2019 ATI RN Maternal Newborn Practice Exam Version 1-4 With Answers-462 Solved Questions

ATI RN MATERNAL NEW BORN OB EXAM
VERSION 1
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has uterine atony & is experiencing postpartum
hemorrhage. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?
Answer: Massage the client’s fundus.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive oxytocin to augment her labor. Which of the
following findings contraindications the initiation of the oxytocin infusion & should be
reported to the provider?
Answer: Late decelerations.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following
manifestations should the nurse expect?
Answer: Blurred vision.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postpartum & has a vaginal hematoma.
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Answer: Vaginal pressure.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation & has a positive contraction
stress test. The nurse should plan to prepare the client for which of the following diagnostic
tests?
Answer: Biophysical profile.
6. A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for combined oral
contraceptives. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as an adverse effect
of this medication?
Answer: Depression.
7. A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is receiving heparin via a continuous IV
infusion for thrombophlebitis in her left calf. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take?
Answer: Maintain the client on bed rest.

8. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation & has a new
prescription for misoprostol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in
the teaching?
Answer: “I can administer oxytocin 4 hours after the insertion of the medication.”
9. A nurse is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the nurse
report to the provider?
Answer: A newborn who is 18 hr old & has an axillary temperature of 37.7° C (99.9° F).
10. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation & has a prescription for
magnesium sulfate IV to treat preterm labor. The nurse should notify the provider of which of
the following adverse effects?
Answer: Respiratory rate 10/min.
11. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation about nutrition during
pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
Answer: “I should take 600 micrograms of folic acid each day.”
12. A nurse is assessing a late preterm newborn. Which of the following manifestations is an
indication of hypoglycemia?
Answer: Respiratory distress.
13. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is assessing a group of clients. Which of the following clients
should the nurse see first?
Answer: A client who is at 11 weeks of gestation & reports abdominal cramping.
14. A nurse is demonstrating to a client how to bathe her newborn. In which order should the
nurse perform the following actions?
Answer: Wipe the newborn's eyes from the inner canthus outward. Wash the newborn's neck
by lifting the newborn's chin. Cleanse the skin around the newborn's umbilical cord stump.
Wash the newborn's legs & feet. Clean the newborn's diaper area.

15. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about collecting a specimen for the universal
newborn screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the
teaching?
Answer: “Ensure that the newborn has been receiving feedings for 24 hours prior to
obtaining the specimen.”
16. A nurse is creating a plan of care for a client who is postpartum & adheres to traditional
Hispanic cultural beliefs. Which of the following cultural practices should the nurse include
in the plan of care?
Answer: Protect the client’s head & feet from cold air.
17. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born at 26 weeks of gestation using the New
Ballard Score. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Answer: Minimal arm recoil.
18. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, & just had
an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse’s priority following the
procedure?
Answer: Monitor the FHR.
19. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 16 hr old. Which of the following findings should
the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Substernal retractions.
20. A nurse is performing a physical assessment of a newborn upon admission to the nursery.
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? (SATA)
Answer: Acrocyanosis. Positive Babinksi reflex. Two umbilical arteries visible.
21. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preeclampsia & has a new prescription
for IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate
administering if the client develops magnesium toxicity?
Answer: Calcium gluconate.

22. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation & has a prescription for a
nonstress test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Answer: “You should press the handheld button when you feel your baby move.”
23. A nurse is providing education about family bonding to parents who recently adopted a
newborn. The nurse should make which of the following suggestions to aid in the family’s 7year-old child in accepting the new family member?
Answer: Obtain a gift from the newborn to present to the sibling.
24. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation & is undergoing a nonstress
test that reveals a variable deceleration in the FHR. Which of the following actions should the
nurse take?
Answer: Have the client change position.
25. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation during a weekly prenatal
visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Weight gain of 2.2 kg (4.8 lb).
26. A nurse is providing teaching for a client who gave birth 2 hours ago about the facility
policy for newborn safety. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
Answer: “The person who comes to take my baby’s pictures will be wearing a photo
identification badge.”
27. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via IV bolus for pain following a
cesarean birth. The nurse notes a respiratory rate of 8/min. Which of the following
medications should the nurse administer?
Answer: Naloxone.
28. A nurse is performing a routine assessment on a client who is at 18 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Answer: FHR 152/min.

29. A nurse in an antepartum clinic is providing care for a client who is at 26 weeks of
gestation. Upon reviewing the client’s medical record, which of the following findings should
the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Fundal height measurement.
30. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn who is to undergo phototherapy for
hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
Answer: Remove all clothing from the newborn except the diaper.
31. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was delivered vaginally & experienced a tight nuchal
cord. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Answer: Petechiae over the head.
32. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take prior to applying an external transducer for fetal monitoring?
Answer: Perform Leopold maneuvers.
33. A nurse is assessing a newborn 12 hr after birth. Which of the following manifestations
should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Jaundice.
34. A nurse is transporting a newborn back to the parent’s room following a procedure.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Answer: Verify that the parent’s identification band matches the newborn’s identification
band.
35. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation & has gonorrhea. The nurse
should identify that the client is at an increased risk for which of the following
complications?
Answer: Premature rupture of membranes.
36. A nurse is reviewing the prenatal laboratory results for a client who is at 12 weeks of
gestation following an initial prenatal visit. Which of the following laboratory findings
should the nurse report to the provider?

Answer: Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
37. A nurse in an antepartum clinic is assessing a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Report of decreased fetal movement.
38. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation & has a prescription for an
amniocentesis. For which of the following reasons should the nurse prepare the client for an
ultrasound?
Answer: To locate a pocket of fluid.
39. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 26 weeks of gestation & has epilepsy. The nurse
enters the room & observes the client having a seizure. After turning the client’s head to one
side, which of the following actions should the nurse take immediately after the seizure?
Answer: Administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask.
40. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 22 weeks of gestation & is HIV positive. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take?
Answer: Report the client’s condition to the local health department.
41. A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum & is receiving IV fluid
replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: BUN 25 mg/dL.
42. A nurse is caring for a prenatal client who has parvovirus B19 (fifth disease). Which of
the following actions should the nurse take?
Answer: Schedule an ultrasound examination.
43. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia & is receiving
magnesium sulfate via a continuous IV infusion. Which of the following interventions should
the nurse include in the plan?
Answer: Monitor the FHR continuously.

44. A nurse in a provider’s office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is in the first
trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a risk
factor for the development of preeclampsia?
Answer: Pregestational diabetes mellitus.
45. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the physiological changes that occur during
pregnancy. The client is at 10 weeks of gestation & has a BMI within the expected reference
range. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Answer: “I will likely need to use alternative positions for sexual intercourse.”
46. A nurse is performing a vaginal examination on a client who is in labor & observes the
umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. After calling for assistance, which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
Answer: Insert two gloved fingers into the vagina & apply upward pressure to the presenting
part.
47. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a cesarean birth 3 days ago.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Answer: “You can still become pregnant if you are breast feeding.”
48. A nurse is providing teaching about nonpharmacological pain management to a client who
is breast feeding & has engorgement. The nurse should recommend the application of which
of the following items?
Answer: Cold cabbage leaves.
49. A nurse is observing a new parent caring for her crying newborn who is bottle feeding.
Which of the following actions by the parent should the nurse recognize as a positive
parenting behavior?
Answer: Lays the newborn across her lap & gently sways.
50. A nurse is assessing a client who received carboprost for postpartum hemorrhage. Which
of the following findings is an adverse effect of this medication?
Answer: Hypertension.

51. A nurse is preparing to collect a blood specimen from a newborn via a heel stick. Which
of the following techniques should the nurse use to help minimize the pain of the procedure
for the newborn?
Answer: Place the newborn skin to skin on the mother’s chest.
52. A nurse is assessing a client who has gestational diabetes mellitus & is experiencing
hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Answer: Reports increased urinary output.
53. Leopold’s maneuver?
Answer: Two hands cupping sides of belly.
54. A nurse is admitting a client to the labor & delivery unit when the client states, “My water
just broke.” Which of the following interventions is the nurse’s priority?
Answer: Begin FHR monitoring.
55. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 24 weeks of gestation & has a suspected placental
abruption. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect the provider to
prescribe?
Answer: Kleihauer-Betke test.
56. A nurse is performing a physical assessment of a newborn. Which of the following
clinical findings should the nurse expect? (SATA)
Answer: • Heart rate 154/min.
• Respiratory rate 58/min.
• Weight 2,600 g (5 lb 12 oz).
57. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Report of visual disturbances.
58. A nurse is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV to a client who is in
preterm labor. Available is 20 g magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of dextrose 5% in water

(D5W). The nurse should set the IV infusion pump to administer how may mL/hr? (Round to
the nearest whole number)
Answer: 2/20 = 0.1 x 500 = 50 mL/hr.
59. A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor. The client admits to recent cocaine use. For
which of the following complications should the nurse assess?
Answer: Abruptio placenta.
60. A nurse is caring for a client who is anemic at 32 weeks of gestation & is in preterm labor.
The provider prescribed betamethasone 12 mg IM. Which of the following outcomes should
the nurse expect?
Answer: A reduction in respiratory distress in the newborn.
VERSION 2
1. Since 1995 there has been a significant decrease in the rate of infant death related to which
of the following:
A. Disorders associated with short gestation and low birth weight
B. Accidents
C. Sudden infant death
D. Newborns affected by complications of placenta, cord, and membranes
Answer: C. Sudden infant death
2. Tobacco use during pregnancy is associated with adverse effects on the unborn infant such
as intrauterine growth restriction, preterm births, and respiratory problems. By race, which
has the highest percentages of smokers?
A. American Indian and Alaskan Natives
B. Asian or Pacific Islanders
C. Non-Hispanic blacks
D. Non-Hispanic whites
Answer: A. American Indian and Alaskan Natives
3. Which of the following women is at the highest risk for health disparity?
A. A white, middle-class, 16-year-old woman

B. An African American, middle-class, 25-year-old woman
C. An African American, upper-middle-class, 19-year-old woman
D. An Asian, low-income, 30-year-old woman
Answer: D. An Asian, low-income, 30-year-old woman
4. A neonate born at 36 weeks gestation is classified as which of the following?
A. Very premature
B. Moderately premature
C. Late premature
D. Term
Answer: C. Late premature
5. The perinatal nurse explains to the student nurse that a goal of the Healthy People 2020
report is to:
A. Increase proportion of infants who are breastfed to 93.1%.
B. Increase proportion of infants who are breastfed to 90.7%.
C. Increase proportion of infants who are breastfed to 85.6%.
D. Increase proportion of infants who are breastfed to 83.9%.
Answer: D. Increase proportion of infants who are breastfed to 83.9%.
6. The perinatal nurse explains to the student nurse that __________ is the leading cause of
infant death in the United States.
A. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
B. Respiratory distress of newborns
C. Disorders related to short gestation and low birth weight
D. Congenital malformations and chromosomal abnormalities
Answer: D. Congenital malformations and chromosomal abnormalities
7. Which of the following statements are true related to teen pregnancies? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Teen mothers are at higher risk for HIV.
B. Teen mothers are at higher risk for hypertensive problems.
C. The birth rate for teenaged women has increased in the past 15 years.
D. Infants born to teen mothers are at higher risk for health problems.

Answer: A. Teen mothers are at higher risk for HIV.
B. Teen mothers are at higher risk for hypertensive problems.
D. Infants born to teen mothers are at higher risk for health problems.
Chapter 2: Ethics and Standards of Practice Issues
Multiple Choice
4. Infants whose mothers were obese during pregnancy are at higher risk for which of the
following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Childhood diabetes
B. Heart defects
C. Hypospadias
D. Respiratory distress
Answer: A. Childhood diabetes
B. Heart defects
C. Hypospadias
Rationale:
Fetuses and/or infants of women who were obese during pregnancy are at higher risk for
spina bifida, health defects, anorectal atresia, hypospadias, intrauterine fetal death, birth
injuries related to macrosomia, and childhood obesity and diabetes.
Chapter 3: Genetics, Conception, Fetal Development, and Reproductive Technology
Multiple Choice
1. The color of a person’s hair is an example of which of the following?
A. Genome
B. Sex-link inheritance
C. Genotype
D. Phenotype
Answer: D. Phenotype
Feedback:
A. Genome is an organism’s complete set of DNA.
B. Sex-link inheritance refers to genes or traits that are located only on the X chromosome.
C. Genotype refers to a person’s genetic makeup.

D. Correct. Phenotype refers to how genes are outwardly expressed, such as eye color, hair
color, and height.
3. The fetal circulatory structure that connects the pulmonary artery with the descending aorta
is known as which of the following?
A. Ductus venosus
B. Foramen ovale
C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Internal iliac artery
Answer: C. Ductus arteriosus
Feedback:
A. The ductus venosus connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava.
B. The foramen ovale is the opening between the right and left atria.
C. Correct.
D. The internal iliac artery connects the external iliac artery to the umbilical artery.
4. A woman at 40 weeks’ gestation has a diagnosis of oligohydramnios. Which of the
following statements related to oligohydramnios is correct?
A. It indicates that there is a 25% increase in amniotic fluid.
B. It indicates that there is a 25% reduction of amniotic fluid.
C. It indicates that there is a 50% increase in amniotic fluid.
D. It indicates that there is a 50% reduction of amniotic fluid.
Answer: D. It indicates that there is a 50% reduction of amniotic fluid.
Feedback:
A. Oligohydramnios is a decrease, not an increase in amniotic fluid.
B. Oligohydramnios is a 50% reduction in amniotic fluid.
C. Oligohydramnios is a decrease, not an increase in amniotic fluid.
D. Correct. Oligohydramnios refers to a decreased amount of amniotic fluid of less than 500
mL at term or 50% reduction of normal amounts.
5. A diagnostic test commonly used to assess problems of the fallopian tubes is:
A. Endometrial biopsy
B. Ovarian reserve testing
C. Hysterosalpingogram

D. Screening for sexually transmitted infections
Answer: C. Hysterosalpingogram
Feedback:
A. Endometrial biopsy provides information on the response of the uterus to hormonal
signals.
B. Ovarian reserve testing is used to assess ovulatory functioning.
C. Correct. Hysterosalpingogram provides information on the endocervical canal, uterine
cavity, and fallopian tubes.
D. STIs can cause adhesions within the fallopian tubes, but screening cannot confirm that
adhesions are present.
6. The nurse is interviewing a gravid woman during the first prenatal visit. The woman
confides to the nurse that she lives with a number of pets. The nurse should advise the woman
to be especially careful to refrain from coming in contact with the stool of which of the pets?
A. Cat
B. Dog
C. Hamster
D. Bird
Answer: A. Cat
Feedback:
A. The patient should refrain from coming in direct contact with cat feces. Cats often harbor
oxoplasmosis, a teratogenic illness.
B. No pathology has been associated with the feces of pet dogs.
C. No pathology has been associated with the feces of pet hamsters.
D. No pathology has been associated with the feces of pet birds.
7. A client is to take Clomiphene Citrate for infertility. Which of the following is the expected
action of this medication?
A. Decrease the symptoms of endometriosis
B. Increase serum progesterone levels
C. Stimulate release of FSH and LH
D. Reduce the acidity of vaginal secretions
Answer: C. Stimulate release of FSH and LH

8. The nurse takes the history of a client, G2 P1, at her first prenatal visit. The client is
referred to a genetic counselor, due to her previous child having a diagnosis of __________.
A. Unilateral amblyopia
B. Subdural hematoma
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Glomerular nephritis
Answer: C. Sickle cell anemia
9. A nurse is teaching a woman about her menstrual cycle. The nurse states that __________
is the most important change that happens during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle.
A. Maturation of the graafian follicle
B. Multiplication of the fimbriae
C. Secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin
D. Proliferation of the endometrium
Answer: D. Proliferation of the endometrium
10. An ultrasound of a fetus’ heart shows that “normal fetal circulation is occurring.” Which
of the following statements is consistent with the finding?
A. A right to left shunt is seen between the atria.
B. Blood is returning to the placenta via the umbilical vein.
C. Blood is returning to the right atrium from the pulmonary system.
D. A right to left shunt is seen between the umbilical arteries.
Answer: A. A right to left shunt is seen between the atria.
11. The clinic nurse knows that the part of the endometrial cycle occurring from ovulation to
just prior to menses is known as the:
A. Menstrual phase
B. Proliferative phase
C. Secretory phase
D. Ischemic phase
Answer: C. Secretory phase
12. A clinic nurse explains to the pregnant woman that the amount of amniotic fluid present at
24 weeks’ gestation is approximately:

A. 500 mL
B. 750 mL
C. 800 mL
D. 1000 mL
Answer: C. 800 mL
13. Information provided by the nurse that addresses the function of the amniotic fluid is that
the amniotic fluid helps the fetus to maintain a normal body temperature and also:
A. Facilitates asymmetrical growth of the fetal limbs
B. Cushions the fetus from mechanical injury
C. Promotes development of muscle tone
D. Promotes adherence of fetal lung tissue
Answer: B. Cushions the fetus from mechanical injury
14. During preconception counseling, the clinic nurse explains that the time period when the
fetus is most vulnerable to the effects of teratogens occurs from:
A. 2 to 8 weeks
B. 4 to12 weeks
C. 5 to 10 weeks
D. 6 to 15 weeks
Answer: A. 2 to 8 weeks
15. A major fetal development characteristic at 16 weeks’ gestation is:
A. The average fetal weight is 450 grams
B. Lanugo covers entire body
C. Brown fat begins to develop
D. Teeth begin to form
Answer: D. Teeth begin to form
16. Karen, a 26-year-old woman, has come for preconception counseling and asks about
caring for her cat as she has heard that she “should not touch the cat during pregnancy.” The
clinic nurse’s best response is:
A. It is best if someone other than you changes the cat’s litter pan during pregnancy so that
you have no risk of toxoplasmosis during pregnancy.

B. It is important to have someone else change the litter pan during pregnancy and also avoid
consuming raw vegetables.
C. Have you had any “flu-like” symptoms since you got your cat? If so, you may have
already had toxoplasmosis and there is nothing to worry about.
D. Toxoplasmosis is a concern during pregnancy, so it is important to have someone else
change the cat’s litter pan and also to avoid consuming uncooked meat.
Answer: D. Toxoplasmosis is a concern during pregnancy, so it is important to have someone
else change the cat’s litter pan and also to avoid consuming uncooked meat.
17. A couple who has sought infertility counseling has been told that the man’s sperm count is
very low. The nurse advises the couple that spermatogenesis is impaired when which of the
following occur?
A. The testes are overheated.
B. The vas deferens is ligated.
C. The prostate gland is enlarged.
D. The flagella are segmented.
Answer: A. The testes are overheated.
18. A nurse working with an infertile couple has made the following nursing diagnosis:
Sexual dysfunction related to decreased libido. Which of the following assessments is the
likely reason for this diagnosis?
A. The couple has established a set schedule for their sexual encounters.
B. The couple has been married for more than 8 years.
C. The couple lives with one set of parents.
D. The couple has close friends who gave birth within the last year.
Answer: A. The couple has established a set schedule for their sexual encounters.
True/False
19. The perinatal nurse explains to the student nurse that in the fetal circulation, the lowest
level of oxygen concentration is found in the umbilical arteries.
Answer: True
Fill-in-the-Blank

20. After birth, the perinatal nurse explains to the new mother that __________ is the
hormone responsible for stimulating milk production.
Answer: Prolactin
21. During prenatal class, the childbirth educator describes the two membranes that envelop
the fetus. The ____________ contains the amniotic fluid, and the ________ is the thick, outer
membrane.
Answer: Amnion, Chorion
Rationale:
The embryonic membranes (chorion and amnion) are early protective structures that begin to
form at the time of implantation. The thick chorion, or outer membrane, forms first. It
develops from the trophoblast and encloses the amnion, embryo, and yolk sac. The amnion
arises from the ectoderm during early embryonic development. The amnion is a thin,
protective structure that contains the amniotic fluid. With embryonic growth, the amnion
expands and comes into contact with the chorion. The two fetal membranes are slightly
adherent and form the amniotic sac.
22. The perinatal nurse is teaching nursing students about fetal circulation and explains that
fetal blood flows through the superior vena cava into the right ___________ via the
__________
Answer: Atrium
Foramen Ovale
23. The perinatal nurse explains to the student nurse that the growing embryo is called a
___________ beginning at 8 weeks of gestational age.
Answer: Fetus
24. The perinatal nurse defines a ____________ as any substance that adversely affects the
growth and development of the embryo/fetus.
Answer: Teteragen
25. __________ __________ __________ is when sperm and oocytes are mixed outside the
woman’s body and then placed into the fallopian tube via laparoscopy.

Answer: Gamete intrafallopian transfer
Rationale:
Gamete intrafallopian transfer, also referred to as GIFT, is used when there is a history of
failed infertility treatment for anovulation, or unexplained infertility, or low sperm count.
Multiple Response
26. A woman seeks care at an infertility clinic. Which of the following tests may this woman
undergo to determine what, if any, infertility problem she may have? (Select all that apply.)
A. Chorionic villus sampling
B. Endometrial biopsy
C. Hysterosalpingogram
D. Serum FSH analysis
Answer: B. Endometrial biopsy
C. Hysterosalpingogram
D. Serum FSH analysis
27. A couple who has been attempting to become pregnant for 5 years is seeking assistance
from an infertility clinic. The nurse assesses the clients’ emotional responses to their
infertility. Which of the following responses would the nurse expect to find? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Anger at others who have babies.
B. Feelings of failure because they cannot make a baby.
C. Sexual excitement because they want to conceive a baby.
D. Guilt on the part of one partner because he or she is unable to give the other a baby.
Answer: A. Anger at others who have babies.
B. Feelings of failure because they cannot make a baby.
D. Guilt on the part of one partner because he or she is unable to give the other a baby.
28. Which of the following places a couple at higher risk for conceiving a child with a genetic
abnormality? (Select all that apply.)
A. Maternal age over 35 years
B. Partner who has a genetic disorder
C. Maternal type 1 diabetes

D. Paternal heart disease
Answer: A. Maternal age over 35 years
B. Partner who has a genetic disorder
29. The ovarian cycle includes which of the following phases? (Select all that apply.)
A. Follicular phase
B. Secretory phase
C. Ovulatory phase
D. Luteal phase
E. Menstrual phase
Answer: A. Follicular phase
C. Ovulatory phase
D. Luteal phase
30. A couple is undergoing an infertility workup. The semen analysis indicates a decreased
number of sperm and immature sperm. Which of the following factors can have a potential
effect on sperm maturity? (Select all that apply.)
A. The man rides a bike to and from work each day.
B. The man takes a calcium channel blocker for the treatment of hypertension.
C. The man drinks 6 cups of coffee a day.
D. The man was treated for prostatitis 12 months ago and has been symptom free since
treatment.
Answer: A. The man rides a bike to and from work each day.
B. The man takes a calcium channel blocker for the treatment of hypertension.
31. The clinic nurse recognizes that pregnant women who are in particular need of support
are those who (select all that apply):
A. Are experiencing a second pregnancy
B. Are awaiting genetic testing results
C. Are experiencing a first pregnancy
D. Are trying to conceal this pregnancy as long as possible
Answer: B. Are awaiting genetic testing results
D. Are trying to conceal this pregnancy as long as possible

Chapter 5: Psycho-Social-Cultural Aspects of the Antepartum Period
Multiple Choice
1. Sally is in her third trimester and has begun to sing and talk to the fetus. Sally is probably
exhibiting signs of:
A. Mental illness
B. Delusions
C. Attachment
D. Crisis
Answer: C. Attachment
2. What is the most common expected emotional reaction of a woman to the news that she is
pregnant?
A. Jealousy
B. Acceptance
C. Ambivalence
D. Depression
Answer: C. Ambivalence
3. Which of the following information regarding sexual activity would the nurse give a
pregnant woman who is 35 weeks’ gestation?
A. Sexual activity should be avoided from now until 6 weeks postpartum.
B. Sexual desire may be affected by nausea and fatigue.
C. Sexual desire may be increased due to increased pelvic congestion.
D. Sexual activity may require different positions to accommodate the woman’s comfort.
Answer: D. Sexual activity may require different positions to accommodate the woman’s
comfort.
4. Which statement best exemplifies adaptation to pregnancy in relation to the adolescent?
A. Adolescents adapt to motherhood in a similar way to other childbearing women.
B. Social support has very little effect on adolescent adaptation to pregnancy.
C. The pregnant adolescent faces the challenge of multiple developmental tasks.
D. Pregnant adolescents of all ages can be capable and active participants in health-care
decisions.

Answer: C. The pregnant adolescent faces the challenge of multiple developmental tasks.
5. Jane’s husband Brian has begun to put on weight. What is this a possible sign of?
A. Culturalism syndrome
B. Couvade syndrome
C. Moratorium phase
D. Attachment
Answer: B. Couvade syndrome
6. Cathy is pregnant for the second time. Her son, Steven, has just turned 2 years old. She
asks you what she should do to help him get ready for the expected birth. What is the nurse’s
most appropriate response?
A. Steven will probably not understand any explanations about the arrival of the new baby, so
Cathy should do nothing.
B. If Steven’s sleeping arrangements need to be changed, it should be done well in advance of
the birth.
C. Steven should come to the next prenatal visit and listen to the fetal heartbeat to encourage
sibling attachment.
D. Steven should be encouraged to plan an elaborate welcome for the newborn.
Answer: B. If Steven’s sleeping arrangements need to be changed, it should be done well in
advance of the birth.
7. The nurse is interviewing a pregnant client who states she plans to drink chamomile tea to
ensure an effective labor. The nurse knows that this is an example of:
A. Cultural prescription
B. Cultural taboo
C. Cultural restriction
D. Cultural demonstration
Answer: A. Cultural prescription
8. Which of the following would be a priority for the nurse when caring for a pregnant
woman who has recently emigrated from another country?
A. Help her develop a realistic, detailed birth plan.
B. Identify her support system.

C. Teach her about expected emotional changes of pregnancy.
D. Refer her to a doula for labor support.
Answer: B. Identify her support system.
9. A pregnant client at 20 weeks’ gestation comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. Which of
the following client statements would indicate a need for further assessment?
A. “I hate it when the baby moves.”
B. “I’ve started calling my mom every day.”
C. “My partner and I can’t stop talking about the baby.”
D. “I still don’t know much time I’m going to take off work after the baby comes.”
Answer: A. “I hate it when the baby moves.”
10. A pregnant client asks the nurse why she should attend childbirth classes. The nurse’s
response would be based on which of the following information?
A. Attending childbirth class is a good way to make new friends.
B. Childbirth classes will help new families develop skills to meet the challenges of
childbirth and parenting.
C. Attending childbirth classes will help a pregnant woman have a shorter labor.
D. Childbirth classes will help a pregnant woman decrease her chance of having a cesarean
delivery.
Answer: B. Childbirth classes will help new families develop skills to meet the challenges of
childbirth and parenting.
11. A woman presents for prenatal care at 6 weeks’ gestation by LMP. Which of the following
findings would the nurse expect to see?
A. Multiple pillow orthopnea
B. Maternal ambivalence
C. Fundus at the umbilicus
D. Pedal and ankle edema
Answer: B. Maternal ambivalence
12. A first-time father is experiencing couvade syndrome. He is likely to exhibit which of the
following symptoms or behaviors?
A. Urinary frequency

B. Hypotension
C. Bradycardia
D. Prostatic hypertrophy
Answer: A. Urinary frequency
13. When providing a psychosocial assessment on a pregnant woman at 21 weeks’ gestation,
the nurse would expect to observe which of the following signs?
A. Ambivalence
B. Depression
C. Anxiety
D. Happiness
Answer: D. Happiness
14. An example of a cultural prescriptive belief during pregnancy is:
A. Remain active during pregnancy
B. Coldness in any form should be avoided
C. Do not have your picture taken
D. Avoid sexual intercourse during the third trimester
Answer: A. Remain active during pregnancy
15. Taboos are cultural restrictions that:
A. Have serious supernatural consequences
B. Have serious clinical consequences
C. Have superstitious consequences
D. Are functional and neutral practices
Answer: A. Have serious supernatural consequences
16. Jenny, a 21-year-old single woman, comes for her first prenatal appointment at 31 weeks’
gestation with her first pregnancy. The clinic nurse’s most appropriate statement is:
A. “Jenny, it is late in your pregnancy to be having your first appointment, but it is nice to
meet you and I will try to help you get caught up in your care.”
B. “Jenny, have you had care in another clinic? I can’t believe this is your first appointment!”
C. “Jenny, by the date of your last menstrual period, you are 31 weeks and now that you are
finally here, we need you to come monthly for the next two visits and then weekly.”

D. “Jenny, by your information, you are 31 weeks’ gestation in this pregnancy. Do you have
questions for me before I begin your prenatal history and information sharing?”
Answer: D. “Jenny, by your information, you are 31 weeks’ gestation in this pregnancy. Do
you have questions for me before I begin your prenatal history and information sharing?”
17. The clinic nurse visits with Wayne, a 32-year-old man whose partner is pregnant for the
first time and is at 12 weeks. Wayne describes nausea and vomiting, fatigue, and weight gain.
His symptoms are best described as:
A. Influenza
B. Couvade syndrome
C. Acid reflux
D. Cholelithiasis
Answer: B. Couvade syndrome
Multiple Response
18. The clinic nurse encourages paternal attachment during pregnancy by including the father
in (select all that apply):
A. Prenatal visits
B. Ultrasound appointments
C. Prenatal class information
D. History taking and obtaining prenatal screening information
Answer: B. Ultrasound appointments
C. Prenatal class information
D. History taking and obtaining prenatal screening information
19. The perinatal nurse screens all pregnant women early in pregnancy for maternal
attachment risk factors, which include (select all that apply):
A. Adolescence
B. Low educational level
C. History of depression
D. A strong support system for the pregnancy
Answer: A. Adolescence
B. Low educational level

C. History of depression
Rationale:
Maternal attachment to the fetus is an important area to assess and can be useful in
identifying families at risk for maladaptive behaviors. The nurse should assess for indicators
such as unintended pregnancy, domestic violence, difficulties in the partner relationship,
sexually transmitted infections, limited financial resources, substance use, adolescence, poor
social support systems, low educational level, the presence of mental conditions, or
adolescence that might interfere with the patient’s ability to bond with and care for the infant.
A strong support system can facilitate the patient’s ability to bond with and care for the
infant.
20. Strategies for culturally responsive care include (select all that apply):
A. Practicing ethnocentrism
B. Applying stereotyping
C. Examining one’s own biases
D. Learning another language
Answer: C. Examining one’s own biases
D. Learning another language
Rationale:
The only actions among the choices that are culturally responsive are examining one’s own
biases and learning another language. Ethnocentrism and stereotyping are not culturally
responsive actions.
Chapter 6: Antepartal Tests
1. Your pregnant patient is in her first trimester and is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound.
When explaining the rationale for early pregnancy ultrasound, the best response is:
A. “The test will help to determine the baby’s position.”
B. “The test will help to determine how many weeks you are pregnant.”
C. “The test will help to determine if your baby is growing appropriately.”
D. “The test will help to determine if you have a boy or girl.”
Answer: B. “The test will help to determine how many weeks you are pregnant.”

2. Your pregnant patient is having maternal alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening. She does not
understand how a test on her blood can indicate a birth defect in the fetus. The best reply by
the nurse is:
A. “We have done this test for a long time.”
B. “If babies have a neural tube defect, alpha-fetoprotein leaks out of the fetus and is
absorbed into your blood, causing your level to rise. This serum blood test detects that rise.”
C. “Neural tube defects are a genetic anomaly, and we examine the amount of alphafetoprotein in your DNA.”
D. “If babies have a neural tube defect, this results in a decrease in your level of alphafetoprotein.”
Answer: B. “If babies have a neural tube defect, alpha-fetoprotein leaks out of the fetus and
is absorbed into your blood, causing your level to rise. This serum blood test detects that
rise.”
3. The primary complications of amniocentesis are:
A. Damage to fetal organs
B. Puncture of umbilical cord
C. Maternal pain
D. Infection
Answer: D. Infection
4. Your patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit tells you she does not
understand how to do “kick counts.” The best response by the nurse would be to explain:
A. “Here is an information sheet on how to do kick counts.”
B. “It is not important to do kick counts because you have a low-risk pregnancy.”
C. “Fetal kick counts are not a reliable indicator of fetal well-being in the third trimester.”
D. “Fetal movements are an indicator of fetal well-being. You should count twice a day, and
you should feel 10 fetal movements in 2 hours.”
Answer: D. “Fetal movements are an indicator of fetal well-being. You should count twice a
day, and you should feel 10 fetal movements in 2 hours.”
5. Your patient is a 37-year-old pregnant woman who is 5 weeks pregnant and is considering
genetic testing. During your discussion, the woman asks the nurse what the advantages of
chorionic villus sampling (CVS) are over amniocentesis. The best response is:

A. “You will need anaesthesia for amniocentesis, but not for CVS.”
B. “CVS is a faster procedure.”
C. “CVS provides more detailed information than amniocentesis.”
D. “CVS can be done earlier in your pregnancy, and the results are available more quickly.”
Answer: D. “CVS can be done earlier in your pregnancy, and the results are available more
quickly.”
6. The clinic nurse meets with Rebecca, a 30-year-old woman who is experiencing her first
pregnancy. Rebecca’s quadruple marker screen result is positive at 17 weeks’ gestation. The
nurse explains that Rebecca needs a referral to:
A. A genetics counselor/specialist
B. An obstetrician
C. A gynecologist
D. A social worker
Answer: A. A genetics counselor/specialist
7. A 37-year-old woman who is 17 weeks pregnant has had an amniocentesis. Before
discharge, the nurse teaches the woman to call her doctor if she experiences which of the
following side effects?
A. Pain at the puncture site
B. Macular rash on the abdomen
C. Decrease in urinary output
D. Cramping of the uterus
Answer: D. Cramping of the uterus
8. A laboratory report indicates the L/S ratio (lecithin/sphingomyelin) results from an
amniocentesis of a gravid patient with preeclampsia are 2:1. The nurse interprets the result as
which of the following?
A. The baby’s lung fields are mature.
B. The mother is high risk for hemorrhage.
C. The baby’s kidneys are functioning poorly.
D. The mother is high risk for eclampsia.
Answer: A. The baby’s lung fields are mature.

Chapter 7: High-Risk Antepartum Nursing Care
Multiple Choice
1. A client on 2 gm/hr of magnesium sulfate has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Identify the
priority nursing assessment to ensure client safety.
A. Assess uterine contractions continuously.
B. Assess fetal heart rate continuously.
C. Assess urinary output.
D. Assess respiratory rate.
Answer: D. Assess respiratory rate.
2. A pregnant client with a history of multiple sexual partners is at highest risk for which of
the following complications:
A. Premature rupture of membranes
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
Answer: C. Ectopic pregnancy
3. Identify the hallmark of placenta previa that differentiates it from abruptio placenta.
A. Sudden onset of painless vaginal bleeding
B. Board-like abdomen with severe pain
C. Sudden onset of bright red vaginal bleeding
D. Severe vaginal pain with bright red bleeding
Answer: A. Sudden onset of painless vaginal bleeding
4. Which of the following assessments would indicate instability in the client hospitalized for
placenta previa?
A. BP <90/60 mm/Hg, Pulse 120 BPM
B. FHR moderate variability without accelerations
C. Dark brown vaginal discharge when voiding
D. Oral temperature of 99.9°F
Answer: A. BP <90/60 mm/Hg, Pulse 120 BPM

5. During pregnancy, poorly controlled asthma can place the fetus at risk for:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. IUGR
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Macrosomia
Answer: B. IUGR
6. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is of highest priority for a client with an ectopic
pregnancy who has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A. Risk for deficient fluid volume
B. Risk for family process interrupted
C. Risk for disturbed identity
D. High risk for injury
Answer: A. Risk for deficient fluid volume
7. Which of the following laboratory values is most concerning in a client with pregnancy
induced hypertension?
A. Total urine protein of 200 mg/Dl
B. Total platelet count of 40,000 mm
C. Uric acid level of 8 mg/dL
D. Blood urea nitrogen 24 mg/dL
Answer: B. Total platelet count of 40,000 mm
8. Which of the following medications administered to the pregnant client with GDM and
experiencing preterm labor requires close monitoring of the client’s blood glucose levels?
A. Nifedipine
B. Betamethasone
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Indomethacin
Answer: B. Betamethasone
9. While educating the client with class II cardiac disease, at 28 weeks’ gestation, the nurse
instructs the client to notify the physician if she experiences which of the following
conditions?

A. Emotional stress at work
B. Increased dyspnea while resting
C. Mild pedal and ankle edema
D. Weight gain of 1 pound in 1 week
Answer: B. Increased dyspnea while resting
10. The nurse working in a prenatal clinic is providing care to three primigravida patients.
Which of the patient findings would the nurse highlight for the physician?
A. 15 weeks, denies feeling fetal movement
B. 20 weeks, fundal height at the umbilicus
C. 25 weeks, complains of excess salivation
D. 30 weeks, states that her vision is blurry
Answer: D. 30 weeks, states that her vision is blurry
11. The perinatal nurse is assessing a woman in triage who is 34 + 3 weeks’ gestation in her
first pregnancy. She is worried about having her baby “too soon,” and she is experiencing
uterine contractions every 10 to 15 minutes. The fetal heart rate is 136 beats per minute. A
vaginal examination performed by the health-care provider reveals that the cervix is closed,
long, and posterior. The most likely diagnosis would be:
A. Preterm labor
B. Placental abruption
C. Spontaneous rupture of membranes
D. Braxton-Hicks contractions
Answer: D. Braxton-Hicks contractions
12. The perinatal nurse knows that the term to describe a woman at 26 weeks’ gestation with
a history of elevated blood pressure who presents with a urine showing 2+ protein (by
dipstick) is:
A. Preeclampsia
B. Chronic hypertension
C. Gestational hypertension
D. Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia
Answer: D. Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia

13. A patient is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. The nurse must notify
the attending physician immediately of which of the following findings?
A. Patellar and biceps reflexes of +4
B. Urinary output of 50 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate of 10 rpm
D. Serum magnesium level of 5 mg/dL
Answer: C. Respiratory rate of 10 rpm
14. A woman in labor and delivery is being given subcutaneous terbutaline for preterm labor.
Which of the following common medication effects would the nurse expect to see in the
mother?
A. Serum potassium level increases
B. Diarrhea
C. Urticaria
D. Complaints of nervousness
Answer: D. Complaints of nervousness
15. Which of the following signs or symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a woman with
concealed abruptio placentae?
A. Increasing abdominal girth measurements
B. Profuse vaginal bleeding
C. Bradycardia with an aortic thrill
D. Hypothermia with chills
Answer: A. Increasing abdominal girth measurements
16. A woman who has had no prenatal care was assessed and found to have hydramnios on
admission to the labor unit and has since delivered a baby weighing 4500 grams. Which of
the following complications of pregnancy likely contributed to these findings?
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Abruptio placentae
Answer: C. Gestational diabetes

17. For the patient with which of the following medical problems should the nurse question a
physician’s order for beta agonist tocolytics?
A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B. Cerebral palsy
C. Myelomeningocele
D. Positive group B streptococci culture
Answer: A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
18. The nurse is caring for two laboring women. Which of the patients should be monitored
most carefully for signs of placental abruption?
A. The patient with placenta previa
B. The patient whose vagina is colonized with group B streptococci
C. The patient who is hepatitis B surface antigen positive
D. The patient with eclampsia
Answer: D. The patient with eclampsia
19. The nurse is caring for a woman at 28 weeks’ gestation with a history of preterm delivery.
Which of the following laboratory data should the nurse carefully assess in relation to this
diagnosis?
A. Human relaxing levels
B. Amniotic fluid levels
C. Alpha-fetoprotein levels
D. Fetal fibronectin levels
Answer: D. Fetal fibronectin levels
20. Which of the following statements is most appropriate for the nurse to say to a patient
with a complete placenta previa?
A. “During the second stage of labor you will need to bear down.”
B. “You should ambulate in the halls at least twice each day.”
C. “The doctor will likely induce your labor with oxytocin.”
D. “Please promptly report if you experience any bleeding or feel any back discomfort.”
Answer: D. “Please promptly report if you experience any bleeding or feel any back
discomfort.”

21. A woman at 32 weeks’ gestation is diagnosed with severe preeclampsia with HELLP
syndrome. The nurse will identify which of the following as a positive patient care outcome?
A. Rise in serum creatinine
B. Drop in serum protein
C. Resolution of thrombocytopenia
D. Resolution of polycythemia
Answer: C. Resolution of thrombocytopenia
22. A 16-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of severe preeclampsia.
The nurse must closely monitor the woman for which of the following?
A. High leukocyte count
B. Explosive diarrhea
C. Fractured pelvis
D. Low platelet count
Answer: D. Low platelet count
23. A woman at 10 weeks’ gestation is diagnosed with gestational trophoblastic disease
(hydatiform mole). Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to see?
A. Platelet count of 550,000/ mm3
B. Dark brown vaginal bleeding
C. White blood cell count 17,000/ mm3
D. Macular papular rash
Answer: B. Dark brown vaginal bleeding
24. After an education class, the nurse overhears an adolescent woman discussing safe sex
practices. Which of the following comments by the young woman indicates that additional
teaching about sexually transmitted infection (STI) control issues is needed?
A. “I could get an STI even if I just have oral sex.”
B. “Girls over 16 are less likely to get STDs than younger girls.”
C. “The best way to prevent an STI is to use a diaphragm.”
D. “Girls get human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) easier than boys do.”
Answer: C. “The best way to prevent an STI is to use a diaphragm.”
Feedback:

A. This statement is true. Organisms that cause sexually transmitted infections can invade the
respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts.
B. This statement is true. Young women are especially high risk for becoming infected with
sexually transmitted diseases.
C. This statement is untrue. The young woman needs further teaching. Condoms protect
against STDs and pregnancy. In addition, condoms can be kept in readiness for whenever sex
may occur spontaneously. Using condoms does not require the teen to plan to have sex. A
diaphragm is not an effective infection-control method. Plus, it would require the teen to plan
for intercourse.
D. This statement is true. Young women are higher risk for becoming infected with HIV than
are young men.
25. A woman who is admitted to labor and delivery at 30 weeks’ gestation, is 1 cm dilated,
and is contracting q 5 minutes. She is receiving magnesium sulfate IV piggyback. Which of
the following maternal vital signs is most important for the nurse to assess each hour?
A. Temperature
B. Pulse
C. Respiratory rate
D. Blood pressure
Answer: C. Respiratory rate
26. You are caring for a patient who was admitted to labor and delivery at 32 weeks’ gestation
and diagnosed with preterm labor. She is currently on magnesium sulfate, 2 gm per hour.
Upon your initial assessment you note that she has a respiratory rate of 8 with absent deep
tendon reflexes. What will be your first nursing intervention?
A. Elevate head of the bed
B. Notify the MD
C. Discontinue magnesium sulfate
D. Draw a serum magnesium level
Answer: C. Discontinue magnesium sulfate
27. A 34-weeks’ gestation multigravida, G3 P1 is admitted to the labor suite. She is
contracting every 7 minutes and 40 seconds. The woman has several medical problems.
Which of the following of her comorbidities is most consistent with the clinical picture?

A. Kyphosis
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Cerebral palsy
Answer: B. Urinary tract infection
28. A primiparous woman has been admitted at 35 weeks’ gestation and diagnosed with
HELLP syndrome. Which of the following laboratory changes is consistent with this
diagnosis?
A. Hematocrit dropped to 28%.
B. Platelets increased to 300,000 cells/mm3.
C. Red blood cells increased to 5.1 million cells/mm3.
D. Sodium dropped to 132 mEq/dL.
Answer: A. Hematocrit dropped to 28%.
29. A labor nurse is caring for a patient, 39 weeks’ gestation, who has been diagnosed with
placenta previa. Which of the following physician orders should the nurse question?
A. Type and cross-match her blood.
B. Insert an internal fetal monitor electrode.
C. Administer an oral stool softener.
D. Assess her complete blood count.
Answer: B. Insert an internal fetal monitor electrode.
30. A type 1 diabetic patient has repeatedly experienced elevated serum glucose levels
throughout her pregnancy. Which of the following complications of pregnancy would the
nurse expect to see?
A. Postpartum hemorrhage
B. Neonatal hyperglycemia
C. Postpartum oliguria
D. Neonatal macrosomia
Answer: D. Neonatal macrosomia
31. According to agency policy, the perinatal nurse provides the following intraportal nursing
care for the patient with preeclampsia:

A. Take the patient’s blood pressure every 6 hours
B. Encourage the patient to rest on her back
C. Notify the physician of a urine output greater than 30 mL/hr
D. Administer magnesium sulfate according to agency policy
Answer: D. Administer magnesium sulfate according to agency policy
32. The perinatal nurse is providing care to Marilyn, a 25-year-old G1 TPAL 0000 woman
hospitalized with severe hypertension at 33 weeks’ gestation. The nurse is preparing to
administer the second dose of beta-methasone prescribed by the physician. Marilyn asks:
“What is this injection for again?” The nurse’s best response is:
A. “This is to help your baby’s lungs to mature.”
B. “This is to prepare your body to begin the labor process.”
C. “This is to help stabilize your blood pressure.”
D. “This is to help your baby grow and develop in preparation for birth.”
Answer: A. “This is to help your baby’s lungs to mature.”
33. A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the labor and delivery unit with a history
of congestive heart disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
primary health-care practitioner?
A. Presence of chloasma
B. Presence of severe heartburn
C. 10-pound weight gain in a month
D. Patellar reflexes +1
Answer: C. 10-pound weight gain in a month
34. The single most important risk factor for preterm birth includes:
A. Uterine and cervical anomalies
B. Infection
C. Increased BMI
D. Prior preterm birth
Answer: D. Prior preterm birth

35. Your antepartal patient is 38 weeks’ gestation, has a history of thrombosis, and has been
on strict bed rest for the last 12 hours. She is now experiencing shortness of breath. What
about the patient may be a contributing factor for her shortness of breath?
A. Physiologic changes in pregnancy result in vasodilation, which increases the tendency to
form blood clots.
B. Physiologic changes in pregnancy result in vasoconstriction, which increases the tendency
to form blood clots.
C. Physiologic changes in pregnancy result in anemia, which increases the tendency to form
blood clots.
D. Physiologic changes in pregnancy result in decreased perfusion to the lungs, which
increases the tendency to form blood clots.
Answer: A. Physiologic changes in pregnancy result in vasodilation, which increases the
tendency to form blood clots.
36. Metabolic changes during pregnancy __________ glucose tolerance.
A. lower
B. increase
C. maintain
D. alter
Answer: A. lower
Multiple Response
43. The perinatal nurse describes risk factors for placenta previa to the student nurse. Placenta
previa risk factors include (select all that apply):
A. Cocaine use
B. Tobacco use
C. Previous caesarean birth
D. Previous use of medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera)
Answer: A. Cocaine use
B. Tobacco use
C. Previous caesarean birth

44. Kerry, a 30-year-old G3 TPAL 0110 woman presents to the labor unit triage with
complaints of lower abdominal cramping and urinary frequency at 30 weeks’ gestation. An
appropriate nursing action would be to (select all that apply):
A. Assess the fetal heart rate
B. Obtain urine for culture and sensitivity
C. Assess Kerry’s blood pressure and pulse
D. Palpate Kerry’s abdomen for contractions
Answer: A. Assess the fetal heart rate
B. Obtain urine for culture and sensitivity
D. Palpate Kerry’s abdomen for contractions
45. The perinatal nurse knows that tocolytic agents are most often used to (select all that
apply):
A. Prevent maternal infection
B. Prolong pregnancy to 40 weeks’ gestation
C. Prolong pregnancy to facilitate administration of antenatal corticosteroids
D. Allow for transport of the woman to a tertiary care facility
Answer: C. Prolong pregnancy to facilitate administration of antenatal corticosteroids
D. Allow for transport of the woman to a tertiary care facility
46. The perinatal nurse provides a hospital tour for couples and families preparing for labor
and birth in the future. Teaching is an important component of the tour. Information provided
about preterm labor and birth prevention includes (select all that apply):
A. Encouraging regular, ongoing prenatal care
B. Reporting symptoms of urinary frequency and burning to the health-care provider
C. Coming to the labor triage unit if back pain or cramping persist or become regular
D. Lying on the right side, withholding fluids, and counting fetal movements if contractions
occur every 5 minutes
Answer: A. Encouraging regular, ongoing prenatal care
B. Reporting symptoms of urinary frequency and burning to the health-care provider
C. Coming to the labor triage unit if back pain or cramping persist or become regular

47. The perinatal nurse describes for the new nurse the various risks associated with
prolonged premature preterm rupture of membranes. These risks include (select all that
apply):
A. Chorioamnionitis
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Operative birth
D. Cord prolapse
Answer: A. Chorioamnionitis
B. Abruptio placentae
D. Cord prolapse
48. Betamethasone is a steroid that is given to a pregnant woman with signs of preterm labor.
The purpose of giving steroids is to (select all that apply):
A. Stimulate the production of surfactant in the preterm infant
B. Be given between 24 and 34 weeks’ gestation
C. Increase the severity of respiratory distress
D. Accelerate fetal lung maturity
Answer: A. Stimulate the production of surfactant in the preterm infant
B. Be given between 24 and 34 weeks’ gestation
D. Accelerate fetal lung maturity
Rationale:
Betamethasone is a steroid that is given to pregnant women with signs of preterm labor
between 24 and 34 weeks’ gestation. It stimulates the production of surfactant in the preterm
infant and accelerates fetal lung maturity.
49. Marked hemodynamic changes in pregnancy can impact the pregnant woman with
cardiac disease. Signs and symptoms of deteriorating cardiac status include (select all that
apply):
A. Orthopnea
B. Nocturnal dyspnea
C. Palpitations
D. Irritation
Answer: A. Orthopnea
B. Nocturnal dyspnea

C. Palpitations
Multiple Choice
1. In caring for a primiparous woman in labor, one of the factors to evaluate is uterine
activity. This is referred to as the
Answer: Power
2. The provision of support during labor has demonstrated that women experience a decrease
in anxiety and a feeling of being in more control. In clinical situations, this has resulted in:
A. A decrease in interventions
B. Increased epidural rates
C. Earlier admission to the hospital
D. Improved gestational age
Answer: A. A decrease in interventions
3. When caring for a primiparous woman being evaluated for admission for labor, a key
distinction between true versus false labor is:
A. True labor contractions result in rupture of membranes, and with false labor, the
membranes remain intact.
B. True labor contractions result in increasing anxiety and discomfort, and false labor does
not.
C. True labor contractions are accompanied by loss of the mucus plug and bloody show, and
with false labor there is no vaginal discharge.
D. True labor contractions bring about changes in cervical effacement and dilation, and with
false labor there are irregular contractions with little or no cervical changes.
Answer: D. True labor contractions bring about changes in cervical effacement and dilation,
and with false labor there are irregular contractions with little or no cervical changes.
4. The mechanism of labor known as cardinal movements of labor are the positional changes
that the fetus goes through to best navigate the birth process. These cardinal movements are:
A. Engagement, Descent, Flexion, Extension, Internal rotation, External rotation, Expulsion
B. Engagement, Descent, Flexion, Internal rotation, Extension, External rotation, Expulsion
C. Engagement, Flexion, Internal rotation, Extension, External rotation, Descent, Expulsion

D. Engagement, Flexion, Internal rotation, Extension, External rotation, Flexion, Expulsion
Answer: B. Engagement, Descent, Flexion, Internal rotation, Extension, External rotation,
Expulsion
5. A woman is considered in active labor when:
A. Cervical dilation progresses from 4 to 7 cm with effacement of 40% to 80%, contractions
become more intense, occurring every 2 to 5 minutes with duration of 45 to 60 seconds.
B. Cervical dilation progresses to 3 cm with effacement of 30, contractions become more
intense, occurring every 2 to 5 minutes with duration of 45 to 60 seconds.
C. Cervical dilation progresses to 8 cm with effacement of 80%, contractions become more
intense, occurring every 2 to 5 minutes with duration of 45 to 60 seconds.
D. Cervical dilation progresses to 10 cm with effacement of 90%, contractions become more
intense, occurring every 2 to 5 minutes with duration of 45 to 60 seconds.
Answer: A. Cervical dilation progresses from 4 to 7 cm with effacement of 40% to 80%,
contractions become more intense, occurring every 2 to 5 minutes with duration of 45 to 60
seconds.
6. You are caring for a woman in labor who is 6 cm dilated with a reassuring FHT pattern and
regular strong UCs. The fetal heart rate (FHR) should be:
A. Monitored continuously
B. Monitored every 15 minutes
C. Monitored every 30 minutes
D. Monitored every 60 minutes
Answer: C. Monitored every 30 minutes
7. A woman you are caring for in labor requests an epidural for pain relief in labor. Included
in your preparation for epidural placement is a baseline set of vital signs. The most common
vital sign to change after epidural placement:
A. Blood pressure, hypotension
B. Blood pressure, hypertension
C. Pulse, tachycardia
D. Pulse, bradycardia
Answer: B. Blood pressure, hypertension

8. The labor patient you are caring for is ambulating in the hall. Her vaginal exam 1 hour ago
indicated she was 4/70/–1 station. She tells you she has fluid running down her leg. Your
priority nursing intervention is to:
A. Assess the color, odor, and amount of fluid.
B. Assist your patient to the bathroom.
C. Assess the fetal heart rate.
D. Call the care provider.
Answer: C. Assess the fetal heart rate.
9. You are in the process of admitting a multiparous woman to labor and delivery from the
triage area. One hour ago her vaginal exam was 4/70/0. While completing your review of her
prenatal record and completing the admission questionnaire, she tells you she has an urge to
have a bowel movement and feels like pushing. Your priority nursing intervention is to:
A. Reassure the patient and rapidly complete the admission.
B. Assist your patient to the bathroom to have a bowel movement.
C. Assess the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions.
D. Perform a vaginal exam.
Answer: D. Perform a vaginal exam.
10. The Apgar score consists of a rapid assessment of five physiological signs that indicate
the physiological status of the newborn and includes:
A. Apical pulse strength, respiratory rate, muscle flexion, reflex irritability, and color
B. Heart rate, clarity of lungs, muscle tone, reflexes, and color
C. Apical pulse strength, respiratory rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color of
extremities
D. Heart rate, respiratory rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color
Answer: D. Heart rate, respiratory rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color
11. The perinatal nurse is assessing a woman in triage who is 34 + 3 weeks’ gestation in her
first pregnancy. She is worried about having her baby “too soon,” and she is experiencing
uterine contractions every 10 to 15 minutes. The fetal heart rate is 136 beats per minute. A
vaginal examination performed by the health-care provider reveals that the cervix is closed,
long, and posterior. The most likely diagnosis would be:
A. Preterm labor

B. Term labor
C. Back labor
D. Braxton-Hicks contractions
Answer: B. Term labor
Chapter 15: Physiological and Behavioral Responses of the Neonate
Multiple Choice
1. A woman gave birth to a 3200 g baby girl with an estimated gestational age of 40 weeks.
The baby is 1 hour of age. In preparation of giving the baby an injection of vitamin K, the
nurse will:
A. Explain to the parents the action of the medication and answer their questions.
B. Remove the neonate from the room so the parents will not be distressed by seeing the
injection.
C. Completely undress the neonate to identify the injection site.
D. Replace needle with a 21 gauge 5/8 needle.
Answer: A. Explain to the parents the action of the medication and answer their questions.
2. To accurately measure the neonate’s head, the nurse places the measuring tape around the
head:
A. Just above the ears and eyebrows
B. Middle of the ear and over the eyes
C. Middle of the ear and over the bridge of the nose
D. Just below the ears and over the upper lip
Answer: A. Just above the ears and eyebrows
3. Which of the following neonates is at highest risk for cold stress?
A. A 36 gestational week LGA neonate
B. A 32 gestational week AGA neonate
C. A 33 gestational week SGA neonate
D. A 38 gestational week AGA neonate
Answer: C. A 33 gestational week SGA neonate
4. When assessing the apical pulse of the neonate, the stethoscope should be placed at the:

A. First or second intercostal space
B. Second or third intercostal space
C. Third or fourth intercostal space
D. Fourth or fifth intercostal space
Answer: C. Third or fourth intercostal space
5. Which of the following breath sounds are normal to hear in the neonate during the first few
hours post-birth?
A. Scattered crackles
B. Wheezes
C. Stridor
D. Grunting
Answer: A. Scattered crackles
6. The nurse assesses that a full-term neonate’s temperature is 36.2°C. The first nursing action
is to:
A. Turn up the heat in the room.
B. Place the neonate on the mother’s chest with a warm blanket over the mother and baby.
C. Take the neonate to the nursery and place in a radiant warmer.
D. Notify the neonate’s primary provider.
Answer: B. Place the neonate on the mother’s chest with a warm blanket over the mother and
baby.
7. A nurse is assessing for the tonic neck reflex. This is elicited by:
A. Making a load sound near the neonate.
B. Placing the neonate in a sitting position.
C. Turning the neonate’s head to the side so that the chin is over the shoulder while the
neonate is in a supine position.
D. Holding the neonate in a semi-sitting position and letting the head slightly drop back.
Answer: C. Turning the neonate’s head to the side so that the chin is over the shoulder while
the neonate is in a supine position.
8. An infant admitted to the newborn nursery has a blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL. Which
of the following actions should the nurse perform at this time?

A. Provide the baby with routine feedings.
B. Assess the baby’s blood pressure.
C. Place the baby under the infant warmer.
D. Monitor the baby’s urinary output.
Answer: A. Provide the baby with routine feedings.
9. Four babies have just been admitted into the neonatal nursery. Which of the babies should
the nurse assess first?
A. The baby with respirations 52, oxygen saturation 98%
B. The baby with Apgar 9/9, weight 2960 grams
C. The baby with temperature 96.3°F, length 17 inches
D. The baby with glucose 60 mg/dL, heart rate 132
Answer: C. The baby with temperature 96.3°F, length 17 inches
10. The nurse is about to elicit the rooting reflex on a newborn baby. Which of the following
responses should the nurse expect to see?
A. When the cheek of the baby is touched, the newborn turns toward the side that is ouched.
B. When the lateral aspect of the sole of the baby’s foot is stroked, the toes extend and fan
outward.
C. When the baby is suddenly lowered or startled, the neonate’s arms straighten outward and
the knees flex.
D. When the newborn is supine and the head is turned to one side, the arm on that same side
extends.
Answer: A. When the cheek of the baby is touched, the newborn turns toward the side that is
ouched.
11. A mother refused to allow her son to receive the vitamin K injection at birth. Which of the
following signs or symptoms might the nurse observe in the baby as a result?
A. Skin color is dusky.
B. Vital signs are labile.
C. Glucose levels are subnormal.
D. Circumcision site oozes blood.
Answer: D. Circumcision site oozes blood.

12. A nurse is assisting a physician during a baby’s circumcision. Which of the following
demonstrates that the nurse is acting as the baby’s patient care advocate?
A. The nurse requests that oral sucrose be ordered as a pain relief measure.
B. The nurse restrains the baby on the circumcision board.
C. The nurse wears a surgical mask during the procedure.
D. The nurse provides the physician with an iodine solution for cleansing the skin.
Answer: A. The nurse requests that oral sucrose be ordered as a pain relief measure.
13. A neonate is admitted to the nursery. The nurse makes the following assessments: weight
2845 grams, overriding sagittal suture, closed posterior fontanel, and point of maximum
intensity at the xiphoid process. Which of the assessments should be reported to the healthcare practitioner?
A. Birth weight
B. Sagittal suture line
C. Closed posterior fontanel
D. Point of maximum intensity
Answer: D. Point of maximum intensity
14. The nurse is about to elicit the Moro reflex. Which of the following responses should the
nurse expect to see?
A. When the cheek of the baby is touched, the newborn turns toward the side that is touched.
B. When the lateral aspect of the sole of the baby’s foot is stroked, the toes extend and fan
outward.
C. When the baby is suddenly lowered or startled, the neonate’s arms straighten outward and
the knees flex.
D. When the newborn is supine and the head is turned to one side, the arm on that same side
extends.
Answer: C. When the baby is suddenly lowered or startled, the neonate’s arms straighten
outward and the knees flex.
15. A nurse is doing a newborn assessment on a new admission to the nursery. Which of the
following actions should the nurse make when evaluating the baby for developmental
dysplasia of the hip?
A. Grasp the inner aspects of the baby’s calves with thumbs and forefingers.

B. Gently abduct the baby’s thighs.
C. Palpate the baby’s patellae to assess for subluxation of the bones.
D. Dorsiflex the baby’s feet.
Answer: B. Gently abduct the baby’s thighs.
16. A certified nursing assistant (CNA) is working with a registered nurse (RN) in the
neonatal nursery. Which of the following actions would be appropriate for the nurse to
delegate to the CNA?
A. Admit a newly delivered baby to the nursery.
B. Bathe and weigh a 3-hour-old baby.
C. Provide discharge teaching to the mother of a 4-day-old baby.
D. Interpret a bilirubin level reported by the laboratory.
Answer: B. Bathe and weigh a 3-hour-old baby.
17. A pregnant patient at 35 weeks’ gestation gives birth to a healthy baby boy. What factors
regarding the development of the normal respiratory system should the nurse consider when
performing an assessment of the neonate?
A. As the fetus approaches term, there is an increase in the secretion of intrapulmonary fluid.
B. Lung expansion after birth suppresses the release of surfactant.
C. Surfactant causes an increased surface tension within the alveoli, which allows for alveolar
re-expansion following each exhalation.
D. Under normal circumstances, by the 34th to 36th weeks of gestation, surfactant is
produced in sufficient amounts to maintain alveolar stability.
Answer: D. Under normal circumstances, by the 34th to 36th weeks of gestation, surfactant
is produced in sufficient amounts to maintain alveolar stability.
18. The perinatal nurse explains to a student nurse the cardiopulmonary adaptations that
occur in the neonate. Which one of the following statements accurately describes the
sequence of these changes?
A. As air enters the lungs, the PO2 rises in the alveoli, which causes pulmonary artery
relaxation and results in an increase in pulmonary vascular resistance.
B. As the pulmonary vascular resistance increases, pulmonary blood flow increases, reaching
100% by the first 24 hours of life.

C. Decreased pulmonary blood volume contributes to the conversion from fetal to newborn
circulation.
D. Once the pulmonary circulation has been functionally established, blood is distributed
throughout the lungs.
Answer: D. Once the pulmonary circulation has been functionally established, blood is
distributed throughout the lungs.
19. A perinatal nurse assesses the skin condition of a newborn, which is characterized by a
yellow coloration of the skin, sclera, and oral mucous membranes. What condition is most
likely the cause of this symptom?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Physiologic anemia of infancy
C. Low glomerular filtration rate
D. Jaundice
Answer: D. Jaundice
20. The nurse is assessing the neonate’s skin and notes the presence of small, irregular, red
patches on the cheeks that will develop into single, yellow pimples on the chest or abdomen.
The name for this common neonatal skin condition is:
A. Milia
B. Neonatal acne
C. Erythema toxicum
D. Pustular melanosis
Answer: C. Erythema toxicum
21. The nurse completes an initial newborn examination on a baby boy at 90 minutes of age.
The baby was born at 40 weeks’ gestation with no birth trauma. The nurse’s findings include
the following parameters: heart rate, 136 beats per minute; respiratory rate, 64 breaths per
minute; temperature, 98.2°F (36.8°C); length, 49.5 cm; and weight, 3500 g. The nurse
documents the presence of a heart murmur, absence of bowel sounds, symmetry of ears and
eyes, no grunting or nasal flaring, and full range of movement of all extremities. Which
assessment would warrant further investigation and require immediate consultation with the
baby’s health-care provider?
A. Respiratory rate

B. Presence of a heart murmur
C. Absent bowel sounds
D. Weight
Answer: C. Absent bowel sounds
22. The nursery nurse notes the presence of diffuse edema on a baby girl’s head. Review of
the birth record indicates that her mother experienced a prolonged labor and difficult
childbirth. By the second day of life, the edema has disappeared. The nurse documents the
following condition in the infant’s chart.
A. Caput succedaneum
B. Cephalhematoma
C. Subperiosteal hemorrhage
D. Epstein pearls
Answer: A. Caput succedaneum
23. The perinatal nurse contacts the pediatrician about a heart murmur that was auscultated
during a routine newborn assessment. This finding would be abnormal at:
A. 8 to 12 hours
B. 12 to 24 hours
C. 24 to 48 hours
D. 48 to 72 hours
Answer: D. 48 to 72 hours
24. Heat loss through radiation can be reduced by:
A. Closing door to room
B. Warming equipment used on the neonate
C. Drying the neonate
D. Placing crib near a warm wall
Answer: D. Placing crib near a warm wall
Multiple Response
25. A healthy, full-term baby is scheduled for a circumcision. Nursing actions prior to the
procedure include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A. Obtain written consent from the mother.
B. Administer acetaminophen PO 1 hour before procedure per MD order.
C. Feed the neonate glucose water 30 minutes before the procedure.
D. Obtain the neonate’s pro-time.
Answer: A. Obtain written consent from the mother.
B. Administer acetaminophen PO 1 hour before procedure per MD order.
C. Feed the neonate glucose water 30 minutes before the procedure.
26. A first-time mother informs her nurse that another staff member came in and wanted to
take her baby to the nursery. The mother refused to let the woman take her baby because the
staff member did not have a picture ID. The nurse should do which of the following? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Praise the mother for not allowing a person without proper ID to take her baby.
B. Check with the nursery to see if a staff member was recently in the patient’s room.
C. Notify security of an unauthorized person in the unit.
D. Alert staff of the incident.
Answer: B. Check with the nursery to see if a staff member was recently in the patient’s
room.
C. Notify security of an unauthorized person in the unit.
D. Alert staff of the incident.
27. The clinical nurse recalls that the newborn has four mechanisms by which heat is lost
following birth: evaporation, conduction, convection, and radiation. Which of the following
are examples of heat lost via convection? (Select all that apply.)
A. An infant loses heat when not dried adequately after birth
B. An infant is placed on a cold scale
C. An infant is placed under a ceiling fan
D. An infant is placed near an open window
Answer: C. An infant is placed under a ceiling fan
D. An infant is placed near an open window
28. A perinatal nurse assesses a term newborn for respiratory functioning. The nurse knows
that which of the following conditions is normal for newborns? (Select all that apply.)
A. A respiratory rate of 60 to 80 breaths per minute

B. A breathing pattern that is often shallow, diaphragmatic, and irregular
C. Periodic episodes of apnea
D. The neonate’s lung sounds may sound moist during early auscultation
Answer: B. A breathing pattern that is often shallow, diaphragmatic, and irregular
D. The neonate’s lung sounds may sound moist during early auscultation
29. The perinatal nurse observed the pediatrician completing the Ballard Gestational Age by
Maturity Rating tool. The maturity components used with this assessment tool are (select all
that apply):
A. Physical
B. Behavioral
C. Reflexive
D. Neuromuscular
Answer: A. Physical
D. Neuromuscular
True/False
Chapter 16: Discharge Planning and Teaching
Multiple Choice
1. A nurse is making a home visit on the seventh postpartum day to assess a 23-year-old
primipara woman and her full-term, healthy baby. Breastfeeding is the method of infant
nutrition. The woman tells the nurse that she does not think her milk is good because it looks
very watery when she expresses a little before each feeding. The nurse’s best response is:
A. “This is normal. You only have to be concerned when your baby does not gain weight.”
B. “What types of foods are you eating? A lack of protein in the diet can cause watery
looking breast milk.”
C. “How much fluid are you drinking while you are nursing your baby? Too much fluid
during the feeding session can dilute the breast milk.”
D. “This is normal and is referred to as foremilk which is higher in water content. Later in the
feeding the fat content increases and the milk becomes richer in appearance.”
Answer: D. “This is normal and is referred to as foremilk which is higher in water content.
Later in the feeding the fat content increases and the milk becomes richer in appearance.”

2. A postpartum woman, who gave birth 12 hours ago, is breastfeeding her baby. She tells her
nurse that she is concerned that her baby is not getting enough food since her milk has not
come in. The best response for this patient is:
A. “I understand your concern, but your baby will be okay until your milk comes in.”
B. “Your baby seems content, so you should not worry about him getting enough to eat.”
C. “Milk normally comes in around the third day. Prior to that, he is getting colostrum which
is high in protein and immunoglobulins which are important for your baby’s health.”
D. “You can bottle feed until your milk comes in.”
Answer: C. “Milk normally comes in around the third day. Prior to that, he is getting
colostrum which is high in protein and immunoglobulins which are important for your baby’s
health.”
3. Which of the following positions for breastfeeding is preferred for a 2-day post-cesarean
birth woman?
A. Lying down on side
B. Sitting
C. Cradle
D. Cross-cradle
Answer: A. Lying down on side
4. Painful nipples are a major reason why women stop breastfeeding. A primary intervention
to decrease nipple irritation is:
A. Teaching proper techniques for latching-on and releasing of suction
B. Applying hot compresses to breast prior to feeding
C. Instructing woman to express colostrum or milk at the end of the feeding session and rub it
on her nipples
D. Air drying nipples for 10 minutes at the end of the feeding session
Answer: A. Teaching proper techniques for latching-on and releasing of suction
5. The nurse is developing a discharge teaching plan for a 21-year-old first-time mom. This
was an unplanned pregnancy. She had a prolonged labor and an early postpartum
hemorrhage. The woman plans to breastfeed her baby. She plans to return to work when her
baby is 3 months old. Based on this information, the three primary learning needs of this
woman are:

A. Breastfeeding, bathing of the newborn, and infant safety
B. Breastfeeding, storage of milk, and nutrition
C. Breastfeeding, contraception, infant safety
D. Breastfeeding, storage of milk, and rest
Answer: B. Breastfeeding, storage of milk, and nutrition
6. Instructions to a mother of an uncircumcised male infant should include which of the
following?
A. Instruct her to use a cotton swab to clean under the foreskin.
B. Instruct her to clean the penis by retracting the foreskin.
C. Instruct her to clean the penis with alcohol.
D. Instruct her not to retract the foreskin.
Answer: D. Instruct her not to retract the foreskin.
7. A mother of a 10-day-old infant calls the clinic and reports that her baby is having loose,
green stools. The mother is breastfeeding her infant. Which of the following is the best
nursing action?
A. Instruct the woman to bring her infant to the clinic.
B. Instruct the woman to decrease the amount of feeding for 24 hours and to call if the stools
continue to be loose.
C. Explain that this is a normal stool pattern.
D. Instruct the woman to eat a bland diet for the next 24 hours and call back if the stools
continue to be loose and green.
Answer: A. Instruct the woman to bring her infant to the clinic.
8. The perinatal nurse is teaching her new mother about breastfeeding and explains that the
most appropriate time to breastfeed is:
A. 3 to 4 hours after the last feeding
B. When her infant is in a quiet alert state
C. When her infant is in an active alert state
D. When her infant exhibits hunger-related crying
Answer: B. When her infant is in a quiet alert state

9. Felicity Chan, a new mother, is accompanied by her mother during her hospital stay on the
postpartum unit. Felicity’s mother makes specific, various requests of the nurses including
bringing warm tea, a cot to sleep on, and that the baby not be bathed at this time. Felicity’s
mother is also concerned about the amount of work that Felicity may be doing in the
provision of infant care. Felicity asks for help with breastfeeding. After Felicity has finished
breastfeeding, her mother asks for a bottle so they can warm it and “feed” the baby. How
would the perinatal nurse best respond to Felicity’s mother in a culturally sensitive way?
A. Ask Felicity’s mother to leave for 30 minutes to allow for some private time with Felicity
to explore her learning needs privately.
B. Ask both Felicity and her mother about the preferred infant feeding method, and assess
what they already know.
C. Convey to Felicity and her mother an understanding of the concepts of “hot” and “cold”
within their belief system.
D. Ask Felicity what she knows about breastfeeding, and provide information to both women
to support Felicity’s decision.
Answer: D. Ask Felicity what she knows about breastfeeding, and provide information to
both women to support Felicity’s decision.
10. A neonatal nurse caring for newborns knows that the best time for a mother to first
attempt breastfeeding is during which one of the following stages of activity?
A. First period of reactivity
B. First period of inactivity and sleep
C. Second period of reactivity
D. Second period of inactivity and sleep
Answer: A. First period of reactivity
11. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a 2-day-old neonate. Which of
the following information should be included in the discharge teaching on umbilical cord
care?
A. Cleanse the cord twice a day with hydrogen peroxide.
B. Remove the cord with sterile tweezers if the cord does not fall off by 10 days of age.
C. Call the doctor if greenish discharge appears.
D. Cover the cord with sterile dressing until it falls off.
Answer: C. Call the doctor if greenish discharge appears.

12. The nurse is teaching the parents of a 1-day-old baby how to give their baby a bath.
Which of the following actions should be included?
A. Clean the eye from the outer canthus to the inner canthus.
B. Keep the door of the room open to allow for ventilation.
C. Gather all supplies before beginning the bath.
D. Check the temperature of the water with your fingertip.
Answer: C. Gather all supplies before beginning the bath.
13. The nurse is teaching the parents of a female baby how to change a baby’s diapers.
Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
A. Always wipe the perineum from front to back.
B. Remove any vernix caseosa from the labia folds.
C. Put powder on the buttocks every time the baby stools.
D. Weigh every diaper in order to assess for hydration.
Answer: A. Always wipe the perineum from front to back.
14. The nurse is advising parents of a full-term neonate being discharged from the hospital
regarding car seat safety. Which of the following should be included in the teaching plan?
A. Put the car seat facing forward only after the baby reaches 20 pounds.
B. The infant car seat should be placed facing the rear seat in the front seat of the car.
C. A fist should fit between the straps of the seat and the baby’s body.
D. Seat belt adjusters should always be used to support infant car seats.
Answer: A. Put the car seat facing forward only after the baby reaches 20 pounds.
15. The nurse is teaching the parents of a healthy newborn about infant safety. Which of the
following should be included in the teaching plan?
A. Water temperature for the infant’s bath should be 39°C.
B. Crib slates should be a maximum of 3 inches apart.
C. Cover electrical outlets once the infant is crawling.
D. Remove strings from infant sleepwear.
Answer: D. Remove strings from infant sleepwear.
16. Which of the following statements indicates that a new mother needs additional teaching?

A. “I need to supervise my cat when she is in the same room as my baby.”
B. “I will place my baby on her back when she is sleeping.”
C. “I will not leave my baby on an elevated flat surface after she is able to turn over on her
own.”
D. “I have asked my husband to install safety latches on the lower cabinets.”
Answer: C. “I will not leave my baby on an elevated flat surface after she is able to turn over
on her own.”
Multiple Response
17. The let-down reflex occurs in response to the release of oxytocin. Which of the following
can stimulate the release of oxytocin? (Select all that apply.)
A. Prolactin release
B. Infant suckling
C. Infant crying
D. Sexual activity
Answer: B. Infant suckling
C. Infant crying
D. Sexual activity
18. Which of the following are disadvantages of bottle feeding? (Select all that apply.)
A. Hampers mother–infant attachment
B. Increases cost
C. Increases risk of infection
D. Increases risk of childhood obesity
Answer: B. Increases cost
C. Increases risk of infection
D. Increases risk of childhood obesity
19. The clinic nurse teaches expectant mothers about the differences between breast milk and
commercially prepared infant formulas. When compared to commercially prepared formulas,
breast milk has (select all that apply):
A. More carbohydrates
B. Less protein

C. Fewer nutrients
D. Less cholesterol
Answer: A. More carbohydrates
B. Less protein
20. The perinatal nurse is teaching the new mother who has chosen to formula feed her infant.
Appropriate instructions to be given to this mother include (select all that apply):
A. Mix the formula with hot water only.
B. Periodically check the nipple for slow flow.
C. Prepare only enough formula to last for 24 hours.
D. Discard any unused formula that remains in a bottle following use.
Answer: B. Periodically check the nipple for slow flow.
C. Prepare only enough formula to last for 24 hours.
D. Discard any unused formula that remains in a bottle following use.
21. The perinatal nurse describes infant feeding cues to a new mother. These feeding cues
include (select all that apply):
A. Vocalizations
B. Mouth movements
C. Moving the hand to the mouth
Answer: A. Vocalizations
B. Mouth movements
C. Moving the hand to the mouth
22. Typical signs of abusive head trauma (Shaken Baby Syndrome) include which of the
following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Broken clavicle
B. Poor feeding
C. Vomiting
D. Breathing problems
Answer: B. Poor feeding
C. Vomiting
D. Breathing problems

23. General skin care for full-term infants includes which of the following? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Avoid daily bathing with soap.
B. Use a cleanser with an alkaline pH.
C. Avoid fragrant soaps.
D. Apply petrolatum-based ointments sparingly to dry skin, but avoid head and face.
Answer: A. Avoid daily bathing with soap.
C. Avoid fragrant soaps.
D. Apply petrolatum-based ointments sparingly to dry skin, but avoid head and face.
24. A nurse is going to teach her postpartum patient about newborn bathing, diapering, and
swaddling. Which of the following indicates that the nurse incorporated teaching/learning
principles in her teaching plans? (Select all that apply.)
A. Asked family members to leave
B. Turned off TV
C. Closed the door of the room
D. Administered analgesics a few hours before teaching session
Answer: B. Turned off TV
C. Closed the door of the room
D. Administered analgesics a few hours before teaching session
True/False
Chapter 17: High-Risk Neonatal Nursing Care
Multiple Choice
1. A neonate is born at 33 weeks’ gestation with a birth weight of 2400 grams. This neonate
would be classified as:
A. Low birth weight
B. Very low birth weight
C. Extremely low birth weight
D. Very premature.
Answer: A. Low birth weight

2. A nurse assesses that a 3-day-old neonate who was born at 34 weeks’ gestation has
abdominal distention and vomiting. These assessment findings are most likely related to:
A. Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS)
B. Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (BPD)
C. Periventricular Hemorrhage (PVH)
D. Necrotizing Enterocolitis (NEC)
Answer: B. Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (BPD)
3. A full-term neonate who is 30 hours old has a bilirubin level of 10 mg/dL. The neonate has
a yellowish tint to the skin of the face. The mother is breastfeeding her newborn. The nurse
caring for this neonate would anticipate which of the following interventions?
A. Phototherapy
B. Feeding neonate every 2 to 3 hours
C. Switch from breastfeeding to bottle feeding
D. Assess red blood cell count
Answer: A. Phototherapy
B. Feeding neonate every 2 to 3 hours
4. A NICU nurse is caring for a full-term neonate being treated for group B streptococcus.
The mother of the neonate is crying and shares that she cannot understand how her baby
became infected. The best response by the nurse is:
A. “Newborns are more susceptible to infections due to an immature immune system. Would
you like additional information on the newborn immune system?”
B. “The infection was transmitted to your baby during the birthing process. Do you have a
history of sexual transmitted infections?”
C. “Approximately 10% to 30% of women are asymptomatic carries of group B
streptococcus which is found in the vaginal area. What other questions do you have regarding
your baby’s health?”
D. “I see that this is very upsetting for you. I will come back later and answer your
questions.”
Answer: C. “Approximately 10% to 30% of women are asymptomatic carries of group B
streptococcus which is found in the vaginal area. What other questions do you have regarding
your baby’s health?”

5. A nursery nurse observes that a full-term AGA neonate has nasal congestion, hypertonia,
and tremors and is extremely irritable. Based on these observations, the nurse suspects which
of the following?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Cold stress
D. Neonatal withdrawal
Answer: D. Neonatal withdrawal
6. The following four babies are in the neonatal nursery. Which of the babies should be seen
by the neonatologist as soon as possible?
A. 1-day-old, HR 170 bpm, crying
B. 2-day-old, T 98.9°F, slightly jaundice
C. 3-day-old, breastfeeding q 2 h, rooting
D. 4-day-old, RR 70 rpm, dusky coloring
Answer: D. 4-day-old, RR 70 rpm, dusky coloring
7. A multipara, 26 weeks’ gestation and accompanied by her husband, has just delivered a
fetal demise. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate at this time?
A. Encourage the parents to pray for the baby’s soul.
B. Advise the parents that it is better for the baby to have died than to have had to live with a
defect.
C. Encourage the parents to hold the baby.
D. Advise the parents to refrain from discussing the baby’s death with their other children.
Answer: C. Encourage the parents to hold the baby.
8. The nurse is assessing a baby girl on admission to the newborn nursery. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the neonatologist?
A. Intermittent strabismus
B. Startling
C. Grunting
D. Vaginal bleeding
Answer: C. Grunting

9. It is noted that the amniotic fluid of a 42-week gestation baby, born 30 seconds ago, is
thick and green. Which of the following actions by the nurse is critical at this time?
A. Perform a gavage feeding immediately.
B. Assess the brachial pulse.
C. Assist a physician with intubation.
D. Stimulate the baby to cry.
Answer: C. Assist a physician with intubation.
10. A 42-week gestation neonate is admitted to the NICU (neonatal intensive care unit). This
neonate is at risk for which complication?
A. Meconium aspiration syndrome
B. Failure to thrive
C. Necrotizing enterocolitis
D. Intraventricular hemorrhage
Answer: A. Meconium aspiration syndrome
11. A 1-day-old neonate in the well-baby nursery is suspected of suffering from drug
withdrawal because he is markedly hyper reflexic and is exhibiting which of the following
additional sign or symptom?
A. Prolonged periods of sleep
B. Hypovolemic anemia
C. Repeated bouts of diarrhea
D. Pronounced pustular rash
Answer: C. Repeated bouts of diarrhea
12. A baby boy was just born to a mother who had positive vaginal cultures for group B
streptococci. The mother was admitted to the labor room 30 minutes before the birth. For
which of the following should the nursery nurse closely observe this baby?
A. Grunting
B. Acrocyanosis
C. Pseudostrabismus
D. Hydrocele
Answer: A. Grunting

13. The laboratory reported that the L/S ratio (lecithin/sphingomyelin) results from an
amniocentesis of a gravid client with preeclampsia are 2:1. The nurse interprets the result as
which of the following?
A. The baby’s lung fields are mature.
B. The mother is high risk for hemorrhage.
C. The baby’s kidneys are functioning poorly.
D. The mother is high risk for eclampsia.
Answer: A. The baby’s lung fields are mature.
14. Which of the following neonatal signs or symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a
neonate with an elevated bilirubin level?
A. Low glucose
B. Poor feeding
C. Hyperactivity
D. Hyperthermia
Answer: B. Poor feeding
15. The perinatal nurse is assisting the student nurse with completion of documentation. The
laboring woman has just given birth to a 2700 gram infant at 36 weeks’ gestation. The most
appropriate term for this is:
A. Preterm birth
B. Term birth
C. Small for gestational age infant
D. Large for gestational age infant
Answer: A. Preterm birth
16. The NICU nurse recognizes that respiratory distress syndrome results from a
developmental lack of:
A. Lecithin
B. Calcium
C. Surfactant
D. Magnesium
Answer: C. Surfactant

17. The NICU nurse is providing care to a 35-week-old infant who has been in the neonatal
intensive care unit for the past 3 weeks. His mother wants to breastfeed her son naturally but
is currently pumping her breasts to obtain milk. His mother is concerned that she is only
producing about 1 ounce of milk every 3 hours. The nurse’s best response to the patient’s
mother would be:
A. “Pumping is hard work and you are doing very well. It is good to get about 1 ounce of
milk every 3 hours.”
B. “Natural breastfeeding will be a challenging goal for your baby. Beginning today, you will
need to begin to pump your breasts more often.”
C. “Your baby will not be ready to go home for at least another week. You can begin to pump
more often in the next few days in preparation for taking your child home.”
D. “You have been working hard to give your son your breast milk. We can map out a
schedule to help you begin today to pump more often to prepare to take your baby home.”
Answer: D. “You have been working hard to give your son your breast milk. We can map out
a schedule to help you begin today to pump more often to prepare to take your baby home.”
18. A nurse is caring for a 2-day-old neonate who was born at 31 weeks’ gestation. The
neonate has a diagnosis of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which of the following
medical treatments would the nurse anticipate for this neonate? (Select all that apply.)
A. Exogenous surfactant
B. Corticosteroids
C. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
D. Bronchodilators
Answer: A. Exogenous surfactant
C. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
19. Which of the following factors increases the risk of necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) in
very premature neonates? (Select all that apply.)
A. Early oral feedings with formula
B. Prolonged use of mechanical ventilation
C. Hyperbilirubinemia
D. Nasogastic feedings
Answer: A. Early oral feedings with formula
D. Nasogastic feedings

20. Nursing actions that decrease the risk of skin breakdown include which of the following?
(Select all that apply.)
A. Using gelled mattresses
B. Using emollients in groin and thigh areas
C. Using transparent dressings
D. Drying thoroughly
Answer: A. Using gelled mattresses
B. Using emollients in groin and thigh areas
C. Using transparent dressings
21. Nursing actions that minimize oxygen demands in the neonate include which of the
following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Providing frequent rest breaks when feeding
B. Placing neonate on back for sleeping
C. Maintaining a neutral thermal environment (NTE)
D. Clustering nursing care
Answer: C. Maintaining a neutral thermal environment (NTE)
D. Clustering nursing care
22. A nurse is caring for a 10-day-old neonate who was born at 33 weeks’ gestation. Which of
the following actions assist the nurse in assessing for signs of feeding tolerance? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Check for presence of bowel sounds
B. Assess temperature
C. Check gastric residual by aspirating stomach contents
D. Assess stools
Answer: A. Check for presence of bowel sounds
C. Check gastric residual by aspirating stomach contents
D. Assess stools
23. Which of the following are common assessment findings of postmature neonates? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Dry and peeling skin

B. Abundant vernix caseosa
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Thin, wasted appearance
Answer: A. Dry and peeling skin
B. Abundant vernix caseosa
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Thin, wasted appearance
24. A nurse is caring for a 40 weeks’ gestation neonate. The neonate is 12 hours post-birth
and has been admitted to the NICU for meconium aspiration. The nurse recalls that the
following are potential complications related to meconium aspiration (select all that apply):
A. Obstructed airway
B. Hyperinflation of the alveoli
C. Hypoinflation of the alveoli
D. Decreased surfactant proteins
Answer: A. Obstructed airway
B. Hyperinflation of the alveoli
D. Decreased surfactant proteins
25. A nurse is completing the initial assessment on a neonate of a mother with type I diabetes.
Important assessment areas for this neonate include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Assessment of cardiovascular system
B. Assessment of respiratory system
C. Assessment of musculoskeletal system
D. Assessment of neurological system
Answer: A. Assessment of cardiovascular system
B. Assessment of respiratory system
C. Assessment of musculoskeletal system
D. Assessment of neurological system
26. A baby was born 4 days ago at 34 weeks’ gestation. She is receiving phototherapy as
ordered by the physician for physiological jaundice. She has symptoms of temperature

instability, dry skin, poor feeding, lethargy, and irritability. The nurse’s priority nursing
action(s) is (are) to (select all that apply):
A. Verify laboratory results to check for hypomagnesia.
B. Verify laboratory results to check for hypoglycemia.
C. Monitor the baby’s temperature to check for hypothermia.
D. Calculate 24-hour intake and output to check for dehydration.
Answer: C. Monitor the baby’s temperature to check for hypothermia.
D. Calculate 24-hour intake and output to check for dehydration.
27. The perinatal nurse caring for Emily, a 24-year-old mother of an infant born at 26 weeks’
gestation, is providing discharge teaching. Emily is going to travel to the specialty center
approximately 200 miles away where her daughter is receiving care. The nurse tells Emily
that it is normal for Emily to feel (select all that apply):
A. In control
B. Anxious
C. Guilty
D. Overwhelmed
Answer: B. Anxious
C. Guilty
D. Overwhelmed
28. A baby has just been admitted into the neonatal intensive care unit with a diagnosis of
intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). Which of the following maternal problems could have
resulted in this complication? (Select all that apply.)
A. Cholecystitis
B. Hypertension
C. Cigarette smoker
D. Candidiasis
E. Cerebral palsy
Answer: B. Hypertension
C. Cigarette smoker
Chapter 18: Well Women’s Health
Multiple Response

1. Physical activity can lower a woman’s risk for (select all that apply):
A. Endometriosis
B. Depression
C. Colon cancer
D. Arthritis
Answer: B. Depression
C. Colon cancer
Rationale:
According to the US Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Women’s Health,
physical activity can lower a woman’s risk for heart disease, type 2 diabetes, colon cancer,
breast cancer, falls, and depression.
2. During a routine physical of a 31-year-old non-Hispanic black woman, it was noted that
the woman’s BMI is 32, her only exercise is taking care of her two children, her last Pap test
was 2 years ago, and her last clinical breast exam was 2 years ago. Based on this information
the woman (select all that apply):
A. Needs to be scheduled for a Pap test
B. Needs to be scheduled for a clinical breast exam
C. Is at risk for type 2 diabetes
D. Is at risk for depression
Answer: C. Is at risk for type 2 diabetes
D. Is at risk for depression
3. Excessive drinking places the woman at risk for (select all that apply):
A. Suicide
B. Stroke
C. Breast cancer
D. Menstrual disorders
Answer: A. Suicide
B. Stroke
C. Breast cancer

4. The woman’s health clinic nurse is providing information to a 21-year-old woman who is
being scheduled for a pelvic exam and Pap test. This information should include (select all
that apply):
A. The Pap test is a diagnostic test for cervical cancer.
B. The woman should not use tampons or vaginal medication or engage in sexual intercourse
within 48 hours of the exam.
C. The best time to have a Pap test is 5 days after the menstrual period has ended.
D. The woman should have a yearly Pap test.
Answer: B. The woman should not use tampons or vaginal medication or engage in sexual
intercourse within 48 hours of the exam.
C. The best time to have a Pap test is 5 days after the menstrual period has ended.
5. A 60-year-old woman is scheduled for a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry scan (DXA).
The woman’s health clinic nurse should provide the following information:
A. DXA is a diagnostic test for osteoporosis.
B. DXA measures the bone density of the hip, spine, and forearm.
C. The T score is a comparison of the woman’s bone density with that of other women her
age.
D. Osteoporosis can cause a stooped posture.
Answer: A. DXA is a diagnostic test for osteoporosis.
B. DXA measures the bone density of the hip, spine, and forearm.
D. Osteoporosis can cause a stooped posture.
Rationale:
Answers a, b, and d are true statements. A T-score is a comparison of the woman’s bone
density with that of a woman 30 years of age and the same race.
8. Which of the following women is at highest risk for osteoporosis?
A. A 70-year-old non-Hispanic white woman who has smoked for 50 years
B. A 70-year-old non-Hispanic black woman who is a heavy drinker
C. A 60-year-old Asian woman who takes steroids to treat SLE
D. A 70-year-old Hispanic woman who has had weight loss surgery
Answer: A. A 70-year-old non-Hispanic white woman who has smoked for 50 years
Multiple Choice

9. A 65-year-old woman is complaining of jaw pain, nausea, shortness of breath without chest
pain, and sweating. These are warning signs of:
A. Heart attack
B. Stroke
C. Diabetes
D. Dental disease
Answer: A. Heart attack
10. Which of the following foods is highest in calcium?
A. An 8 oz. glass of milk
B. A 1.5 oz. piece of cheddar cheese
C. An 8 oz. container of plain, low-fat yogurt
D. A 3 oz. piece of salmon
Answer: C. An 8 oz. container of plain, low-fat yogurt
Chapter 19: Alterations in Women’s Health
Multiple Response
1. Postoperative nursing care for a woman who had a total hysterectomy includes (select all
that apply):
A. Administering hormone replacement therapy as per MD orders
B. Informing the woman that she will experience small amounts of vaginal bleeding for
several days
C. Instructing the woman to use tampons
D. Instructing the woman to increase her ambulation to facilitate return of normal intestinal
peristalsis
Answer: B. Informing the woman that she will experience small amounts of vaginal bleeding
for several days
D. Instructing the woman to increase her ambulation to facilitate return of normal intestinal
peristalsis
2. Menorrhagia may result from (select all that apply):
A. Anovulatory cycle

B. Metritis
C. Anorexia
D. Emotional distress
Answer: A. Anovulatory cycle
B. Metritis
3. Secondary amenorrhea results from (select all that apply):
A. Polycystic ovary syndrome
B. Diabetes
C. Metritis
D. Pregnancy
Answer: A. Polycystic ovary syndrome
B. Diabetes
D. Pregnancy
4. During a health visit, a 23-year-old patient shares with her health-care provider that she has
been experiencing a yellowish mucus vaginal discharge, pain during sexual intercourse, and
burning on urination. A culture of the cervical epithelial cells is obtained. Based on the
patient information, the culture is obtained to assist in the diagnosis of which of the
following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Chlamydia
B. Gonorrhea
C. Genital herpes
D. Syphilis
Answer: A. Chlamydia
B. Gonorrhea
5. A woman who is receiving radiation therapy for treatment of stage I cervical cancer is
experiencing diarrhea. She contacts the oncology advice nurse. The advice nurse recommends
that the woman (select all that apply):
A. Eat five or six small meals a day instead of three large meals
B. Eat cooked vegetables instead of raw vegetables
C. Use baby wipes instead of toilet paper
D. Reduce fluid intake to four glasses of water

Answer: A. Eat five or six small meals a day instead of three large meals
B. Eat cooked vegetables instead of raw vegetables
C. Use baby wipes instead of toilet paper
6. A primary topic for health promotion for a 25-year-old woman with a history of polycystic
ovary syndrome is (select the most important topic):
A. The adverse effects of cigarette smoking
B. The adverse effects of excessive alcohol consumption
C. Nutrition
D. Self-esteem issues
Answer: C. Nutrition
7. Which of the following is correct regarding endometriosis?
A. The physical symptoms of endometriosis can affect the woman’s mental health.
B. The abnormal tissue bleeds into surrounding tissue during the secretory stage of the
menstrual cycle.
C. Endometriosis causes sterility.
D. Metronidazole is used to treat endometriosis.
Answer: A. The physical symptoms of endometriosis can affect the woman’s mental health.
8. The daughter of an 85-year-old woman informs the doctor that her mother has suddenly
become disoriented/confused and that she is dizzy and having difficulty with her balance.
She is agitated and has fallen twice in the last 24 hours. The patient’s blood pressure and VS
are within normal limits. Her medications include Synthroid, Lisinopril, and Crestor. Based
on this data, the woman is most likely experiencing:
A. Stroke
B. Beginning stages of dementia
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Adverse reaction to her medications
Answer: C. Urinary tract infection
9. A total hysterectomy is the removal of:
A. The uterus
B. The uterus and cervix

C. The uterus, cervix, fallopian tubes, and ovaries
D. The uterus, cervix, fallopian tubes, ovaries, upper portion of the vagina, and lymph nodes
Answer: B. The uterus and cervix
VERSION 2
ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBERN OB EXAM
1. When caring for a client diagnosed with placenta previa, the nurse should expect to
observe which of the following?
A. Firm, rigid abdomen
B. Uterine hypertonicity
C. Painless, vaginal bleeding
D. Nonreassuring fetal heart ton
Answer: C. Painless, vaginal bleeding
2. A nurse working in a prenatal clinic should recognize that which of the following clients
has a contraindication to a contraction stress test?
A. A client with a previous stillbirth
B. A client with maternal diabetes mellitus
C. A client who had a nonreactive nonstress test
D. A client with a previous classical incision
Answer: A. A client with a previous stillbirth
3. A nurse is performing Leopold's maneuvers as part of the assessment of a client who is at
39 weeks of gestation and is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Identify the
sequence of steps the nurse should take. (Move the maneuvers into the box on the right,
placing them in the selected order of performance. All steps must be used.)
A. Outline the fetal head.
B. Palpate the fetal back.
C. Identify the fetal parts occupying the fundus
D. Determine the fetal part over the pelvic inlet.
Answer: C. Identify the fetal parts occupying the fundus
B. Palpate the fetal back.
D. Determine the fetal part over the pelvic inlet.

A. Outline the fetal head.
4. When assessing a client in true labor, the nurse should expect which of the following
characteristics?
A. The contractions felt by the client occur irregularly.
B. The cervix is soft without effacement.
C. The contractions become stronger with walking.
D. The cervix is found in the posterior position.
Answer: C. The contractions become stronger with walking.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is pregnant and has a history of irregular periods. The
nurse should recognize that which of the following assessment findings will reveal the most
accurate date of birth for this client?
A. Näegele's rule
B. Ultrasound
C. Fetal heart tones
D. Quickening
Answer: B. Ultrasound
6. A client requests rubbing alcohol for cord care for her newborn. The nurse should explain
that rubbing alcohol should not be used for cord care because it
A. is painful for the newborn.
B. will mask signs of infection.
C. delays cord separation.
D. causes skin discoloration.
Answer: C. delays cord separation.
7. A female adolescent presents to a family care clinic reporting unprotected sexual
intercourse the previous evening. Which of the following is the priority nursing assessment?
A. Last menstrual cycle date
B. Family support
C. Emotional response
D. Information about sexual partner
Answer: A. Last menstrual cycle date

8. A client who is pregnant is unsure of the first day of her last menstrual period. The nurse
determines the client's fundal height to be 26 cm. The client is most likely to deliver in how
many weeks?
A. 8
B. 11
C. 14
D. 26
Answer: B. 11
9. When providing culturally sensitive care in the perinatal environment, which of the
following actions by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Encourage fathers to be present during labor and delivery.
B. Abide by the client's health care beliefs and practices.
C. Refrain from stereotypical assumptions.
D. Make eye contact with the client when communicating.
Answer: B. Abide by the client's health care beliefs and practices.
10. A nurse is planning teaching sessions for clients in a childbirth class. Which of the
following possible warning signs should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately?
A. Increased vaginal leukorrhea
B. Swollen face and hands
C. Shortness of breath
D. Lower back pain
Answer: B. Swollen face and hands
11. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client regarding newborn care. For which
of the following should the nurse instruct the client to contact the primary care provider?
A. The infant has less than six wet diapers in 24 hr.
B. The infant sleeps 16 hr a day.
C. The infant's cord is still attached after 1 week.
D. The infant has loose stools.
Answer: A. The infant has less than six wet diapers in 24 hr.

12. A nurse is providing instruction to a client who is receiving homecare for preeclampsia.
The nurse knows the client understands the teaching when the client states which of the
following? (Select all that apply.)
A. "I can continue to drink my ice tea throughout the day."
B. "I need to lie on my back as much as possible."
C. "I will only get up to use the restroom."
D. "I will eat a high-protein, high-fat diet."
E. "I will do gentle exercises of hands and feet."
F. "I will restrict my calcium intake."
Answer: B. "I need to lie on my back as much as possible."
D. "I will eat a high-protein, high-fat diet."
E. "I will do gentle exercises of hands and feet."
13. A nurse is performing a discharge assessment on a newborn. Identify the area the nurse
should stroke to elicit the Babinski's reflex. (Move your cursor over the artwork until it
changes – usually into a hand – indicating a “Hot Spot,” or selectable area. Click on the Hot
Spot that corresponds to the correct answer.)
Answer:

14. A nurse should recognize that a client whose mother is not pleased about her pregnancy
will likely
A. doubt her own ability to be a good mother.
B. demonstrate poor parenting skills.
C. draw closer to her mother for support.
D. have decreased access to prenatal care.
Answer: B. demonstrate poor parenting skills.
15. Which of the following responses in the postpartum period should cause a nurse the most
concern?
A. Hispanic woman who insists her sister care for her
B. Haitian woman who has refrigerated her placenta to take home
C. Muslim woman who refuses to wear a hospital gown
D. Korean woman who does not participate in self-care
Answer: D. Korean woman who does not participate in self-care
16. A nurse is planning to teach a group of women who are pregnant about breastfeeding their
newborns after returning to work. Which of the following should the nurse include in the
instructions?
A. Breast milk can be stored at room temperature for up to 12 hr.
B. Thawed breast milk can be refrigerated for up to 72 hr.
C. Breast milk can be stored in a deep freeze for 12 months.
D. Thawed breast milk that is unused can be refrozen.
Answer: A. Breast milk can be stored at room temperature for up to 12 hr.
17. A woman at term gestation presents to the obstetric department with contractions
occurring every 3 min and lasting 60 seconds. The client states, "My water broke 1 hr ago."
Which of the following nursing interventions is the highest priority?
A. Calculate estimated date of delivery.
B. Determine duration and frequency of contractions.
C. Perform leopold’s maneuvers
D. Assess fetal heart rate
Answer: D. Assess fetal heart rate

18. A client who delivered 6 hr ago is telling the nurse and her partner about her vaginal
delivery without an epidural. After the nurse brings the newborn into the room, the client
smiles and asks her partner to take the newborn while she eats. The nurse determines that the
client's behavior demonstrates
A. taking-hold phase and is normal behavior.
B. taking-in phase and is normal behavior.
C. taking-hold phase and is behavior for concern.
D. taking-in phase and is behavior for concern.
Answer: B. taking-in phase and is normal behavior.
19. Which of the following findings in a neonate 4 hr after delivery should the nurse
recognize as a concern?
A. Heart rate of 130/min
B. Respiratory rate of 20/min
C. Acrocyanosis
D. Temperature of 36.5° C (98.0° F)
Answer: B. Respiratory rate of 20/min
20. A nurse is assessing a client with mild pre-eclampsia at her prenatal visit. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the primary care provider?
A. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+
B. Urine protein of 3+
C. Blood glucose of 110 mg/dL
D. Hemoglobin of 13 g/dL
Answer: B. Urine protein of 3+
21. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation presents to the clinic for an amniocentesis. Which
of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?
A. "You will need to drink 3 to 5 glasses of water to fill your bladder."
B. "This procedure will not cause rupture of membranes or premature labor."
C. "You will feel light pressure when blood is drawn from the baby."
D. "You will experience some discomfort when the needle is inserted to test for lung
maturity."

Answer: D. "You will experience some discomfort when the needle is inserted to test for
lung maturity."
22. Which of the following client data obtained from an annual physical exam should indicate
to the nurse that the client has a contraindication to using hormonal contraceptives?
A. History of frequent urinary tract infections
B. Glucose of 116 mg/dL
C. Elevated cholesterol
D. History of deep vein thrombosis
Answer: B. Glucose of 116 mg/dL
23. A client is performing a return bath demonstration on a newborn for a nurse.
Which of the following actions by the client will require intervention by the nurse?
A. Cleanses the newborn's eyes from the inner canthus outward
B. Removes the newborn's blanket and clothing before washing the scalp
C. Washes the newborn's skin with soap and water
D. Bathes the newborn's body, ending with the genitalia
Answer: C. Washes the newborn's skin with soap and water
24. A client presents to a prenatal clinic at 10 weeks of gestation with reports of nausea and
vomiting several times a day for the past 3 weeks. The client has lost weight since her last
visit, appears dehydrated, and has a urine dipstick that is positive for ketones. The nurse
should recognize that these signs and symptoms are consistent with
A. morning sickness.
B. hyperemesis gravidarum.
C. gestational diabetes mellitus.
D. gestational hypertension.
Answer: A. morning sickness.
25. Which of the following should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a
postpartum client following a vaginal delivery?
A. "You should expect to feel down for at least 6 weeks."
B. "You can resume your usual activity once you are discharged."
C. "You need to take showers until your follow-up postpartum visit."

D. "You may resume sexual intercourse once bleeding has stopped."
Answer: A. "You should expect to feel down for at least 6 weeks."
26. A nurse is assessing a client who delivered 6 hr ago. Which of the following findings
should the nurse recognize as the highest priority?
A. Pulse of 62/min and blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg
B. Perineal pad saturated in 15 min
C. Skin that is pale and cool
D. 2+ edema in the lower extremities
Answer: C. Skin that is pale and cool
27. Following spinal anesthesia administered for pain control during delivery, a client
experiences a post dural puncture headache. An epidural blood patch is performed. Along
with vital signs, which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate taking?
A. Administer NSAIDs.
B. Place on bedrest.
C. Apply warm packs.
D. Give antibiotics.
Answer: A. Administer NSAIDs.
28. One hour after delivery a client starts passing blood clots larger than a quarter with bright
red bleeding. Vital signs reveal an increase in pulse rate and a decrease in blood pressure. The
nurse should first
A. massage the fundus.
B. apply oxygen at 2 L/min
C. increase the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion.
D. reposition the client.
Answer: A. massage the fundus.
29. A nurse is assessing a full-term newborn 1 hr after a vaginal delivery. Which of the
following assessment findings is considered normal?
A. The newborn’s head circumference is greater than the chest circumference
B. The newborn’s umbilical cord contains two umbilical veins and one artery.
C. The newborn has a heart rate of 90/min while sleeping.

D. The newborn’s anterior fontanel bulges when he is quiet.
Answer: B. The newborn’s umbilical cord contains two umbilical veins and one artery.
30. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. In which
of the following situations should the nurse expect to discontinue the oxytocin?
A. Contractions lasting 60 seconds
B. Occurrence of nonrepetitive early decelerations
C. No uterine relaxation between contractions
D. Moderate variability of fetal heart rate
Answer: C. No uterine relaxation between contractions
31. Upon immediate placement of an external fetal monitor, the nurse observes variable
deceleration. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse recognize as the
highest priority?
A. Readjust the ultrasound transducer.
B. Reposition the client to a side-lying position.
C. Increase the rate of IV fluids.
D. Apply oxygen via a tight face mask.
Answer: B. Reposition the client to a side-lying position.
32. A client who is at 13 weeks of gestation comes to the clinic and is diagnosed with
hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following assessments should most concern the
nurse?
A. Vomiting of bile in the morning
B. Ketones of 2+
C. Specific gravity of 1.025
D. BUN of 20 mg/dL
Answer: D. BUN of 20 mg/dL
33. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about the difference between true and false labor at
term and when to report to the hospital. Which of the following responses by a participant
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will come to the hospital as soon as my contractions start."
B. "I will remain at home even if I pass my mucous plug."

C. "I will wait until my contractions become regular at rest."
D. "I will come in if my contractions get stronger and closer together."
Answer: A. "I will come to the hospital as soon as my contractions start."
34. A full-term newborn is receiving phototherapy. When providing care to this newborn, the
nurse should keep the newborn supine throughout treatment.
A. Keep the newborn supine throughout treatment
B. avoid using lotion or ointment on the newborn's skin.
C. dress the newborn in lightweight clothing.
D. monitor the newborn’s temperature every 8 hr.
Answer: B. avoid using lotion or ointment on the newborn's skin.
35. A nurse is providing teaching to a postpartum client about self-care measures following a
median episiotomy. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of
the teaching?
A. "I will expect an increase in swelling as the stitched area heals."
B. "I will use a peri-bottle filled with cold water to rinse my vaginal area after I urinate."
C. "I will cleanse myself after each bowel movement by wiping in a circular motion with a
moist cloth."
D. "I will apply an ice pack to the stitched area as needed to relieve pain."
Answer: D. "I will apply an ice pack to the stitched area as needed to relieve pain."
36. A nurse is providing discharge teaching regarding circumcision care to a client whose
newborn has undergone a clamp procedure. Which of the following statements indicates to
the nurse that the client understands the teaching?
A. "I will apply petroleum jelly to my baby's penis for the first day."
B. "I will use premoistened towelettes to clean my baby's penis."
C. "I will remove the yellow exudate when I clean my baby's penis."
D. "I will wrap my baby's penis in gauze until it heals."
Answer: B. "I will use premoistened towelettes to clean my baby's penis."
37. A nurse is precepting a graduate nurse who is performing a prenatal assessment on a
client who is an immigrant. The nurse should realize that the graduate nurse needs further

instruction on providing culturally competent care when which of the following is
demonstrated?
A. Uses similar communication techniques as the client
B. Directs questions to the client with an interpreter present
C. Discusses her own cultural beliefs with the client
D. Takes time with the client when responding to prevent misunderstandings
Answer: C. Discusses her own cultural beliefs with the client
38. A client is admitted to labor and delivery and states she will be using hypnosis to control
labor pain. Which of the following should the nurse tell the client about hypnosis?
A. "Hypnosis is beneficial if you practiced it during the prenatal period."
B. "You will be responsible for the outcome of hypnosis."
C. "Hypnosis does not work with pain associated with labor."
D. "Synchronized breathing will be required during hypnosis."
Answer: A. "Hypnosis is beneficial if you practiced it during the prenatal period."
39. A nurse is teaching a client about diaphragm use. Which of the following should be
included in the teaching?
A. "Your diaphragm should be replaced once a year."
B. "Examine your diaphragm under a light to check for pinholes."
C. "Spermicidal lubricant is not necessary when using a diaphragm."
D. "You can remove your diaphragm 2 hr after intercourse."
Answer: D. "You can remove your diaphragm 2 hr after intercourse."
40. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 18 weeks of gestation about prenatal care. The nurse
knows that teaching has been effective when the client states,
A. "I can continue to take hot baths using my lavender soap."
B. "I'll delay my dental care until I deliver to avoid preterm labor."
C. "I will exercise for 30 min at a time to keep my heart rate up."
D. "I'll pull my toes toward my knees to relieve leg cramps."
Answer: A. "I can continue to take hot baths using my lavender soap."
41. A nurse is caring for a newborn who was exposed to maternal opiate abuse in utero.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Dress the newborn in a shirt and diaper to reduce overheating.
B. Rock the newborn gently during feedings to calm him.
C. Avoid gavage feedings due to the risk of aspiration.
D. Minimize environmental noise to avoid stimulation.
Answer: C. Avoid gavage feedings due to the risk of aspiration.
42. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation with gestational diabetes mellitus presents to the
hospital for evaluation and induction of labor. The primary care provider asks the nurse to
determine the client's Bishop score. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
first?
A. Start an IV.
B. Perform a vaginal exam.
C. Assess blood glucose.
D. Monitor fetal heart rate.
Answer: B. Perform a vaginal exam.
C. Assess blood glucose.
43. A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse to the postpartum unit. Which of the following
actions by the newly licensed nurse indicates a need for further teaching?
A. The newly licensed nurse familiarizes the significant other to the unit procedures.
B. The newly licensed nurse asks the client to state her name.
C. The newly licensed nurse carries the infant while ambulating the client to the nursery.
D. The newly licensed nurse instructs the client to check the identity of staff who enter the
room.
Answer: C. The newly licensed nurse carries the infant while ambulating the client to the
nursery.
44. A client is at 40 weeks of gestation and weighs 109 kg (240 lb). She is 2 cm/-1 station and
90% effaced with clear fluid. The nurse is having difficulty monitoring the fetal heart rate
with an external monitor. Which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate taking
next?
A. Turn the client and apply fetal scalp electrode.
B. Turn the client and relocate ultrasound transducer.
C. Reposition the client and apply intrauterine pressure catheter.

D. Reposition the client and relocate the Toco transducer.
Answer: D. Reposition the client and relocate the toco-transducer.
45. A nurse is providing care to a newborn who is to receive a vitamin K injection. Which of
the following actions by the graduate nurse indicates a need for further instruction?
A. Selects the dorsogluteal site to administer the injection
B. Cleans the injection site with alcohol
C. Grasps the newborn's muscle firmly between the thumb and forefinger
D. Aspirates the syringe for blood return after needle insertion
Answer: A. Selects the dorsogluteal site to administer the injection
B. Cleans the injection site with alcohol
46. A nurse is assessing a postpartum client who had a cesarean birth. The nurse finds a
warm, erythematous area in the client's right lower extremity and immediately
notifies the primary care provider. Which of the following orders by the provider should the
nurse question?
A. Give the client an NSAID.
B. Apply ice packs to the affected area.
C. Initiate continuous IV heparin.
D. Place the client on bedrest with leg elevated.
Answer: A. Give the client an NSAID.
47. A nurse is caring for a client in the fourth stage of labor. Which of the following is the
priority nursing assessment for this client?
A. Engorgement
B. Hypothermia
C. Excessive fatigue
D. Urinary retention
Answer: D. Urinary retention
48. A nurse is performing an assessment on a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation. Which of
the following fetal heart rate patterns should cause the greatest concern to the nurse?
A. 130 to 135/min with moderate variability
B. 130 to 135/min with accelerations

C. 150 to 155/min with occasional early decelerations
D. 150 to 155/min with absent variability
Answer: B. 130 to 135/min with accelerations
49. A nurse is discussing contraceptive choices with a 40-year-old client with a history of
thrombophlebitis. Which of the following is the best choice for this client?
A. Intrauterine device
B. Combination pill
C. Tubal ligation
D. Depo-Provera injection
Answer: A. Intrauterine device
50. A client in active labor has been breathing and relaxing effectively with contractions. She
develops back pain as labor progresses. Which of the following interventions should the
nurse suggest to the client's partner to assist with relieving the pain?
A. Apply firm pressure on the lower back.
B. Perform rhythmic stroking of the lower back.
C. Use cool compresses on the lower back.
D. Place a pillow under the lower back while supine.
Answer: D. Place a pillow under the lower back while supine.
51. A client in the first trimester reports to the nurse that she finds herself crying one moment
and laughing the next. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
A. Tell the client that these are normal responses.
B. Refer the client to the family planning clinic for counseling.
C. Contact the primary care provider for an antidepressant prescription.
D. Encourage the client to avoid caffeine throughout the pregnancy.
Answer: A. Tell the client that these are normal responses.
52. A woman who is 39 weeks pregnant presents to the emergency department with reports of
straw-colored fluid leakage when she coughs or bears down. Which of the following
Nitrazine test paper results indicates the client has experienced spontaneous rupture of
membranes?
A. Blue with a pH of 7.4

B. Blue with a pH of 6.0
C. Yellow with a pH of 7.4
D. Yellow with a pH of 6.0
Answer: A. Blue with a pH of 7.4
53. A new mother asks the nurse why the infant car seat cannot be placed in the front seat.
Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
A. "Placing the infant car seat in the back of the car reduces sun exposure to the infant."
B. "Having an infant car seat in the front seat is distracting to the driver."
C. "Seat belts in the back seat of the car are built stronger."
D. "The force of an airbag striking the infant car seat could cause injury to the infant."
Answer: D. "The force of an airbag striking the infant car seat could cause injury to the
infant."
54. A nurse is conducting a perinatal education class about comfort measures during labor
and delivery. The nurse knows teaching has been effective when the client states,
A. "I should ask for a pain shot right before the baby is born."
B. "When I reach 8 to 10 centimeters I will be able to better focus on my breathing."
C. "If I have an emergency cesarean birth, I will receive general anesthesia."
D. "I can moan and sway during labor to assist with pain relief."
Answer: D. "I can moan and sway during labor to assist with pain relief."
55. A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hr postpartum with increased lochia. Which of the
following assessments should the nurse recognize as the highest priority?
A. Fundus tonicity
B. Bladder position
C. Vital signs
D. IV placement
Answer: A. Fundus tonicity
56. A nurse is assessing a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy. Which of the
following is an expected finding regarding body image changes?
A. Client is pleased with the changes in her body.
B. Client perceptions of self frequently fluctuate.

C. Client experiences a permanent change in her self-perception.
D. Client has a decreased sensitivity to others.
Answer: B. Client perceptions of self frequently fluctuate.
57. A client who is at 33 weeks of gestation is admitted to the labor unit with a diagnosis of
placenta previa. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
A. A nonstress test twice a week
B. Routine vaginal exams
C. Ambulation as tolerated
D. Administration of magnesium sulfate
Answer: D. Administration of magnesium sulfate
58. A nurse is providing teaching to a client at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following
should the nurse include in the instructions?
A. "Fetal heart rate can first be heard by Doppler at 10 to 12 weeks."
B. "You will first feel the baby move at 22 weeks."
C. "Fetal heart rate can first be heard by fetoscope at 21 to 22 weeks."
D. "You will first feel the baby move at 8 weeks."
Answer: A. "Fetal heart rate can first be heard by Doppler at 10 to 12 weeks."
59. A nurse caring for a client in labor notes a progressive increase in the fetal heart rate over
the last 30 min from 170 to 175/min. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing
action?
A. Change maternal position.
B. Reapply external fetal monitor.
C. Assess maternal temperature.
D. Measure deep tendon reflexes.
Answer: A. Change maternal position.
60. An amniocentesis has just been performed on a client. The nurse should observe the client
for which of the following complications?
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Hemorrhage
C. Hypoxia

D. Hypertension
Answer: B. Hemorrhage
61. Which of the following statements by a client should indicate to the nurse an
understanding of discharge teaching after a tubal ligation?
A. "Premenstrual tension will no longer be present."
B. "My monthly menstrual period will be shorter."
C. "Ovulation will remain the same."
D. "Hormone replacements will be needed following this procedure."
Answer: A. "Premenstrual tension will no longer be present."
62. A client arrives for a nonstress test at 34 weeks of gestation. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take to prepare the client for the test?
A. Start an IV and prepare oxytocin (Pitocin).
B. Apply a fetal heart monitor and tocotransducer.
C. Notify the primary care provider and insert a saline lock.
D. Keep client NPO and place in a lateral position.
Answer: B. Apply a fetal heart monitor and tocotransducer.
63. Which of the following strategies should a nurse use to promote breastfeeding in a client
whose newborn is receiving phototherapy?
A. Encourage the client to use formula supplementation after each breastfeeding.
B. Offer water supplementation to the infant during breastfeeding.
C. Provide the client with a breast pump to increase milk production.
D. Schedule breastfeedings every 4 to 6 hr.
Answer: C. Provide the client with a breast pump to increase milk production.
64. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor who has taken Lamaze childbirth classes. The
client wishes to use the Lamaze training as an alternative to pain medication. Which of the
following actions by the nurse will meet the client's request?
A. Bring hot water so herbal tea can be made.
B. Assist the client into the dorsal recumbent position.
C. Lead the client in guided imagery.
D. Stimulate acupressure points in the client's arms.

Answer: C. Lead the client in guided imagery.
65. While monitoring a client receiving an epidural infusion, the nurse should recognize that
which of the following is a complication of the infusion?
A. Maternal hypotension
B. Fetal tachycardia
C. Increased fetal heart rate variability
D. Maternal hyperventilation
Answer: A. Maternal hypotension
VERSION 3
Maternal Newborn- Practice 2019 A
61. A nurse is caring for a client who has uterine atony & is experiencing postpartum
hemorrhage. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?
Answer: Massage the client’s fundus.
62. A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive oxytocin to augment her labor. Which of
the following findings contraindications the initiation of the oxytocin infusion & should be
reported to the provider?
Answer: Late decelerations.
63. A nurse is assessing a client who has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following
manifestations should the nurse expect?
Answer: Blurred vision.
64. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postpartum & has a vaginal hematoma. Which
of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Answer: Vaginal pressure.
65. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation & has a positive contraction
stress test. The nurse should plan to prepare the client for which of the following diagnostic
tests?
Answer: Biophysical profile.

66. A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for combined oral
contraceptives. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as an adverse effect
of this medication?
Answer: Depression.
67. A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is receiving heparin via a continuous IV
infusion for thrombophlebitis in her left calf. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take?
Answer: Maintain the client on bed rest.
68. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation & has a new
prescription for misoprostol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in
the teaching?
Answer: “I can administer oxytocin 4 hours after the insertion of the medication.”
69. A nurse is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the nurse
report to the provider?
Answer: A newborn who is 18 hr old & has an axillary temperature of 37.7o C (99.9o F).
70. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation & has a prescription for
magnesium sulfate IV to treat preterm labor. The nurse should notify the provider of which of
the following adverse effects?
Answer: Respiratory rate 10/min.
71. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation about nutrition during
pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
Answer: “I should take 600 micrograms of folic acid each day.”
72. A nurse is assessing a late preterm newborn. Which of the following manifestations is an
indication of hypoglycemia?
Answer: Respiratory distress.

73. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is assessing a group of clients. Which of the following clients
should the nurse see first?
Answer: A client who is at 11 weeks of gestation & reports abdominal cramping.
74. A nurse is demonstrating to a client how to bathe her newborn. In which order should the
nurse perform the following actions?
Answer: Wipe the newborn's eyes from the inner canthus outward. Wash the newborn's neck
by lifting the newborn's chin. Cleanse the skin around the newborn's umbilical cord stump.
Wash the newborn's legs & feet. Clean the newborn's diaper area.
75. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about collecting a specimen for the universal
newborn screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the
teaching?
Answer: “Ensure that the newborn has been receiving feedings for 24 hours prior to
obtaining the specimen.”
76. A nurse is creating a plan of care for a client who is postpartum & adheres to traditional
Hispanic cultural beliefs. Which of the following cultural practices should the nurse include
in the plan of care?
Answer: Protect the client’s head & feet from cold air.
77. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born at 26 weeks of gestation using the New
Ballard Score. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Answer: Minimal arm recoil.
78. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, & just had
an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse’s priority following the
procedure?
Answer: Monitor the FHR.
79. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 16 hr old. Which of the following findings should
the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Substernal retractions.

80. A nurse is performing a physical assessment of a newborn upon admission to the nursery.
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? (SATA)
Answer: Acrocyanosis. Positive Babinksi reflex. Two umbilical arteries visible.
81. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preeclampsia & has a new prescription
for IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate
administering if the client develops magnesium toxicity?
Answer: Calcium gluconate.
82. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation & has a prescription for a
nonstress test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Answer: “You should press the handheld button when you feel your baby move.”
83. A nurse is providing education about family bonding to parents who recently adopted a
newborn. The nurse should make which of the following suggestions to aid in the family’s 7year-old child in accepting the new family member?
Answer: Obtain a gift from the newborn to present to the sibling.
84. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation & is undergoing a nonstress
test that reveals a variable deceleration in the FHR. Which of the following actions should the
nurse take?
Answer: Have the client change position.
85. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation during a weekly prenatal
visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Weight gain of 2.2 kg (4.8 lb).
86. A nurse is providing teaching for a client who gave birth 2 hours ago about the facility
policy for newborn safety. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
Answer: “The person who comes to take my baby’s pictures will be wearing a photo
identification badge.”

87. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via IV bolus for pain following a
cesarean birth. The nurse notes a respiratory rate of 8/min. Which of the following
medications should the nurse administer?
Answer: Naloxone.
88. A nurse is performing a routine assessment on a client who is at 18 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Answer: FHR 152/min.
89. A nurse in an antepartum clinic is providing care for a client who is at 26 weeks of
gestation. Upon reviewing the client’s medical record, which of the following findings should
the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Fundal height measurement.
90. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn who is to undergo phototherapy for
hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
Answer: Remove all clothing from the newborn except the diaper.
91. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was delivered vaginally & experienced a tight nuchal
cord. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Answer: Petechiae over the head.
92. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take prior to applying an external transducer for fetal monitoring?
Answer: Perform Leopold maneuvers.
93. A nurse is assessing a newborn 12 hr after birth. Which of the following manifestations
should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Jaundice.
94. A nurse is transporting a newborn back to the parent’s room following a procedure.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Answer: Verify that the parent’s identification band matches the newborn’s identification
band.

95. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation & has gonorrhea. The nurse
should identify that the client is at an increased risk for which of the following
complications?
Answer: Premature rupture of membranes.
96. A nurse is reviewing the prenatal laboratory results for a client who is at 12 weeks of
gestation following an initial prenatal visit. Which of the following laboratory findings
should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
97. A nurse in an antepartum clinic is assessing a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Report of decreased fetal movement.
98. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation & has a prescription for an
amniocentesis. For which of the following reasons should the nurse prepare the client for an
ultrasound?
Answer: To locate a pocket of fluid.
99. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 26 weeks of gestation & has epilepsy. The nurse
enters the room & observes the client having a seizure. After turning the client’s head to one
side, which of the following actions should the nurse take immediately after the seizure?
Answer: Administer oxygen via a nonrebreather mask.
100. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 22 weeks of gestation & is HIV positive. Which
of the following actions should the nurse take?
Answer: Report the client’s condition to the local health department.
101. A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum & is receiving IV fluid
replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: BUN 25 mg/dL.

102. A nurse is caring for a prenatal client who has parvovirus B19 (fifth disease). Which of
the following actions should the nurse take?
Answer: Schedule an ultrasound examination.
103. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia & is receiving
magnesium sulfate via a continuous IV infusion. Which of the following interventions should
the nurse include in the plan?
Answer: Monitor the FHR continuously.
104. A nurse in a provider’s office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is in the
first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a
risk factor for the development of preeclampsia?
Answer: Pregestational diabetes mellitus.
105. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the physiological changes that occur
during pregnancy. The client is at 10 weeks of gestation & has a BMI within the expected
reference range. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
Answer: “I will likely need to use alternative positions for sexual intercourse.”
106. A nurse is performing a vaginal examination on a client who is in labor & observes the
umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. After calling for assistance, which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
Answer: Insert two gloved fingers into the vagina & apply upward pressure to the presenting
part.
107. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a cesarean birth 3 days ago.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Answer: “You can still become pregnant if you are breastfeeding.”
108. A nurse is providing teaching about nonpharmacological pain management to a client
who is breastfeeding & has engorgement. The nurse should recommend the application of
which of the following items?
Answer: Cold cabbage leaves.

109. A nurse is observing a new parent caring for her crying newborn who is bottle feeding.
Which of the following actions by the parent should the nurse recognize as a positive
parenting behavior?
Answer: Lays the newborn across her lap & gently sways.
110. A nurse is assessing a client who received carboprost for postpartum hemorrhage. Which
of the following findings is an adverse effect of this medication?
Answer: Hypertension.
111. A nurse is preparing to collect a blood specimen from a newborn via a heel stick. Which
of the following techniques should the nurse use to help minimize the pain of the procedure
for the newborn?
Answer: Place the newborn skin to skin on the mother’s chest.
112. A nurse is assessing a client who has gestational diabetes mellitus & is experiencing
hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Answer: Reports increased urinary output.
113. Leopold’s maneuver?
Answer: Two hands cupping sides of belly.
114. A nurse is admitting a client to the labor & delivery unit when the client states, “My
water just broke.” Which of the following interventions is the nurse’s priority?
Answer: Begin FHR monitoring.
115. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 24 weeks of gestation & has a suspected placental
abruption. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect the provider to
prescribe?
Answer: Kleihauer-Betke test.
116. A nurse is performing a physical assessment of a newborn. Which of the following
clinical findings should the nurse expect? (SATA) Heart rate 154/min.
Answer: Respiratory rate 58/min. Weight 2,600 g (5 lb 12 oz).

117. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Report of visual disturbances.
118. A nurse is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV to a client who is in
preterm labor. Avaiable is 20 g magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W).
The nurse should set the IV infusion pump to administer how may mL/hr? (Round to the
nearest whole number)
Answer: 2/20 = 0.1 x 500 = 50 mL/hr.
119. A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor. The client admits to recent cocaine use. For
which of the following complications should the nurse assess?
Answer: Abruptio placenta.
120. A nurse is caring for a client who is anemic at 32 weeks of gestation & is in preterm
labor. The provider prescribed betamethasone 12 mg IM. Which of the following outcomes
should the nurse expect?
Answer: A reduction in respiratory distress in the newborn.
VERSION 4
Maternal Newborn- Practice 2019 B
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant & is at the end of her first trimester. The
nurse should place the Doppler ultrasound stethoscope in which of the following locations to
begin assessing for the fetal heart tones (FHT)?
Answer: Just above the symphysis pubis.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer azithromycin to a client who is at 16 weeks of gestation
& has a positive chlamydia culture. The prescription states “Administer azithromycin 1 g
orally now.” Available is 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
(Round to the nearest whole number)
Answer: 1 x 1000= 1000/250 = 4.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postpartum & has idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
(ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Answer: Decreased platelet count.
4. A nurse is assessing a newborn for manifestations of hypoglycemia. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect?
Answer: Jitteriness.
5. A nurse in a women’s health clinic is providing teaching about nutritional intake to a client
who is at 8 weeks of gestation. The nurse should instruct the client to increase her daily
intake of which of the following nutrients?
Answer: Iron.
6. A nurse is teaching a new parent about newborn safety. Which of the following instructions
should the nurse include in the teaching?
Answer: “You can share your room with your baby for the next few weeks.”
7. A nurse is providing teaching about family planning to a client who has a new prescription
for a diaphragm. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Answer: “You should leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.”
8. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is postpartum & has preeclampsia.
Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Platelets 50,000/mm3.
9. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which
of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Answer: “I will eat foods that taste good instead of balancing my meals.”
10. A nurse in the antepartum clinic is assessing a client’s adaption to pregnancy. The client
states that she is, “happy one minute & crying the next.” The nurse should interpret the
client’s statement as an indication of which of the following?
Answer: Emotional lability.

11. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor & reports increasing rectal pressure. She is
experiencing contractions 2-3 minutes apart, each lasting 80-90 seconds, & a vaginal
examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The nurse should identify that the
client is in which of the following phases of labor?
Answer: Transition.
12. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results of a newborn who is 4 hours old. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Bilirubin 9 mg/dL.
13. A nurse on a postpartum unit is caring for a client who is experiencing hypovolemic
shock. After notifying the provider, which of the following actions should the nurse take
next?
Answer: Massage the client’s fundus.
14. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who reports that her menstrual period is 2
weeks late. The client appears anxious & asks the nurse if she is pregnant. Which of the
following responses should the nurse make?
Answer: “You can miss your period for several other reasons. Describe your typical
menstrual cycle.”
15. A nurse is caring for a newborn who was transferred to the nursey 30 minutes after birth
because of mild respiratory distress. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
first?
Answer: Verify the newborn’s identification.
16. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation & has a prescription for a
nonstress test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Answer: “You will be offered orange juice to drink during the test.”
17. A nurse is teaching a postpartum client about steps the nurses will take to promote the
security & safety of the client’s newborn. Which of the following statements should the nurse
make?

Answer: “Staff members who take care of your baby will be wearing a photo identification
badge.”
18. A nurse is assessing the newborn of a client who took a selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitor (SSRI) during pregnancy. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse
identify as an indication of withdrawal from an SSRI?
Answer: Vomiting.
19. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a circumcision. Which of the following findings
should the nurse identify as an indication that the newborn is experiencing pain?
Answer: Chin quivering.
20. A nurse is planning care for a client who is in labor & is requesting epidural anesthesia for
pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Answer: Monitor the client’s blood pressure every 5 minutes following the first dose of
anesthetic solution.
21. A nurse is reviewing the medical record at 1800 for a client who is at 34 weeks of
gestation. Based on the chart findings & documentation, the nursing plan of care should
include which of the following actions?
Answer: Administer terbutaline.
22. A nurse is teaching a client who is Rh negative about RH0(D) immune globulin. Which of
the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Answer: “I will need this medication if I have an amniocentesis.”
23. A nurse is caring for a client who becomes unresponsive upon delivery of the placenta.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Answer: Determine respiratory function.
24. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for combined oral contraceptives
about potential adverse effects of the medication. For which of the following findings should
the nurse instruct the client to notify the provider?
Answer: Shortness of breath.

25. A nurse is caring for a client following an amniocentesis at 18 weeks of gestation. Which
of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a potential complication?
Answer: Leakage of fluid from the vagina.
26. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation during a routine prenatal
visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Swelling of the face.
27. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 22 weeks of gestation & reports concern about the
blotchy hyperpigmentation on her forehead. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take?
Answer: Explain to the client this is an expected occurrence.
28. A nurse is teaching a client who has pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus about
management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
Answer: “I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea & vomiting.”
29. A nurse is teaching a client who is in preterm labor about terbutaline. Which of the
following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Answer: “I will have blood tests because my potassium might decrease.”
30. A nurse is assessing fetal heart tones for a client who is pregnant. The nurse has
determined the fetal position as left occipital anterior. To which of the following areas of the
client’s abdomen should the nurse apply the ultrasound transducer to assess the point of
maximum intensity of the fetal heart?
Answer: Left lower quadrant.
31. A nurse is planning discharge for a client who is 3 days postpartum. Which of the
following nonpharmacological interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care for
lactation suppression?
Answer: Apply cabbage leaves to the breasts.

32. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is undergoing phototherapy to treat
hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Answer: Cover the newborn’s eyes while under the phototherapy light.
33. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor & whose fetus is in the right occiput posterior
position. The client is dilated to 8 cm & reports back pain. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take?
Answer: Apply sacral counterpressure.
34. A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Place the sequence in
order.
Answer: Palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part.
Determine the location of the fetal back.
Palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet.
Identify the attitude of the head.
35. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a newly admitted client who is at 32 weeks of
gestation. Which of the following conditions is an indication for fetal assessment using
electronic fetal monitoring?
Answer: Oligohydramnios.
36. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation & has a positive contraction
stress test. For which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse prepare the client?
Answer: Biophysical profile (BPP).
37. A nurse is preparing to administer oxytocin to a client who is postpartum. Which of the
following findings is an indication for the administration of the medication? (SATA)
Answer: Flaccid uterus. Excess vaginal bleeding.
38. A nurse is planning care for a client who is to undergo a nonstress test. Which of the
following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Answer: Instruct the client to press the provided button each time fetal movement is
detected.

39. A nurse is teaching a new mother how to use a bulb syringe to suction her newborn’s
secretions. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Answer: Stop suctioning when the newborn’s cry sounds clear.
40. A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia & is receiving a continuous infusion
of magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Answer: Have calcium gluconate readily available.
41. A nurse on an antepartum unit is caring for four clients. Which of the following clients
should the nurse identify as the priority?
Answer: A client who is at 34 weeks of gestation & reports epigastric pain.
42. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 24 weeks of gestation regarding a 1-hour glucose
tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Answer: “A blood glucose of 130-140 is considered a positive screening result.”
43. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
44. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation about manifestations of
potential pregnancy complications to report to the provider. Which of the following
manifestations should the nurse include?
Answer: Headache that is unrelieved by analgesia.
45. A nurse is calculating a client’s expected date of birth using Nagele’s rule. The client tells
the nurse that her last menstrual cycle started on November 27th. Which of the following
dates is the client’s expected date of birth?
Answer: September 3rd.
46. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a newborn about car seat safety.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Answer: Place the retained clip at the level of the newborn’s armpits.

47. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 2 hours postpartum. Which of the following
interventions should the nurse plan to implement during the taking-hold phase of postpartum
behavioral adjustment?
Answer: Demonstrate to the client how to perform a newborn bath.
48. A nurse is planning care for a client who is in labor & is to have an amniotomy. Which of
the following assessments should the nurse identify as the priority?
Answer: Temperature.
49. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor at 29 weeks of gestation
& has a prescription for betamethasone. Which of the following statements should the nurse
make about the indication for medication administration?
Answer: “This medication stimulates fetal lung maturity.”
50. A school nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent about levonorgestrel contraception.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Answer: “You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual
intercourse.”
51. A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor & has had no cervical change in the
last 4 hours. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Answer: “Your provider will insert an intrauterine pressure catheter to monitor the strength
of your contractions.”
52. A nurse in a family planning clinic is caring for a client who requests an oral
contraceptive. Which of the following findings in the client’s history should the nurse
recognize as a contraindication to oral contraceptives? (SATA)
Answer: • Cholecystitis.
• Hypertension.
• Migraine.
53. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. Which of the following
manifestations requires intervention by the nurse?
Answer: Substernal chest retractions while sleeping?

54. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation & has placenta previa.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Answer: Initiate continuous external fetal monitoring.
55. A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth vaginally 12 hours ago & palpates her uterus
to the right above the umbilicus. Which of the following interventions should the nurse
perform?
Answer: Assist the client to empty her bladder.
56. A nurse is performing a vaginal examination on a client who is in labor & observes the
umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. After calling for assistance, which of the
following actions should the nurse take next?
Answer: Apply internal upward pressure to the presenting part using two gloved fingers.
57. A nurse is speaking with a client who is trying to make a decision about tubal ligation.
The client asks, “What effects will this procedure have on my sex life?” Which of the
following responses should the nurse make?
Answer: “This procedure should have no effect on your sexual performance or adequacy.”
58. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the
following results should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Blood glucose 30 mg/ dL.
59. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postpartum. For which of the
following manifestations should the nurse instruct the client to monitor & report to the
provider?
Answer: Unilateral breast pain.