develop
a. in the SA node
b. in the AV node
c. above the bundle of His
d. below the bundle of His
Answer: below the bundle of His
229. Which is NOT considered life threatening?
a. atrial fibrillation
b. premature ventricular contractions
c. ventricular tachycardia
d. ventricular fibrillation
Answer: atrial fibrillation
230. Intra-nasal cortico-steroids are given to
a. liquify secretions
b. ease breathing
c. reduce sedation
d. reduce inflammation
Answer: reduce inflammation
231. Intra-nasal cortico-steroids are given to treat
a. common cold
b. emphysema
c. allergic rhinitis
d. rhinitis medicamentosa
Answer: allergic rhinitis
232. intra-nasal cortico-steroids are given to reduce the following except
a. nasal burning
b. itching
c. rhinorrhea
d. sneezing
Answer: nasal burning
233. Which liquify mucus?
a. anti-inflammatory
b. antitussives
c. broncho-dilators
d. expectorants
Answer: expectorants
234. Broncho-dilators are given to
a. promote a productive cough
b. ease breathing
c. liquify secretions
d. dry secretions
Answer: ease breathing
235. A person has other drugs ordered with the antacids. the drugs are given
a. with the antacids
b. 30 mins before
c. 30 mins after
d. 1 hour before OR 2 hours after
Answer: 1 hour before OR 2 hours after
236. an antacid is high in sodium and should observe for signs and symptoms such as
a. heart failure
b. diabetes
c. asthma
d. urinary retention
Answer: heart failure
237. Histamine receptor antagonists result in
a. decreased amounts of gastric juices
b. a low pH of stomach contents
c. increased GI motility
d. decreased GI motility
Answer: decreased amounts of gastric juices
238. Histamine receptor antagonists are given
a. with food or milk
b. an empty stomach
c. with antacids
d. after meals
Answer: with food or milk
239. which is a (H2) receptor antagonist?
a. Tagemet
b. Maalox
c. Mylanta
d. Philips' milk of magnesia
Answer: Tagemet
240. Gastro-intestinal prostaglandins
a. form a substance that adheres to the crater of an ulcer
b. stimulate GI movement and motility
c. block the action of histamine
d. inhibit gastric secretion
Answer: inhibit gastric secretion
241. Which is a gastro- intestinal prostaglandins?
a. Di-Gel
b. cimetidine
c. Cytotec
D. carafate
Answer: Cytotec
242. Which is NOT a proton pump inhibitor?
a. Pepcid AC
b. Nexium
c. Prilosec
d. Prevacid
Answer: Pepcid AC
243. When giving a proton pump inhibitor, the dose form
a. should be swallowed whole
b. can be opened
c. can be crushed
d. can be chewed
Answer: should be swallowed whole
244. Coating agents can cause
a. diarrhea
b. heartburn
c. constipation
d. urinary retention
Answer: constipation
245. Metoclopramide is given
a. 30 mins before meals and at bedtime
b. with food or milk
c. on an empty stomach
d. after meals
Answer: 30 mins before meals and at bedtime
246. The effects of anti-spasmodic agents occur
a. in the esophagus
b. in the stomach
c. in the intestines
d. throughout the body
Answer: throughout the body
247. Anti-spasmodic agents result in
a. decreased gastric juices and decreased GI mobility
b. increased gastric juices and increased GI mobility
c. decreased amounts of histamine
d. increased amounts of histamines
Answer: decreased gastric juices and decreased GI mobility
248. Which is an anti-spasmodic agent?
a. Aciphex
b. Atropnie
c. Riopan
d. Zantac
Answer: Atropnie
249. Which can cause a chalky taste in the mouth?
a. antacids
b. coating agents
c. anti-spasmodics
d. gastro-intestinal prostaglandins
Answer: antacids
250. Which can cause mental disturbances?
a. antacids
b. coating agents
c. anti-spasmodics
d. gastro-intestinal prostaglandins
Answer: anti-spasmodics
251. Emesis means
a. diarrhea
b. constipation
c. retching or griping
d. vomiting
Answer: vomiting
252. Drugs that cause bowel evacuation are called
a. anti-diarrheals
b. anti-emetics
c. laxatives
d. enemas
Answer: laxatives
253. Which is a phenothiazine used to control vomiting?
a. prochlorperazine
b. haloperidol
c. trimethobenzamide
d. dimenhydrinate
Answer: prochlorperazine
254. Which is often used to control motion sickness?
a. prochlorperazine
b. haloperidol
c. trimethobenzamide
d. dimenhydrinate
Answer: dimenhydrinate
255. Benzodiazepines are used to prevent nausea and vomiting from chemotherapy because they
also
a. control diarrhea
b. reduce anxiety
c. improve alertness
d. improve memory
Answer: reduce anxiety
256. Stimulant laxatives
a. cause an irritation that promotes peristalsis
b. draw water into the intestine
c. contains oils
d. draw water into the feces
Answer: cause an irritation that promotes peristalsis
257. Which maintain fluid and electrolyte balance?
a. androgens
b. estrogen
c. gluco-corticoids
d. mineralocorticoids
Answer: mineralocorticoids
258. Which have anti-inflammatory, anti-allergenic, and immuno-suppressant activity?
a. androgens
b. estrogens
c. testosterone
d. mineralocorticoids
Answer: androgens
259. Oral glucocorticoids are given
a. before meals
b. with meals
c. after meals
d. at bedtime
Answer: with meals
260. Corticosteroids may cause signs and symptoms of
a. electrolyte embalance
b. masculine characteristics
c. infection and inflammation
d. allergies
Answer: electrolyte embalance
261. A person has a history of mental health problems. Behavior changes may occur when taking
a. corticosteroids
b. estrogens
c. progestins
d. androgens
Answer: corticosteroids
262. Estrogen may be used in the treatment of the following except
a. menopause
b. some types of breast cancer
c. advanced prostate cancer
d. endometriosis
Answer: advanced prostate cancer
263. Progestins are used for the following except
a. breast cancer in post-menopausal women
b. contraception
c. endometriosis
d. abnormal uterine bleeding
Answer: breast cancer in post-menopausal women
264. Male hormones are lacking, what is this called?
a. androgen deficiency
b. eunuchism
c. hypogonadism
d. priapism
Answer: eunuchism
265. Contraceptives are used to
a. prevent pregnancy
b. treat BPH
c. treat erectile dysfunction
d. prevent leukorrhea
Answer: prevent pregnancy
266. Combination oral contraceptives contain
a. estrogen only
b. progestin only
c. estrogen and progestin
d. progestin and testosterone
Answer: estrogen and progestin
267. Combination oral contraceptives are packaged with 28 tablets. The last 7 contain
a. estrogen
b. progestin
c. testosterone
d. no hormones
Answer: no hormones
268. Mini-pill oral contraceptives are packaged with 28 tablets in which all contain
a. estrogen
b. progestin
c. testosterone
d. no hormones
Answer: progestin
269. Which oral contraceptive results in 4 periods in one year?
a. mono-phasic
b. bi-phasic
c. tri-phasic
d. seasonale
Answer: seasonale
270. The following are side effects of contraceptives. Which may signal serious problems?
a. weight gain
b. break through bleeding
c. leg pain
d. vaginal discharge
Answer: leg pain
271. A transdermal contraceptive can be applied to the following areas EXCEPT
a. breast
b. arm
c. butt
d. abdomen
Answer: breast
272. Tamsulosin is used to treat BPH. It
a. caused muscles to relax so blood can fill erectile tissue
b. causes muscles to relax to allow greater urine flow
c. reduced cell growth
d. inhibits estrogen secretion
Answer: causes muscles to relax to allow greater urine flow
273. Which drug is NOT used to treat erectile dysfunction?
a. tadalafil
b. vardenafil
c. finasteride
d. sildenafil
Answer: finasteride
274. Cystitis is an inflammation of the
a. bladder
b. kidney pelvis
c. prostate
d. urethra
Answer: kidney pelvis
275. which does not occur in OAB syndrome?
a. urgency
b. frequency
c. incontinence
d. diuresis
Answer: diuresis
276. Drugs given for OAB syndrome can cause
a. numbness and tingling in the arms and legs
b. rust brown to yellow urine
c. dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision
d. hematuria and nocturia
Answer: dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision
277. Two types of eye drops are ordered. You apply the first type. How long do you wait for the
second?
a. at least 5 minutes
b. 1 hour
c. 30 mins
d. a few hours
Answer: at least 5 minutes
278. a person has glaucoma. the goal of the drug is to
a. prevent infection
b. reduce intra-ocular pressure
c. reverse blindness
d. restore normal vision
Answer: reduce intra-ocular pressure
279. Cholinergic agents and cholinesterase inhibitors may cause
a. increased intra-ocular pressure
b. infection
c. problems seeing at night
d. kidney failure
Answer: problems seeing at night
280. Adrengeric agents
a. dilate pupils
b. increase intra-ocular pressure
c. cause problems seeing at night
d. cause heart failure
Answer: dilate pupils
281. Beta-adrenergic blocking agents
a. decrease intra-ocular pressure
b. increase intra-ocular pressure
c. dilate pupils
d. constrict pupils
Answer: decrease intra-ocular pressure
282. Prostaglandin agonists
a. decrease intra-ocular pressure
b. increase intra-ocular pressure
c. dilate pupils
d. constrict pupils
Answer: decrease intra-ocular pressure
283. Anti-cholinergics
a. lubricate the eyes
b. prevent infection
c. cause problems seeing at night
d. cause sensitivity to bright lights
Answer: cause sensitivity to bright lights
284. corticosteroids are used
a. to increase intra-ocular pressure
b. to decrease intra-ocular pressure
c. before and after cataract surgery
d. to treat allergic reactions of the eye
Answer: to treat allergic reactions of the eye
285. Artificial tears are used to
a. treat allergies
b. dilate the pupils
c. constrict the pupils
d. lubricate the eyes
Answer: lubricate the eyes
286. Which is NOT a warning sign of cancer?
a. painful, swollen joints
b. a sore that does not heal
c. unusual bleeding or discharge
d. discomfort after eating
Answer: painful, swollen joints
287. Chemotherapy is most effective
a. when the tumor is first diagnosed
b. after surgery
c. after radiation
d. when the tumor is small
Answer: when the tumor is small
288. A person receiving chemo will likely experience
a. diarrhea
b. burns
c. skin breakdown
d. weight gain
Answer: skin breakdown
289. An involuntary muscle contraction of sudden onset is called
a. clonus
b. hyperreflexia
c. spasm
d. jerk
Answer: spasm
290. The rapidly alternating involuntary contraction and relaxation of the skeletal muscles is
called
a. clonus
b. spasm
c. jerking
d. hyperreflexia
Answer: clonus
291. Centrally Acting Skeletal Muscle Relaxants act
a. directly on the muscles
b. depressing the CNS
c. inhibiting reflex activity at the spinal chord
d. by blocking nerve impulses
Answer: depressing the CNS
292. All centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants cause some degree of
a. confusion
b. orthostatic hypotension
c. sedation
d. spasticity
Answer: sedation
293. The goal of therapy for central acting muscle relaxants is relief of
a. clonus
b. muscle spasm
c. jerking
d. hyperreflexia
Answer: muscle spasm
294. which has a dose form of orally disintegrating tablets
a. dantrolene
b. baclofen
c. carisoprodol
d. tizanidine
Answer: baclofen
295. Which is not a centrally acting muscle relaxant?
a. dantrolene
b. cyclobenzaprine
c. methocarbamol
d. carisoprodol
Answer: dantrolene
296. Direct-acting skeletal muscle relaxants decrease
a. clonus, hyperreflexia and muscle spasm
b. cerebral palsy and multiple sclerosis
c. spinal cord injury
d. photo-sensitivity, sedation, and drowsiness
Answer: clonus, hyperrelfexia and muscle spasm
297. Allopurinol is given for gout. The initial adult dose is
a. 100 mg
b. 200 mg
c. 300 mg
d. 400 mg
Answer: 100 mg
298. Persons receiving drug therapy for gout should be observed for
a. dysrhythmias
b. tremors
c. GI symptoms
d. confusion
Answer: GI symptoms
299. Microbes that grow in living cells are called
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. germs
d. viruses
Answer: viruses
300. Plants that live on other plants or animals are called
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. germs
d. viruses
Answer: fungi
301. Chemicals that eliminate pathogens are called
a. antibiotics
b. antimicrobials
c. antivirals
d. nonpathogens
Answer: antimicrobials
302. a person with a weakened immune system develops an infection. It is caused by a
nonpathogen. The person has
a. a bacterial infection
b. healthcare associated infection
c. opportunistic infection
d. secondary infection
Answer: opportunistic infection
303. a person is being treated for an infection. Another infection develops. This is called
a. bacterial infection
b. healthcare associated infection
c. opportunistic infection
d. secondary infection
Answer: secondary infection
304. To maintain blood levels of the drug, antimircobals are usually given
a. at regular intervals
b. at the same times everyday
c. every 6 hours
d. every 12 hours
Answer: at regular intervals
305. Which is NOT penicillin?
a. Amoxil
b. Cipro
c. Pincipen
d. trimox
Answer: Cipro
306. A common side effect of penicillin is
a. diarrhea
b. hearing loss
c. photo-toxicity
d. tingling
Answer: diarrhea
307. Anti-viral drugs used to treat HIV also are used to reduce the frequency of
a. hep B
b. Hep c
c. opportunistic infections
d. secondary infections
Answer: opportunistic infections
308. Nutrition is
a. fats, protein, carbs, vitamins, and minerals
b. many processes involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption and use of foods and fluid in
body
c. MyPyramid
d. balance between calories taken in and used in the body
Answer: many processes involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption and use of foods and
fluid in body
309. Vitamin A is needed for
a. vision
b. muscle tone
c. formation of red blood cells
d. healthy bones
Answer: vision
310. Vitamin B12 is needed for
a. nervous system function
b. growth
c. healthy eyes
d. digestive system
Answer: nervous system function
311. Vitamin K is needed for
a. blood clotting
b. resistance to infection
c. healthy bones
d. protein metablosim
Answer: blood clotting
312. Sodium is needed for
a. blood clotting
b. bone and teeth health
c. thyroid gland function
d. fluid balance
Answer: fluid balance
313. Which is needed for nerve and heart function?
a. phosphorus
b. iron
c. iodine
d. potassium
Answer: potassium
314. Enteral nutrition
a. requires an NG tube
b. is given into a central venous site
c. is given in the GI tract
d. requires IV
Answer: is given in the GI tract
315. For a tube feeding, the person is positioned in
a. Fowler's or semi-Fowler's position
b. left lying
c. right lying
d. supine
Answer: Fowler's or semi-Fowler's position
316. Which is an oral nutritional supplement?
a. Ensure
b. aloe
c. green tea
d. st. John's wort
Answer: Ensure
317. Drug is affected by many factors. All of the following affect drug action except:
a. The patient's intelligence.
b. the size and age
c. other drugs the resident is taking
d. time and route of adminstration
Answer: The patient's intelligence
318. Which abbreviations are most likely to be found on an order for eye medication?
a. IM, IV, SQ
b. Stat, n.p.o., h.s.
c. bid, qid, tid, qod
d. OD, OU, OS, opth.
Answer: OD, OU, OS, opth.
319. The drug name owned by the manufacturer is called the:
a. brand name
b. product name
c. trade name
d. all of the above
Answer: all of the above
320. Pharmacokinetics is the study of:
a. the study of prescription drugs only
b. the signs and symptoms of disease
c. the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs
d. none of the above
Answer: the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs
321. Examples of drugs made from animal sources are:
a. insulin and heparin
b. furosemide and castor oil
c. magnesium hydrochloride and iodine
d. iron and calcium
Answer: insulin and heparin
322. A patient may take two drugs for hypertension because of their:
a. antagonistic affect
b. potentiation
c. synergistic effect
d. idiosyncratic response
Answer: synergistic effect
323. Parmacodynamics is the study of:
a. drug sources
b. the medical field
c. the diseases of the body
d. the interactions between drugs and the body
Answer: the interactions between drugs and the body
324. The following abbreviations are correct except
a. b.i.d. means 2 times daily
b. n.p.o. means nothing by mouth
c. stat means now
d. q.i.d. means every other day
Answer: q.i.d. means every other day
325. Rules that ensure uniform strength, quality, and purity of drugs are called:
a. drug standards
b. drug references
c. drug laws
d. drug specifications
Answer: Drug standards
326. Biotransformation is:
a. a series of chemical reactions that occur naturally
b. the removal of waste products
c. the same as metabolism
d. a. and c.
Answer: a and c.
327. Examples of drugs made from plant sources are:
a. iron and salt
b. heparin and insulin
c. digitalis and opium
d. sulfa drugs and hydroxyurea
Answer: digitalis and opium
328. The generic name is usually the same as the:
a. brand name
b. chemical name
c. official name
d. trade name
Answer: official name
329. The action of a drug is:
a. a desireable effect that occurs apart from the primary purpose of giving the drug
b. the chemical effect on body cells
c. an unintenional effect of a drug
d. study of the body's responses to a drug
Answer: the chemical effect on body cells
330. The route of administration in which absorption begins in the mouth is:
a. oral
b. subcutaneous
c. intramuscular
d. sublingual
Answer: sublingual
331. Which of the following do not affect drug action?
a. sensation and perception
b. absorption and distribution
c. metabolism and excretion
d. condition of liver and kidneys
Answer: sensation and perception
332. The CMA responsibility in adverse reaction is to:
a. reduce the dose
b. change the medication
c. increase the dose
d. immediately notify the charge nurse
Answer: immediately notify the charge nurse
333. Name the 7 Rights of medication administration.
Answer: 1. right drug
2. right dose
3. right patient
4. right route
5. right time
6. right technique
7. right documentation
334. Which of the following statements are true?
a. In Kansas, it is legal for a CMA to give insulin injections.
b. In a long term-care facility in Kansas, a CMA may administer oral, eye, topical, nasal, rectal,
vaginal, and ear medication.
c. In Kansas it is legal for a CMA to take phone orders from a practitioner (physician assistance,
nurse practioner) dentist, or pharmacist.
d. You must perform a task that is assigned to you, even if you do not feel trained or competent
to perform the task.
Answer: In a long term-care facility in Kansas, a CMA may administer oral, eye, topical, nasal,
rectal, vaginal, and ear medication.
335. Name the five commonly abused drugs that are identified in the textbook.
Answer:
1. Alcohol
2. Nicotine
3. Anabolic Steroids
4. Barbiturates
5. Depressants
336. Summarize the difference between the therapeutic effect and side effects.
Answer: Therapeutic effect is the desire or predicted physiological response caused by a drug.
Side effects are desirable or undesirable drug effects apart from the primary purpose of giving a
drug
337. Where does the absorption begin for enteric coated pill?
a. in the mouth
b. in the small intestine
c. in the stomach
d. in the buccal cavity
Answer: in the small intestine
338. 3 of the following are true. Select the statement that is untrue:
a. In a nursing facility, the discontinued medications are disposed of every 2 months by the CMA
and charge nurse.
b. Unused doseage of medications should never be returned to the bottle.
c. The temperature of the medication room should never exceed 85 degrees.
d. A STAT order is to be administered at once.
Answer: In a nursing facility, the discontinued medications are disposed of every 2 months by
the CMA and charge nurse.
339. When giving a nasal spray to a resident, the nose piece needs to be cleaned off with a tissue:
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
340. People who administer medications must understand kidney function and disorders because:
a. kidneys are involved in the excretion of drugs
b. kidneys that do not work properly can result in the acculumation of drugs in the body many
older adults have kidneys disease
c. all of the above
Answer: all of the above
341. Which of the following Physicians orders are writen correctly?
a. Amoxicillin 500mg p.o. for 10 days
b. Potassium Chloride 8mEq 2 capsules p.o. daily
c. Coumadin 5 mg 1 p.o. daily
d. Senna Plus 1 tablet p.o. daily
Answer: Potassium Chloride 8mEq 2 capsules p. o. daily
342. After administering ear drops, the resident only needs a cotton ball in the ear canal?
a. True
b. False
Answer: False
343. When setting up medications, read the label at least?
a. 1 time
b. 2 times
c. 3 times
d. 4 times
Answer: 3 times
344. Ointment on an area that needs to be treated should be cleaned off first before more is
applied?
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
345. Which of the following conversions is incorrect?
a. 1/2 ounce = 20ml
b. 1 tsp = 5ml
c. 30ml = 1 ounce
d. 2 tsp = 10ml
Answer: 1/2 ounce = 20ml
346. If a resident refuses a narcotic that has been removed from the package, it is acceptable to
throw it in the trash can?
a. True
b. False
Answer: False
347. Which of the following would not be a medication error?
a. The medication was given 25 minutes after it was ordered
b. The eye medication order was 1 gtt O.U. daily. The medication aid gave the medication drops
in the right eye only.
c. The resident was given one tablet Lanoxin 0.125mg and he order was for Lanoxin 0.25mg
daily.
d. The right medication was given to the right resident but it was not given at the time on the
MAR.
Answer: The medication was given 25 minutes after it was ordered
348. Anyone administering eye drops to a resident should wear gloves?
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
349. All of the follow are necessary steps to take when a medication error has been made except?
a. Report the error to your supervisior immediately
b. Contact the resident's family and inform them of your error
c. Complete the medication error form
d. Review why the medication error was made and what can be done to prevent it from
happening again
Answer: Contact the resident's family and inform them of your error
350. It is legal for a Medication Aide to do the following procedures except?
a. mediation soaks
b. simple dressing changes
c. application of heating pads
d. assist with inhailors
Answer: application of heating pads
351. After installing eye gtts (drops), pressure is held to the lacrimal sac (tear duct) for how
long?
a. 15 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 1 minute
d. 2 minute
Answer: 1 minute
352. The order for Keflex is 500mg. Keflex comes in capsules or suspension which would be an
incorrect dosage?
a. Give 1/2 of a 1000mg capsule
b. Give 2 250mg capsules
c. Keflex suspension has 250ml per 5ml. The CMA would give 10ml of the suspension
d. Keflex suspension hs 1000mg per 20ml. The CMA would give 10ml of the suspension
Answer: Give 1/2 of a 1000mg capsule
353. When a tablet is given sublingual, the absorption begins in the mouth?
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
354. As a CMA you can give nebulizer treatments to all residents at the job?
a. True
b. False
Answer: False
355. hat is the goal of medication therapy?
a. to give CMA's a job
b. to benefit research
c. to achieve a therapetic affect
d. to meet Medicare guideline
Answer: to achieve a therapetic affect
356. A transdermal patch should be dated when placed on a resident.
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
357. Cynosis is caused by the lack of
a. oxygen in the blood
b. plasma in the blood
c. calcium in the blood
d. nutrients in the blood
Answer: oxygen in the blood
358. Digoxin slows and strengthens the heart by acting as a:
a. vasodilator
b. vasoconstriction
c. heart stimulant
d. anticoagulant
Answer: heart stimulant
359. Antiarrhymics:
a. act on pacemaker cell that controls the heartbeat
b. are heart depressants
c. reduce flutter and fibrillation
d. all of the above
Answer: all of the above
360. Nitroglycerin is a:
a. vasodilator
b. diuretic
c. coagulant
d. vasoconstrictor
Answer: vasodilator
361. Blood pressure increases as a result of:
a. thickening of the blood
b. thinning of the blood
c. narrowing of the blood vessels
d. widening of blood vessels
Answer: narrowing of the blood vessels
362. The risk factors for heart disease:
a. heredity
b. sedatary lifestyle
c. hypoglycemia
d. hyerchololesterolemia
e. all but hypoglycemia
f. smoking
Answer: all but hypoglycemia
363. The following are commonly prescribed to treat hypertension
a. lisinopril
b. norvasc
c. clonidine hydrochloride
d. all of the above
Answer: all of the above
364. The average adult blood pressure is:
a. 90/45
b. 160/100
c. 120/80
d. 100/60
Answer: 120/80
365. bleeding
Answer: hemorrhage
366. rapid heartbeat
Answer: tachycardia
367. shortness of breath (SOB)
Answer: dyspnea
368. swelling of the tissues
Answer: edema
369. chest pain
Answer: angina
370. irregular heartbeat
Answer: arrhythmia
371. The following are risk factors for heart disease:
a. heredity
b. sedentry lifestyle
c. hypoglycemia
d. hypercholesterolemia
e. a, b, d
f. a, c, d
Answer: a, b, d
372. Persons taking anticoagulants:
a. must have regular blood tests to adjust doseages
b. must be observed for bleeding
c. are likely to be taking heprin or coumadin
d. all of the above
Answer: all of the above
373. Lack of red blood cells and hemoglobin is called:
a. angina
b. Hodgkin's Disease
c. hypotension
d. anemia
Answer: anemia
374. All medications can be crushed and it will not alter their effectiveness:
a. True
b. False
Answer: False
375. Which is the most common medication give for a UTI (urinary tract infection)?
a. Pyridium
b. Penicillins
c. Sulfonamides
d. Diuretic
Answer: Sulfonamides
376. A patient is on a thiazide diuretics, there is a danger of excreting too much _____________
which could cause hypokalemia:
a. potassium
b. sodium
c. water
d. chloride
Answer: potassium
377. Nursing care related to diuretic therapy include all of the following except:
a. assess for homan's signs
b. assess for signs of electrolyte inbalances -nausea, dry mouth, thrist
c. assess for signs of orthostatic hypotension
d. assess for signs of hypokalemia
Answer: assess for homan's signs
378. Medications that are used to treat nausea and vomiting are called antiemetics. All of the
following are in this drug classification except:
a. prochlorperazine (Compazine)
b. meclazine (Antivert)
c. Dramine
d. amtiriptyline (Elavil)
Answer: amtiriptyline (Elavil)
379. The following medications are in the diuretic classification. Check all that are correct:
a. bumentanide
b. furosemide
c. allopurinol
d. dyazide (Generic Name: hydrochlorothiazide and triamterene)
Answer: bumetanide
furosemide
dyazide
380. Which drug is used to treat edema?
a. cardiac gylcosides
b. analgesics
c. urinary antiseptics
d. diuretic
Answer: diuretic
381. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about oxygen therapy?
a. Oxygen per simple mask must be delivered at 5-6 LPM to prevent carbon dioxide washout
b. Oxygen is a medicane and needs to have a Physician order
c. oxygen must never be stopped suddenly, it must be weaned
d. combustible materials must be kept away from oxygen
Answer: Oxygen per simple mask must be delivered at 5-6 LPM to prevent carbon dioxide
washout
382. What is the action of bronchodilators?
a. to decrease the histamine effects of allergens
b. to lower the blood glucose levels
c. to relax the bronchioles and increase mucus clerance
d. to prevent infections
Answer: to relax the bronchioles and increase mucus clerance
383. An example of a laxative that takes 12 hours to 3 days to be effective is:
a. senokot (senna)
b. Metamucil (psyllium)
c. colace (docusate sodium)
d. milk of magnesia
Answer: Metamucil (psyllium)
384. Which of the following drug classifications are used to treat runny noses?
a. expectorants
b. anticoagulants
c. antihistamine
d. antitussives
Answer: antihistamine
385. Antitussives are used for:
a. for the control of nonproductive coughs
b. for acute pulomary edema
c. to reduce intraocular pressure
d. to prevent infections
Answer: for the control of nonproductive coughs
386. Blood and pus in the urine:
a. are revealed by urine tests
b. may be signs of disorders in the kidney
c. are known as hematuria and pyuria
d. all of the above
Answer: all of the above
387. Prevacid, Nexium, Protonix, Prilosec
Answer: Proton Pump inhibitors
388. simethicone, Mylicon
Answer: Antiflalents
389. Ducolax, Metamucil, Colace
Answer: laxatives
390. Tagamet, Axid, Pepacid,
Answer: Histamine H2-Receptor Antagonists
391. Zofran, Dramamine, Compazine, Antivert
Answer: Antiemetics
392. Lomotil
Answer: Antidiarrheals
393. Shaking, stiffness, and slowness of movements is classic signs of;
a. parkinson's disease
b. epilepsy
c. brain tumor
d. meniere's disease
Answer: parkinson's disease
394. Drugs that dilate the pupil are called?
a. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
b. antibiotics
c. cyctoplegics
d. mydriatics
Answer: mydriatics
395. An eye disorder that is characterized by increased interocular pressure is:
a. conjunctivitis
b. blepharitis
c. glucoma
d. hordeolum
Answer: glucoma
396. Always give analgesics:
a. after the last dose has worn off
b. on time to keep the patient as comfortable as possible.
c. only when the patient seem to be in pain
d. at bedtime
Answer: on time to keep the patient as comfortable as possible.
397. A Cardiovascular accident is:
a. a disorder of the ear
b. a interuption of the blood supply (blood clot) to the brain with tissue death in a protion of the
brain
c. a sign of psychosis
d. a nerve disease
Answer: a interuption of the blood supply (blood clot) to the brain with tissue death in a protion
of the brain
398. As a result of aging process, the sclera becomes?
a. white
b. yellow
c. red
d. pink
Answer: yellow
399. The medical term for dizziness is:
a. stupor
b. psychosis
c. coma
d. vertigo
Answer: Vertigo
400. Cereum is:
a. increased pressure in the eye
b. one of the bone of the ear
c. ear wax
d. the instrument used to view within the ear
Answer: ear wax
401. Dilatin, Depakote, and Tegretol are:
a. antianxiety
b. antipsychotic
c. sedatives
d. anticonvulsants
Answer: anticonvulsants
402. A drug used to treat Parkinson's disease is:
a. Aricept
b. Sinemet (carbidopa/levodpa)
c. Dilantin (phenytoin)
d. Neurotin (garbapentin)
Answer: Sinemet (carbidopa/levodpa)
403. Diplopia is:
a. a bacterial infection of the eyelid
b. double vision
c. a hard cyst on the eyelid
d. increased pressure within the eye
Answer: double vision
404. Isopto or artificial tears are given for:
a. treat reddened eyes
b. relieve inter occular pressure with Glucoma
c. treat dry eyes
d. prevent infections
Answer: treat dry eyes
405. Two main side effects of Antidepressant medications are:
a. dry mouth and constipation
b. urine incontience and flight of ideas
c. increased ability to concentrate and remember
d. hypertension and bradycardia
Answer: dry mouth and constipation
406. Namenda, Razadyne, Aricept, and Exelon are medications used to treat:
a. Seizure Disorder
b. Myasthema Gravis
c. Multiple Sclerosis
d. Alzheimer's
Answer: Alzheimer's
407. Ringing in the ear is:
a. Presbycusis
b. Vertigo
c. Tinitus
d. Cerumen
Answer: Tinitus
408. If the eye drop lands on the outer eyelid when administering eye drops:
a. never administer another drop
b. ask the resident if they want another drop
c. repeat administering the drop
d. take a cotton tip and push the drop into the eye
Answer: repeat administering the drop
409. The CMA should apply pressure to the lacrimal sac for 1 minute after administering:
a. Diamox
b. Auralgan drops
c. Timopitic drops
d. Afrin Spray
Answer: Timopitic drops
410. A disorder involving periodic seizures or convulsions is called:
a. dipolpia
b. Parkinson's Disease
c. epilepsy
d. multiple sclerosis
Answer: epilepsy
411. All of the following are used to treat Glaucoma except:
a. Diamox
b. Pilocarpine
c. Cosopt
d. Cernumenex
Answer: Cernumenex
412. The following antidepressants are not recommend to be given to the elderly:
a. Zoloft and Lexapro
b. Celexa and Trazadone
c. Wellbutrin and Effexor
d. Elavil and Tofranil
Answer: Elavil and Tofranil
413. Join pain and stiffness caused by wear and tear of bone rubbing together is known as:
a. osteoarthritis
b. osteoporosis
c. rhuematoid arthritis
d. gouty arthritis
Answer: osteoarthritis
414. Methocarbarmol (Robaxin), Para Forte, and cyclobenzapine (Flexeril) are types of:
a. analegics
b. muscle relaxants
c. corticosteroids
d. anti-inflammatory
Answer: muscle relaxants
415. A sign that a resident has taken too much aspirin is?
a. a ringing in the ears
b. increased joint pain
c. severe itching
d. all of the above
Answer: a ringing in the ears
416. In a Diabetic extreme hunger, sweating, confusion, palpitations, and restlessness during
sleep may be signs of:
a. insulin underdose
b. diabetic coma
c. hypoglycemia
d. glycsouria
Answer: hypoglycemia
417. Nursing care related to corticosteroids includes assessing for the following side effects
except:
a. weight gain and edema
b. fever and sore throat
c. muscle weakness and elevated blood glucose
d. increased urine output and headache
Answer: increased urine output and headache
418. A drug-drug interaction with aspirin occurs with:
a. albuterol
b. actos
c. Cardizem
d. coumadin (warfarin)
Answer: coumadin (warfarin)
419. Drugs that increase blood sugars levels include all of the following except:
a. Nicotine
b. corticosteroids
c. estrogen
d. sulfonamides
Answer: sulfonamides
420. Zyloprim (allopurinol) is used to treat:
a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. gout
c. bursitis
d. synovitis
Answer: gout
421. Drugs used to treat hypothyroidism:
a. Glucagon, Lantus insulin
b. Synthroid, Cytomel, levothroid
c. predisone, decadron, methylprednisotone
d. Dubinese, Orinase, Tolinse
Answer: Synthroid, Cytomel, levothroid
422. The drug of choice for osteoarthritis is:
a. Mortin (ibuprofen)
b. aspirin
c. Naprosyn
d. cholchicine
Answer: aspirin
423. Oral corticosteroids are sometimes given to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis.
What side effects limit their usefulness?
a. bone thinning
b. psychological changes
c. peptic ulcers
d. all of the above
Answer: all of the above
424. Because patients with musculoskeletal conditions are often in pain, be sure to:
a. give medications for pain only several hours after the last does has worn off
b. ignore their fears and psychological needs so that they do not dwell on them
c. have them exercise the joint prior to giving pain medications
d. avoid sudden, jarring movements, support body parts if they must be moved and give pain
medications before the last dose has worn off
Answer: avoid sudden, jarring movements, support body parts if they must be moved and give
pain medications before the last dose has worn off
425. Predisone and dexamethasone are frequently used because of their:
a. anti-inflammatory effect
b. diuretic effect
c. antipyretic effect
d. antineoplastic action
Answer: anti-inflammatory effect
426. Which of the following are not an oral hypoglycemic agent?
a. rosiglitazone
b. metformin
c. Lyrica
d. orinase
Answer: Lyrica
427. Insulin is produced by the:
a. Brain
b. Pancreas
c. Gallbladder
d. Parathyroid glands
Answer: Pancreas
428. The resident has Levothroid 25 mcg tablets, but the dose is 75 mcg. How would the CMA
determine the right dose would be?
a. Give 2 tablets
b. Give 3 tablets
c. Give 4 tablets
d. Contact the charge nurse to see why the ordered dose is not available.
Answer: Give 3 tablets
429. The resident has Tylenol 1000 mg ordered, the floor stock Tylenol on hand is 325 mg
tablets. How many tablets do you give?
a. 1 tablets
b. 2 tablets
c. 2 1/2 tablets
d. Contact the Nurse to obtain 500 mg Tylenol tablets (extra strength Tylenol), give 2 tablets.
Answer: Contact the Nurse to obtain 500 mg Tylenol tablets (extra strength Tylenol), give 2
tablets.
430. 3 factors that affect drug absorption
Answer: age, weight, sex
431. Expectorant
Answer: Helps to cough up phlegm
