ATI Pharmacology Proctor 2019 EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2023
1. What is/are the action(s) of the drug metformin?
A. Decreases Hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption
B. Increases sensitivity to insulin
C. Short term sedation
D. Both A and B
Answer: d. Both A and B
2. When administering the drug senna to a patient, a health care provider must inform the patient
of which of the following
A. This drug is intended to lower blood pressure and is best used in combination with other
antihypertensives
B. This drug is not intended for long term use
C. The patient must limit his/her fibre intake
D. Advise patient to change positions slowly to limit the risk of orthostatic hypotension
Answer: B. This drug is not intended for long term use
3. When giving digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient, the health care provider notices various signs and
symptoms of an overdose. The health care provider knows to give which of the following to
reverse digoxin toxicity
A. Naloxone
B. Vitamin K
C. Digibind
D. Fluemanzil
Answer: C. Digibind
4. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the
action of the drug is. As a health care provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is
A. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor
angiotensin II
B. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and
lowering blood pressure
C. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the
heart and lungs
D. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin
Answer: A. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to
vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
5. Which of the following types of insulin is "long-acting"?
A. Lispro (Humalog)
B. NPH (Humulin N)
C. Regular insulin (Humulin R)
D. Glargine (Lantus)
Answer: D. Glargine (Lantus)
6. What is the therapeutic use of metformin?
A. Lower blood pressure.
B. To diminish seizure activity.
C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose.
D. Increase heart rate and decrease gastrointestinal secretions.
Answer: C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose.
7. What is the correct definition for absorption of a drug?
A. Movement of drug from site of administration to various tissues of the body.
B. Describes the absorption, distribution, metabolism & excretion of drugs.
C. These types of drugs can be taken over the counter.
D. This addresses how various drugs affect different forms of the body
Answer: A. Movement of drug from site of administration to various tissues of the body
8. What do you assess for in a patient who is on Valproate? Select all that apply.
A. Suicidal thoughts
B. Monitor for seizures.
C. Bipolar disorder.
D. Migraines.
E. Anorexia
Answer: A. Suicidal thoughts
B. Monitor for seizures.
C. Bipolar disorder.
D. Migraines.
9. What is true about food and drug precautions? Select all that apply.
A. You must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs.
B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions.
C. Precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than
restricting the drug itself.
D. When one drug changes the way, another drug affects that drug.
Answer: A. You must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of
drugs.
B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions.
C. Precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than
restricting the drug itself.
10. ACE Inhibitors are used in the treatment of all EXCEPT:
A. Hypertension
B. Heart Failure
C. Hypotension
D. Diabetic nephropathy
Answer: C. Hypotension
11. Which of the following is used to treat migraine headaches?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Cholinesterase Inhibitors
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs)
Answer: A. Betablockers
12. When administering a Serotonin Antagonist it is important to monitor for
A. Intake and output
B. Mental status changes
C. Respiratory rate
D. Anorexia
Answer: B. Mental status changes
13. Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin?
A. Protamine sulphate
B. Vitamin K
C. Naloxone
D. Toradol
Answer: A. Protamine sulphate
14. A patient has been taking hydrocodone, and opioid analgesic for their moderate pain, and
they have taken over their prescribed dose. What should you give as the antidote if they
experience toxicity?
A. Naloxone
B. N-acetylcysteine
C. Atropine
D. Digoxin immune Fab
Answer: A. Naloxone
15. A patient is being educated on taking levothyroxine, a drug used to balance thyroid activity.
What should you include in their education?
A. Don't bother your health care professionals if you experience side effects
B. Take this at the same time every day
C. Thyroid tests are unnecessary while taking this drug
D. It is okay to take this drug if you have recently had a myocardial infarction
Answer: B. Take this at the same time every day
16. A patient states he experiences anxiety and has panic attacks at least once a week. What
might be helpful for this patient?
A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
B. Lithium
C. Alprazolam (Xanax)
D. Spironolactone
Answer: C. Alprazolam (Xanax)
17. Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?
A. Morphine
B. Ibuprofen
C. Hydromorphone
D. Acetaminophen
Answer: D. Acetaminophen
18. Why is it important to monitor ins and outs with patients using ACE inhibitors?
A. To assess for renal impairment
B. You must make sure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake
C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure
D. You must assess for NSAID use
E. To assess for decreased blood pressure
Answer: C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure
19. Which drug goes through extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism?
A. Heparin
B. Insulin
C. Propranolol
D. Nitro-glycerine
E. Warfarin
Answer: C. Propranolol
20. What nursing interventions should you do when a patient is on Albuterol (select all that
apply)
A. Assess lung sounds, Pulse, and Blood pressure before administering
B. Monitor for changes in behavior
C. Observe for paradoxical bronchospasms
D. Assess for abdominal distention
E. Note sputum colour and texture
Answer: A. Assess lung sounds, Pulse, and Blood pressure before administering
C. Observe for paradoxical bronchospasms
E. Note sputum colour and texture
21. What patient could potentially take the drug Senna?
A. A patient with an eating disorder
B. A patient who has not passed stool in 5 days
C. A patient with anal fissures
D. A patient with a history of haemorrhoids
E. A patient who has hypersensitivity
Answer: B. A patient who has not passed stool in 5 days
22. What is the category class of Lithium?
A. Antidiabetics, biguanides
B. Mood stabilizers
C. Antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants
D. Vascular headache suppressants
Answer: B. Mood stabilizers
23. What do you need to teach your patient if they are taking sennosides? Select All That Apply.
A. Laxatives should be used for short-term therapy
B. The medication does not cure hypothyroidism
C. The colour of the urine may change to a pink, red, violet, yellow, or brown
D. Make sure other forms of bowel regulation are being used
Answer: A. Laxatives should be used for short-term therapy
C. The colour of the urine may change to a pink, red, violet, yellow, or brown
D. Make sure other forms of bowel regulation are being used
24. What is the therapeutic use of Phenytoin?
A. Replacement in hypothyroidism to restore normal hormonal balance
B. Diminished accumulation of acid in the gastric lumen with lessened gastroesophageal reflux
C. Diminished seizure activity, termination of ventricular arrhythmias
D. Prevention of thrombus formation, prevention of extension of existing thrombi
Answer: C. Diminished seizure activity, termination of ventricular arrhythmias
25. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop controlling pain?
A. Over 1,000 mg
B. 750 mg
C. Over 1,500 mg
D. 150 mg
Answer: A. Over 1,000 mg
26. When should the drug Montelukast be taken
A. Use at least two hours before exercise
B. Daily in evening
C. Use two hours before exercise or daily in evening
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Use two hours before exercise or daily in evening
27. How should the oral form of albuterol be taken
A. Administer with meals to minimize gastric irritation
B. Administer before meals with water
C. Administer after meals with water
D. Administer in the morning with milk
Answer: A. Administer with meals to minimize gastric irritation
28. What should a Client be taking Omeprazole report to the Heath Care Provider
A. Black, tarry stools
B. Diarrhoea
C. Abdominal pain
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
29. When administering an Antiulcer Agents, you should be more cautious when administering it
to
A. A healthy 27 year old patient
B. Patient with renal failure
C. Elderly patients
D. All of the above
E. Choices B & C
Answer: E. Choices B & C
30. What is the common side effect that is normal with the initial therapy of Nitro-glycerine due
to increased vasodilation?
A. Abdominal cramps
B. Calf pain
C. Headache
D. Blurred vision
Answer: C. Headache
31. Two tests should be monitored for a patient currently on Warfarin. What are those two tests?
Select ALL that apply.
A. PT
B. aPTT
C. INR
D. BMP
Answer: A. PT
C. INR
32. Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while saving K+
and Hydrogen ions?
A. Spironolactone
B. Furosemide
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Bumetanide
Answer: A. Spironolactone
33. A nurse is about to administer Propranolol to a patient. The nurse takes the patient's apical
pulse and documents it as 58 bmp. How should the nurse continue?
A. Administer the medication as normal
B. Cut the tablet in half and administer half of the normal dose
C. Give the XR form of the medication
D. Withhold administration of the medication and notify physician
Answer: D. Withhold administration of the medication and notify physician
34. Which of the following should be monitored for patients taking diuretics? (select all that
apply)
A. Daily weight
B. Intake and output
C. Amount and location of edema
D. Appetite
E. Lung sounds
Answer: A. Daily weight
B. Intake and output
C. Amount and location of edema
E. Lung sounds
35. Which of the following drugs has a therapeutic effect that increases cardiac output and slows
heart rate?
A. Heparin
B. Alprazolam
C. Digoxin
D. Levothyroxine
Answer: C. Digoxin
36. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?
A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Bumetanide
Answer: B. Spironolactone
37. What is the antidote for Warfarin?
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin B6
Answer: C. Vitamin K
38. A nurse is completing discharge teaching for a client who has a new prescription for
transdermal patches. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication
that the client understands the instructions?
A. "I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before I apply the patch."
B. "I will rotate the application sites weekly."
C. "I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair."
D. "I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch. Answer: C. "I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair."
39. A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for a long-term use of oral prednisone for
chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following
adverse effects?
A. Weight Gain
B. Nervousness
C. Bradycardia
D. Constipation
Answer: A. Weight Gain
40. A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking Digoxin. The nurse should instruct the patient to
monitor and report which of the following adverse effects? ( select all the apply)
A. Fatigue
B. Constipation
C. Anorexia
D. Rash
E. Diplopia
Answer: A. Fatigue
C. Anorexia
E. Diplopia
41. What is the antidote for Heparin?
A. Atropine
B. Protamine sulphate
C. Calcium Carbonate
D. Ferrous Sulphate
Answer: B. Protamine sulphate
42. Phenytoin is an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant that has an unlabelled use for:
A. headaches
B. cold remedy
C. neuropathic pain
D. antianxiety
Answer: C. neuropathic pain
43. When taking Digoxin, low levels of what can cause toxicity?
A. potassium
B. calcium
C. sodium
D. magnesium
Answer: A. potassium
44. When taking Nitro-glycerine (transdermal), you should have how many hours nitrate free
each day?
A. 1-2 hours
B. 5-10 hours
C. 3-4 hours
D. 10-12 hours
Answer: D. 10-12 hours
45. Lithium is used to?
A. Lower blood glucose
B. slow the heart rate
C. stabilize mood
D. heal ulcers
Answer: C. stabilize mood
46. When administering Phenytoin you should monitor?
A. behavior
B. therapeutic blood levels
C. for Steven Johnson syndrome
D. all of the above
Answer: D. all of the above
47. Angiotensin II receptor agents medications usually end in?
A. sar-tan
B. ase
C. olol
D. pril
Answer: A. sar-tan
48. What is the Therapeutic Effects of Lithium?
A. Prevents/decreases incidence of acute manic episodes
B. Maintenance of blood glucose
C. Control of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients
D. Diminished seizure activity
Answer: A. Prevents/decreases the incidence of acute manic episodes
49. What is the action of Metformin?
A. Decrease intestinal glucose absorption
B. Increase sensitivity to insulin
C. Decrease hepatic glucose production
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
50. What is the medication effectiveness of Propranolol? Select all that apply.
A. Decrease in BP
B. Prevention of MI
C. Decrease tremors
D. Decrease in GI pain and irritation
Answer: A. Decrease in BP
B. Prevention of MI
C. Decrease tremors
51. What is a common side effect of Albuterol?
A. Paradoxical Bronchospasm
B. Diarrhoea
C. Seizures
D. Vision loss
Answer: A. Paradoxical Bronchospasm
52. What is the therapeutic use of Albuterol?
A. Bronchodilation
B. Anti-coagulant
C. Anti-arrhythmic
D. Proton-pump inhibitor
Answer: A. Bronchodilation
53. What medication is a contraindication to Nitro-glycerine
A. Hydrochloroquinone
B. Methylprednisolone
C. Phenazopyridine
D. Erectile dysfunction drugs
Answer: D. Erectile dysfunction drugs
54. What is the classification of Ondansetron?
A. Antihypertensive
B. Antiarrthymia
C. Antiemetic
D. Antiulcer agent
Answer: C. Antiemetic
55. Before administering Digoxin, the nurse should complete which task?
A. Obtain an ECG
B. Count apical Pulse for 1 minute
C. Take temperature
D. Obtain I/O
Answer: B. Count apical Pulse for 1 minute
56. What serious adverse reaction can occur with the loop diuretic Furosemide?
A. Stevens-Johnsons syndrome
B. GI bleeding
C. Hypertension
D. Bradycardia
Answer: A. Stevens-Johnsons syndrome
57. If a patient is taking an ACE inhibitor, the nurse should monitor for signs of angioedema
which include?
A. Vomiting
B. Dyspnea
C. Constipation
D. Epistaxis
Answer: B. Dyspnea
58. Ace Inhibitors often end in?
A. -ale
B. -olol
C. -pril
D. -ide
Answer: C. -pril
59. What is a side effect for Phenytoin?
A. Suicidal thoughts
B. Dry mouth
C. Blood in urine
D. Tremor
Answer: A. Suicidal thoughts
60. A patient with_____ should stop taking NSAIDs
A. Peptic Ulcers
B. Headaches
C. Cramps
D. Nausea
Answer: A. Peptic Ulcers
61. When administering the opioid Morphine to a patient, it is given in doses of
A. 2-5 mg every 3-4 hours
B. 10-12 mg every 4 hours
C. 1-2mg every 8 hours
D. 25 mg every 6 hours
Answer: A. 2-5 mg every 3-4 hours
62. If you are treating a patient that has renal failure, what type of pain medications should you
avoid?
A. Opioids
B. NSAIDs
C. Nonopioids
D. Short-acting analgesics
Answer: B. NSAIDs
63. A common side effect of Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors is
A. Suicidal thoughts
B. Toxic epidermal necrosis
C. Heart failure
D. cough
Answer: D. cough
64. How can Ondansetron be administered? Select all that apply.
A.PO
B. IV
C. Subcutaneous
D. IM
Answer: A. PO
B. IV
D. IM
65. Albuterol can be given in all but which of these forms:
A. extended-release
B. inhalation
C. intravenously
D. orally
Answer: C. intravenously
66. A side effect given off by omeprazole is:
A. bloody stools
B. change in stomach pH
C. thirst
D. constipation
Answer: A. bloody stools
67. The classification of digoxin is:
A. antithrombic
B. nitrates
C. antiplatelet agent
D. cardiac glycosides
Answer: D. cardiac glycosides
68. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect in which of these drugs (select all that
apply)?
A. ACE Inhibitors
B. Anticoagulants
C. Beta Blockers
D. Calcium Channel Blockers
E. Antidiarrheal
F. Diuretics
Answer: A. ACE Inhibitors
C. Beta Blockers
D. Calcium Channel Blockers
F. Diuretics
69. What is the effect of Beta Blockers?
A. Relief of diarrhoea
B. Relief of symptoms associated with allergies
C. Decreases blood pressure and heart rate
D. Prevents constipation
Answer: C. Decreases blood pressure and heart rate
70. What is the therapeutic levels for digoxin?
A. 0.2 - 0.5 ng/mL
B. 0.5 - 2 ng/mL
C. 1.0 - 1.8 ng/mL
D. 2.0 - 5.0 ng/mL
Answer: A. 0.2 - 0.5 ng/mL
71. What is the therapeutic effect of Montelukast?
A. decreased incidence and severity of nausea and vomiting
B. decreased frequency and severity of acute asthma attacks
C. laxative action
D. protects ulcers with subsequent healing
Answer: B. decreased frequency and severity of acute asthma attacks
72. Which of these is a platelet aggregation inhibitor?
A. Albuterol
B. Montelukast
C. Clopidogrel
D. Ondansetron
Answer: C. Clopidogrel
73. Which of these is a side effect of Sennosides? (Select all that apply.)
A. cramping
B. bruising
C. diarrhea
D. headaches
Answer: A. cramping
C. diarrhoea
74. Amlodipine manages what?
A. constipation
B. hypertension
C. migraines
D. hypercholesterolemia
Answer: B. hypertension
75. At what blood pressure would you hold Digoxin in an adult?
A. 60
C. >80
D. <80
Answer: A. <60 (less than)
76. When administering Propranolol through an IV, what should be done before?
A. Nothing, there is no importance
B. The patient should eat
C. The patient should drink a lot of water
D. Have a second practitioner check the original order, calculations, and infusion pump
Answer: D. Have a second practitioner check the original order, calculations, and infusion pump
77. A client forgot to take their Levothyroxine when directed. The client should...
A. Notify health care professional
B. Take the missed dose as soon as possible unless it is almost time for next dose
C. Skip the dose
D. Stop taking Levothyroxine all together
Answer: B. Take the missed dose as soon as possible unless it is almost time for next dose
78. A patient is taking Digoxin to slow his heart rate down. The nurse suggests that he take his
oral medication:
A. when awakening.
B. by itself
C. in the evening
D. with meals
Answer: D. with meals
79. Common side effects of iron supplements include (select all that apply):
A. constipation
B. drowsiness
C. upset stomach
D. nausea
Answer: A. constipation
C. upset stomach
D. nausea
80. The nurse is administering Penicillin to a patient who has tested positive for strep throat. The
nurse knows to look for which of the following adverse effects as a sign of an acute allergic
reaction?
A. blurred vision
B. tinnitus
C. skin rash/hives
D. vomiting
Answer: C. skin rash/hives
81. What is the pharmacological action of metformin?
A. Biguanides
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Nitrates
D. Digitalis glycosides
Answer: A. Biguanides
82. What is the therapeutic use of levothyroxine?
A. Suppression of seizure activity
B. Decreased frequency of migraines
C. Replacement in hypothyroidism to restore normal hormonal balance
D. Treatment of ulcers
Answer: C. Replacement in hypothyroidism to restore normal hormonal balance
83. Which of the following is a common adverse effect of the bronchodilator albuterol?
A. nausea
B. vomiting
C. stomach cramps
D. chest pain
Answer: D. chest pain
84. When teaching a patient about their new medication montelukast which of the following
statements made by the patient would indicate they are in need of further teaching?
A. "I can skip a dose if I do not feel asthma symptoms"
B. "I should take the medication 2 hours before exercising"
C. "I should not double the dosage"
D. "this medication may increase suicidal thoughts
Answer: A. "I can skip a dose if I do not feel asthma symptoms"
85. When educating a patient about Regular Insulin, you should include which instruction:
A. Shake the vial vigorously
B. Expect the solution to appear cloudy
C. Store unopened vials at room temperature
D. Inject the insulin subcutaneously
Answer: D. Inject the insulin subcutaneously
86. Select all the early manifestations of lithium toxicity
A. Nausea
B. Hypotension
C. Renal Failure
D. Muscle Weakness
Answer: A. Nausea
D. Muscle Weakness
87. How would you evaluate the medical effectiveness of Metformin?
A. assess serum electrolytes. ketones, glucose, blood PH, lactate, pyruvate levels, monitor serum
glucose
B. check for resolution of hypothyroidism and normalization of hormone levels
C. check patient for pain reduction
D. Assess patient alertness
Answer: A. assess serum electrolytes. ketones, glucose, blood PH, lactate, pyruvate levels,
monitor serum glucose
88. What are the drug natural interactions for phenytoin?
A. Echinacea
B. St. Johns Wort
C. Valerian
D. Jeff Salerno’s War
Answer: B. St. Johns Wort
89. What type of diuretic is furosemide?
A. Loop
B. potassium sparing
C. Thiazide
D. Hypertensive
Answer: A. Loop
90. Which of the following are complications of Warfarin? (select all that apply)
A. bleeding
B. cramps
C. fever
D. nausea
E. all of the above
Answer: E. all of the above
91. When a company develops a new drug and gives it an official name, this name is the
A. Brand name
B. Generic name
C. prototype
D. prescription
Answer: B. Generic name
92. What is/are the major adverse/side effects of regular insulin? Select all that apply
A. hypoglycaemia
B. hypokalaemia
C. drowsiness
D. anaphylaxis
Answer: A. hypoglycaemia
B. hypokalaemia
D. anaphylaxis
93. Which of the following drugs can suppress seizure activity and decrease the frequency of
migraine headache?
A. glipizide
B. hydrochlorothiazide
C. atropine
D. valproate
Answer: D. valproate
94. Which is the only type of insulin that can be given IV?
A. Regular
B. NPH
C. Long-acting
D. Rapid-acting
Answer: A. Regular
95. Which drug is the antidote of Alprazolam?
A. Physostigmine
B. Protamine sulphate
C. Flumazenil
D. Acetylcysteine
Answer: C. Flumazenil
96. What does it mean when a medication has a half-life?
A. It only lasts for 30 mins after the medication is given
B. How long it takes for half of the dose to be eliminated from the blood stream
C. It is the peak of how effective the medicine is
D. Drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation
Answer: B. How long it takes for half of the dose to be eliminated from the blood stream
97. A patient with hypertension is taking an ACE inhibitor to lower his blood pressure. What
should the nurse tell the patient to avoid in his diet?
A. vinegar
B. apples
C. salt substitutions
D. tomatoes
Answer: C. salt substitutions
98. What is Nitro-glycerine’s Action?
A. Dilates the Bronchi
B. Reduce Blood Glucose
C. Reduce Nausea
D. Dilates Coronary Arteries
Answer: D. Dilates Coronary Arteries
99. What does a patient need to avoid while taking Angiotensin-converting enzymes?
A. Salt substitutes
B. Foods high in potassium
C. Foods high in sodium
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
100. What is the most life threatening adverse reaction while taking Omeprazole?
A. Chest pain
B. Constipation
C. Clostridium Difficile Associated Diarrhoea
D. Acute interstitial nephritis
Answer: C. Clostridium Difficile Associated Diarrhoea
101. What is one therapeutic use for Nitro-glycerine?
A. Relief or prevention of anginal attacks
B. Diuresis and mobilization of excess fluid
C. Decrease nausea and vomiting
D. Relief of anxiety
Answer: A. Relief or prevention of anginal attacks
102. What is the peak range of regular insulin?
A. 30 - 2 ½ hours
B. 1 - 3 hours
C. 6 - 14 hours
D. 1 - 5 hours
Answer: D. 1 - 5 hours
103. What is pharmacodynamics?
A. The medical reference summarizing standards of drug purity, strength and directions for
synthesis
B. The drugs actions at receptor site and the physiological, chemical, and behavioral effects
produced by these actions
C. The maximum response that a drug can produce
D. Movements of the drugs throughout the body
Answer: B. The drugs actions at receptor site and the physiological, chemical, and behavioral
effects produced by these actions
104. What is Alprazolam therapeutic use?
A. Prevent thrombus formation
B. Relief of anxiety
C. Decrease risk of stroke
D. Increase urinary output
Answer: B. Relief of anxiety
105. What is the expected pharmacological action of propranolol?
A. Block stimulation of beta1
B. Alter water & electrolyte transport in the large intestine
C. Block stimulation of beta 2
D. Both A and C are correct
Answer: D. Both A and C are correct
106. What should you monitor when given a patient Clopidogrel?
A. Signs of thrombotic thrombolytic purpura
B. Bleeding during therapy
C. CBC with differential and platelet count
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
107. Patients should avoid what drink while taking Alprazolam?
A. Water
B. Grapefruit juice
C. Green Tea
D. Milk
Answer: B. Grapefruit juice
108. What is a high alert nursing implication for Morphine?
A. Assessing type of pain
B. Assess level of consciousness, BP, pulse, & respiration
C. Assess bowel function
D. Assess patient for confusion
Answer: B. Assess level of consciousness, BP, pulse, & respiration
109. How would you teach a patient how to prep an inhaler?
A. Tell them to spray the inhaler 4 times and discard after 150 puffs.
B. Tell them to shake the inhaler for 5 seconds.
C. Tell them to spray the inhaler 4 times and discard after 200 puffs.
D. You do not need to prime it.
Answer: C. Tell them to spray the inhaler 4 times and discard after 200 puffs.
110. Advise patient to avoid taking antacids or antidiarrheals for how long after taking digoxin?
A. 30 minutes
B. 2 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 3 hours
Answer: B. 2 hours
111. What is the pharmacologic classification of Amlodipine
A. Beta blocker
B. 5-HT3 antagonist
C. Nonopioid analgesic
D. Calcium channel blocker
Answer: D. Calcium channel blocker
112. When administering the medication Spironolactone, when is the best time to administer it?
A. Evening
B. Noon
C. At bedtime
D. Morning
Answer: D. Morning
113. What is the therapeutic classification of Atropine?
A. Antipsychotic
B. Antidepressants
C. Antiarrhythmics
D. Anticonvulsants
Answer: C. Antiarrhythmics
114. Is the main glucocorticoid produced by the adrenal glands.
A. Fluticasone
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Fludrocortisone
D. Dexamethasone
E. Prednisone
Answer: B. Hydrocortisone
115. All benzodiazepines reduce and produce .
A. anxiety, sedation
B. hunger, food coma
C. sedation, anxiety
D. drowsiness, wakefulness
Answer: C. sedation, anxiety
