This Document Contains Chapters 7 to 8 Chapter 07 Psychosocial Development, 0 to 3 True / False Questions 1. Each baby has its own unique temperament. TRUE 2. Self-conscious emotions arise only after children have developed self-awareness at about age 3. TRUE 3. Altruistic behavior seems to come naturally to toddlers. TRUE 4. Slow-to-warm-up children are generally happy, rhythmic in biological functioning, and accepting of new experiences. FALSE 5. Temperament is fully formed at birth. FALSE 6. Goodness of fit refers to the match between a child's temperament and the environmental demands. TRUE 7. Attachment is a reciprocal, enduring emotional tie between an infant and a caregiver, each of whom contributes to the quality of the relationship. TRUE 8. Babies with secure attachment are outwardly unaffected by a caregiver leaving or returning. FALSE 9. Upon the caregiver's return, resistant babies demonstrate their distress and anger by seeking contact while at the same time resisting it by kicking or squirming. TRUE 10. Securely attached babies have not learned to trust their own ability to get what they need. FALSE 11. The more secure a child's attachment to a nurturing adult, the easier it seems to be for the child to develop good relationships with others. TRUE 12. Mutual regulation in 2- to 9-month-old infants is measured using the still-face paradigm. TRUE 13. Three key areas of psychosocial development for toddles are the emerging sense of self, the growth of autonomy, and socialization. TRUE 14. Self-regulation impacts our thoughts of right and wrong but cannot guide our actions. FALSE 15. Children who are successfully socialized merely obey rules or commands to get rewards or avoid punishment. FALSE 16. Areas of socialization that are developing during the toddler years include habituation and gross motor skills. FALSE 17. Conscience includes both emotional discomfort about doing something wrong and the ability to refrain from doing it. TRUE 18. Children reflect committed compliance if they willingly follow the orders to clean up and not touch the special toys without reminders or lapses. TRUE 19. Situational compliance is related to internalization of parental values and rules and tends to increase with age. FALSE 20. Infants begin to perceive differences between males and females once they start talking. FALSE Multiple Choice Questions 21. Which of the following statements is true with regard to emotions? A. They involve purely objective reactions to experience. B. They exclusively represent the physiological changes associated with an emotional state. C. They lack any overt behavioral manifestations based on the emotion being experienced. D. They develop following a relatively standard timeline in humans. 22. Which of the following statements regarding early emotional responses is true? A. Early emotional responses seen in babies are limited to crying and smiling. B. Social smiling in an innate emotional response that is present at birth. C. When babies smile soon after birth, it is triggered by subcortical nervous system activity. D. Infants who are invariably picked up and soothed when they cry, typically develop a difficult temperament. 23. The most developmentally sound approach to comforting a distressed baby is to A. ignore the baby's crying. B. let the baby cry for a considerable time before responding. C. prevent distress so the need for soothing doesn't arise. D. respond immediately each time the infant cries. 24. A(n) _____ is a type of smile that develops between 8-10 months in which an infant smiles at an object and then gazes at an adult while continuing to smile. A. reflexive smile B. windy grin C. anticipatory smile D. asocial smile 25. Margo and her husband Frank love watching their three-month old daughter, Tina, smile when they come into the room. In this scenario, Tina's parents entering her room elicits a(n) _____ on her part. A. windy grin B. laugh C. social smile D. involuntary smile 26. Infants generally begin to laugh out loud at about the _____ month of life. A. first B. second C. fourth D. third 27. Which of the following statements about infants and emotions is true? A. Infants cannot express emotions for about the first month. B. Infants cannot display self-conscious emotions till four years of age. C. Infants cannot communicate positive emotions as their only mode of communication is crying. D. Infants cannot understand emotions like low self-worth in terms of their self. 28. Which of the following emotions is a self-conscious emotion? A. Anger B. Embarrassment C. Distress D. Joy 29. A typical 2-years-old toddler is unable to A. smile to express joy when his father picks him up after returning from work. B. experience shame when he has bed wetted. C. cry when he wants to communicate that he is hungry. D. laugh when his mother plays peek-a-boo with him. 30. The expression of emotions like embarrassment, shame, and envy A. develops within a year after birth. B. requires the development of self-awareness. C. focuses on the bad self, rather than the bad act. D. develops simultaneously with other emotions like joy and fear. 31. Self-awareness usually emerges by about _____ of age. A. 6 months B. 9 months C. 12 months D. 36 months 32. Which of the following is a defining feature of altruistic behavior? A. Having no expectations of a reward B. Helping a person as a social exchange transaction C. Engaging in collaborative activities routinely D. Helping a person in the family 33. Which of the following is an example of an empathetic response by a toddler? A. Helena helping her teddy bear go to sleep by singing a lullaby B. Jamie imitating the manner in which his father pats his back C. Carrie helping Jane fix her favorite toy that fell down and broke D. Stephanie collecting her toys together after her mother reprimanded her for making a mess 34. Temperament is A. a non-linguistic form of communication. B. a variable aspect of an individual's behavior. C. a measure of cognitive development in infants and toddlers. D. a characteristic style of approaching people and situations. 35. According to the New York Longitudinal Study, 40% of children exhibit a temperamental pattern described as A. difficult. B. slow-to-warm-up. C. easy. D. mixed temperament. 36. Which of the following statements about temperament is correct? A. Temperament may regulate children's mental and emotional functioning. B. Temperament is fully formed at birth. C. Temperament, once set, rarely changes. D. The difficult temperament is the most common type of temperament reported in children. 37. Baby Elise does not follow regular patterns of eating and sleeping and has intense reactions to what goes on in her environment. These are characteristics of the _____ type of temperament. A. easy B. difficult C. slow-to-warm-up D. stable 38. Lucy is a quiet infant who is mild in her responses whether positive and negative. She shows a distinct dislike for new situations, but eventually adjusts and enjoys new things. Thomas and Chess would classify Lucy as a(n) _____ child. A. slow-to-warm-up B. difficult C. easy D. ambivalent 39. Baby Ellen is suspicious of strangers, throws tantrums frequently, and has an irregular pattern of waking and sleeping. Which of the following kinds of temperament does she have? A. Easy B. Stable C. Difficult D. Slow-to-warm-up 40. Baby Benjamin sleeps and eats irregularly, adjusts slowly to new routines, and is suspicious of strangers. He fits which of the temperamental patterns described by Thomas and Chess in the classic New York Longitudinal Study? A. Easy B. Difficult C. Low reactive D. Uninhibited to novelty 41. Baby Eddy's schedules are predictable, he adapts easily, and responds well to change. Which of the following kinds of temperament does he have? A. Easy B. Difficult C. Slow-to-warm-up D. Placid 42. Which of the following children is probably NOT experiencing a problem of "fit" between temperament and environment? A. Aaron is a quiet and fairly inactive child who lives in a small apartment with his older siblings and parents. B. Brian likes to sit quietly and play alone, but most of his days are spent with ten other children at a day care center. C. Carolyn enjoys experimenting with arts and crafts, but lacks the scope because her mother likes the house to be neat and tidy. D. Debby is hesitant and quiet, and her father often pushes her to experience new games and activities. 43. In Kagan's views, behavioral inhibition A. primarily relates to infants' responses to familiar events. B. essentially explains inhibition in terms of ecological causes, rather than its biological correlates. C. grows or weakens depending on how caregivers handle the inhibitory temperament of the child. D. remains unaffected by culture, gender, race, and other environmental factors. 44. Which of the following is an explanation of inhibition in children as explained by Kagan? A. High degree of sensation-seeking behaviors B. High need for novelty in stimulation C. High degree of excitability of the amygdala D. High threshold for sensory excitation 45. Erikson's first developmental crisis is A. autonomy versus shame and doubt. B. initiative versus guilt. C. basic trust versus basic mistrust. D. generativity versus stagnation. 46. Two-year-old Hanna believes that her needs in life will be fulfilled and that she can obtain what she desires. According to Erikson, Hanna has successfully resolved the crisis of A. basic trust versus basic mistrust. B. autonomy versus shame and doubt. C. industry versus inferiority. D. generativity versus guilt. 47. Which of the following is a possible outcome of an inadequate resolution of the conflict between basic trust and basic mistrust? A. Close attachment with the mother B. Difficulties in forming quality relationships C. Deficits in cognitive abilities D. Strong sense of predictability and stability 48. According to Erikson, a child who develops a predominance of basic trust will have the characteristic of A. hope. B. caring. C. intimacy. D. love. 49. The establishment of basic trust versus basic mistrust in a child's personality occurs between _____ of age. A. birth and 3 months B. 1 and 6 months C. birth and 18 months D. 1 and 2 years 50. Kora experienced difficulties in the first stage of psychosocial development outlined by Erikson. In her adult years, one might expect her to display A. a sense of shame. B. a lack of self-regulation. C. a belief that the world is inherently hostile. D. a tendency toward narcissism. 51. The development of basic trust versus basic mistrust occurs through the infant's interactions with A. strangers encountered during infancy. B. the primary caregivers. C. the physical environment. D. other infants of a similar age. 52. _____ is defined as a reciprocal, enduring emotional tie between an infant and a caregiver, each of whom contributes to the quality of the relationship. A. Internalization B. Empathy C. Attachment D. Temperament 53. Which of the following is the laboratory-based technique that was used by Mary Ainsworth to study attachment in children? A. Still-face paradigm B. Visual cliff technique C. Strange Situation technique D. Violation-of-expectations technique 54. In the context of strange situation technique, which of the following is a good way to measure attachment between a mother and a baby? A. The strength of separation anxiety when the mother leaves B. The strength of stranger anxiety in the absence of the mother C. The reaction of the baby when the mother returns after being separated for a while D. The strength of the baby's reaction when she is taken from the mother 55. Which of the following is NOT a pattern of attachment during infancy identified by Ainsworth? A. Ambivalence B. Autonomy C. Avoidance D. Secure 56. One-year-old Peter rarely cries when his mother leaves him with a baby-sitter. When his mother returns, he seems indifferent and refuses to let her hold him. Peter's pattern of attachment would best be classified as A. ambivalent. B. avoidant. C. disorganized-disoriented. D. secure. 57. Beth readily leaves her mother to explore her surroundings, occasionally looking toward or touching her mother. Beth appears to be A. securely attached. B. disorganized-disoriented. C. ambivalent. D. avoidant. 58. Tony rarely cries when his mother leaves and is not eager to greet her when she returns. He appears to be A. securely attached. B. disorganized-disoriented. C. ambivalent. D. avoidant. 59. Which of the following forms of attachment between a caregiver and a baby seems to be the least secure? A. Disorganized-disoriented B. Passive-aggressive C. Avoidant D. Ambivalent 60. Marcella smiles and greets her mother when she returns from a shopping trip but then looks away fearfully. She also seems to be in fear of something almost all the time. Marcella's attachment pattern suggests that she is A. securely attached. B. disorganized-disoriented. C. ambivalent. D. avoidant. 61. According to the attachment theory, A. early caregiving has a negligible influence on the development of attachment. B. babies build a "working model" based on their interactions with caregivers. C. attachment patterns develop independent of any temperamental influences of the child. D. a baby's attachment is qualitatively distinct from Erikson's concept of trust. 62. The Parkers have an 8-month-old infant, Tara, who cries when her mother's cousin comes to visit. Tara is exhibiting _____ in this scenario. A. anxious attachment B. poor socialization C. stranger anxiety D. separation anxiety 63. A 9-month-old infant who cries when her mother leaves is exhibiting A. separation anxiety. B. stranger anxiety. C. anxious attachment. D. avoidant attachment. 64. When 1-year-old Tommy's grandmother visits his house to babysit him while his parents go out, Tommy starts to fuss and cry as his mother gets ready to leave. Tommy is demonstrating A. imprinting. B. separation anxiety. C. situational compliance. D. anxious attachment. 65. Leah cries every time her mother leaves the house. Her crying spells are so intense and disturbing that her mother is thinking of giving up her part-time job. Leah's distress when a familiar caregiver leaves is called A. avoidant attachment. B. separation anxiety. C. stranger anxiety. D. basic mistrust. 66. Research on intergenerational transmission of attachment patterns has shown that A. the way adults recall their early experiences with their own parents affects the way they treat their own children. B. mothers who grow up with a working model of themselves as unlovable are especially attuned and sensitive to their babies' attachment behaviors. C. the attachment relationship that forms between a woman with an insecure attachment herself and her baby is typically negative and irreversible. D. the Adult Attachment Interview (AAI) is not valid for women whose own attachment relationship in infancy was not secure. 67. Which of the following statements regarding the studies of mutual regulation and emotional communication is true? A. Infants can take an active part in regulating their emotional state only after the age of one year. B. The ability for mutual regulation can be studied using the still-face paradigm. C. At this stage, babies are still unable to use social referencing. D. Infants do not take any steps to calm the dysregulation caused when their mothers do not use facial expressions to respond to them. 68. When a baby "reads" the expression of a caregiver for a clue as to how to act in an ambiguous situation, it is referred to as A. social facilitation. B. separation anxiety. C. situational compliance. D. social referencing. 69. A child's sense of being a physical whole within boundaries separating him/her from the rest of the world is called A. self-efficacy. B. self-esteem. C. self-confidence. D. self-coherence. 70. Dabbing the noses of infants with rouge to see how they react when placed in front of a mirror is a test of A. self-recognition. B. self-description. C. self-negativism. D. self-control. 71. Claire, a 4-month-old baby, does not recognize herself in mirrors or pictures. If she is like most babies, she will develop physical self-recognition and self-awareness by the age of _____ months. A. 6 B. 9 C. 12 D. 18 72. Whenever she gets a chance, three-year-old Brenda uses all of her mother's cosmetics and watches herself in the mirror. She has learnt to do this by imitating her mother. Which of the following is true of Brenda? A. Brenda is demonstrating committed compliance in this instance. B. Brenda has a well-developed sense of self-recognition in this instance. C. Brenda has not experienced the impact of gender-typing yet. D. Brenda is reflecting a high degree of self-regulation and conscientiousness in this scenario. 73. 73. Studies using MRI have shown that the _____ plays a major role in the development of self-representation in 15-30 months old toddlers. A. cauda equina B. left temporo-parietal junction C. arachnoid mater D. corpus callosum 74. According to Erikson, which of the following psychosocial crises occurs during toddlerhood? A. Basic trust versus basic mistrust B. Initiative versus guilt C. Identity versus role confusion D. Autonomy versus shame and doubt 75. A favorable resolution of the crisis of autonomy versus shame and doubt leads to A. control by the superego. B. the characteristic of hope. C. the characteristic of will. D. the acceptance of parent's authority. 76. The autonomy versus shame and doubt stage is A. limited to the age of 3-4 years. B. characterized by complete dependence on the caregiver's judgment. C. associated with negativism in some cultures. D. linked to poor parental control and maladjustment. 77. According to Erikson, shame and doubt A. fill toddlers with inhibitions and undermine self-esteem. B. need to be balanced with autonomy. C. can interfere with the learning of self-regulation and self-restraint. D. should be replaced by unrestrained freedom. 78. Two-year-old Cameron rejects his parents' offers of assistance and shows high levels of negativism. According to Erikson's theory, Cameron is A. a temperamentally difficult child. B. an anxiously attached child. C. at the stage where he experiences a need for autonomy. D. at the stage of symbolic representation. 79. Sally is 2 years old and insists on dressing herself even if she puts on her clothes the wrong way. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is she in? A. Basic trust versus basic mistrust B. Identity versus role confusion C. Autonomy versus shame and doubt D. Initiative versus guilt 80. Leroy has settled into the habit of saying "no" even when he may mean "yes." His parents explain that he has hit the "terrible twos," a normal manifestation of A. mutual-regulation. B. basic mistrust. C. shame and doubt. D. the need for autonomy. 81. Negativism is typically a(n) A. early sign of self-doubt. B. sign of childhood depression. C. sign of self-regulation. D. expression of the need for autonomy. 82. Which of the following is true with regard to the phase called terrible twos in child development? A. It is an abnormal phase in child development seen only in cases of acute parental neglect. B. It is a universal phenomenon in child development that manifests itself in the same manner across cultures. C. It is more evident in those cultures that stress upon collectivism and group welfare rather than personal freedom and choice. D. It is closely associated with the value of individualism and this explains its predominance in the United States. 83. Socialization depends on the _____ of societal standards of conduct. A. rejection B. extinction C. internalization D. negation 84. _____ is defined as the emotional discomfort about doing something wrong and the ability to refrain from doing it. A. Coercion B. Mistrust C. Autonomy D. Conscience 85. Self-regulation is defined as A. a child's independent control of his/her behavior to conform to social expectations. B. the process by which infant and caregiver communicate emotional states to each other and respond appropriately. C. the process of understanding an ambiguous situation by seeking out another person's perception of it. D. the process by which children develop an enduring tie with their caregivers. 86. 16-months-old Nancy is about to touch an electric outlet, but then says, "No!" and pulls her finger back. Nancy is demonstrating A. negativism. B. shame and doubt. C. basic mistrust. D. self-regulation. 87. Internalization of parental values and rules is most evident in the case of A. Norah, who has climbed onto the kitchen counter to reach the cookie jar. B. Jason, who has returned a box of toys he forcibly took from a classmate after being scolded by his teacher. C. Marilyn, who has placed her toys back in the toy box before her mother called her to watch cartoons. D. Rick, who began to open the desks in which his father kept his office papers. 88. A child who is by himself starts to fiddle with his father's toolbox, even though his father has told him not to. As he is about to reach into the toolbox, he begins to feel guilty and decides to leave the tools alone. The child has developed A. situational compliance. B. negativism. C. social referencing. D. a conscience. 89. Phillipe is a model child as long as an adult oversees his activities. When no adult is around, he tends to do all the things his parents have specifically barred him from doing. Which of the following terms would best explain this behavior? A. Committed compliance B. Situational compliance C. Self-regulation D. Self-coherence 90. The process by which children learn behavior that their culture considers appropriate for each sex is called A. gender-naming. B. gender-typing. C. gender continuum. D. engendering. 91. Which of the following is a broad measurable difference seen between male and female infants in the United States? A. Boys' brains at birth are about 10 percent smaller than girls' brains. B. Girls are less reactive to stress and more likely to survive infancy. C. On an average, boys achieve the major milestones about two months later than girls. D. Girls are more vulnerable to illness and fatality since conception than boys. 92. Which of the following statements is true of relationships with siblings in infancy and toddlerhood? A. Constructive conflict is rarely seen between siblings till they are teenagers. B. Relationships with siblings are identical in nature and impact to peer relationships. C. Sibling conflict increases dramatically after the younger child reaches about 18 months of age. D. Sibling conflict often interferes with children's ability to learn how to fight, disagree, and compromise. Essay Questions 93. Define emotion. Explain why emotions, such as pride, shame, and guilt develop late in infancy and toddlerhood. Answer: Emotions are subjective reactions to experience that are associated with physiological and behavioral changes. Self-conscious emotions, such as embarrassment, envy, and shame arise only after children have developed self-awareness at about age 3. Self-awareness involves the cognitive understanding that they have a recognizable identity, separate and different from the rest of their world. Children must understand that others might have opinions about the wrongness or rightness of their behavior different from their own before they can understand and feel these social emotions. 94. Explain how the Erikson crisis of basic trust versus basic mistrust has an effect on the personality development of a child. Answer: The first of Erikson's eight stages in psychosocial development is basic trust versus basic mistrust. This stage begins in infancy and continues until about 18 months. In these early months, babies need to develop a balance between trust, which lets them form intimate relationships, and mistrust, which enables them to protect themselves. If trust predominates, as it should, children develop hope: the belief they can fulfill their needs and obtain their desires. If mistrust predominates, children will view the world as unfriendly and unpredictable and will have trouble forming quality relationships. The critical element in developing trust is sensitive, responsive, and consistent caregiving. Erikson saw the feeding situation as the setting for establishing the right mix of trust and mistrust. 95. Define attachment. Describe the Ainsworth "Strange Situation," and describe the different types of attachment. Answer: Attachment is a reciprocal, enduring emotional tie between an infant and a caregiver, each of whom contributes to the quality of the relationship. The Strange Situation consists of a sequence of eight short episodes of gradually increasing stress designed to trigger the emergence of attachment-related behaviors. During that time, the mother twice leaves the baby in an unfamiliar room. Upon her return, the mother gives comfort if the baby seems to need it. Of particular concern is the baby's response each time the mother returns. Babies with secure attachment might cry or protest when a caregiver leaves but they obtain the comfort they need quickly and effectively upon her return, and they calm easily upon contact. If they do not become upset at separations, they nonetheless illustrate their preference for the mother over strangers when she reenters the room, often greeting her with smiles and vocalizations. Babies with avoidant attachment are outwardly unaffected by a caregiver leaving or returning. They show little positive or negative emotion to the mother's return, and often deliberately ignore a mother's attempts to get their attention when she comes back. Babies with resistant (ambivalent) attachment become anxious even before a caregiver leaves and become increasingly upset when he or she departs. Upon the caregiver's return, resistant babies demonstrate their distress and anger by seeking contact while at the same time resisting it by kicking or squirming. These three attachment patterns are universal in all cultures in which they have been studied. Other research identified a fourth pattern, disorganized-disoriented attachment, which is the least secure. Babies with the disorganized pattern seem to lack a cohesive strategy for dealing with Strange Situation stress. Instead, they show contradictory, repetitive, or misdirected movements and emotions. 96. When does the sense of self arise, and what contributes to its development? Answer: The self-concept is our image of ourselves—our total picture of our abilities and traits. It describes what we know and feel about ourselves and guides our actions. By at least 3 months infants pay attention to their mirror image. Four- to 9-month-olds show more interest in images of others than of themselves. This early perceptual discrimination may be the foundation of the conceptual self-concept that develops in the middle of the 2nd year. Between 4 and 10 months, when infants learn to reach, grasp, and make things happen, they experience a sense of personal agency, the realization that they can control external events. At about this time infants develop self-coherence, the sense of being a physical whole with boundaries separate from the rest of their world. 97. Describe sibling relationships during the period of infancy and toddlerhood. Answer: Sibling relationships begin with the birth of a new baby in a household and continue to develop positively and negatively throughout childhood. Sibling relationships play a distinct role in socialization, different from the role of relationships with parents or peers. Lessons and skills learned from interactions with siblings—such as conflict and cooperation—carry over to relationships outside the home. Children react in various ways to a sibling's arrival. Much of the variation in children's adjustment to a new baby may have to do with such factors as the older child's age, the quality of his or her relationship with the mother, and the family atmosphere. Chapter 08 Physical Growth in Early Childhood True / False Questions 1. Changes within the brain during early childhood are more outwardly apparent than the changes in infancy. FALSE 2. Children grow rapidly between ages 3 and 6 but less quickly than in infancy and toddlerhood. TRUE 3. During early childhood growth, a child's head is still relatively large, but the other parts of the body continue to catch up as proportions steadily become more adultlike. TRUE 4. The growth spurt of puberty generally starts a few years earlier in boys; thus for a short while, girls have a growth advantage. FALSE 5. During early childhood, the cartilage turns to bone at a faster rate giving the child a firmer shape and protects the internal organs. TRUE 6. The density of synapses in the prefrontal cortex peaks at age 4. TRUE 7. From ages 3 to 6, the most rapid brain growth is in an area that primarily supports associative thinking, language, and spatial relations. FALSE 8. Regular, consistent sleep routines typically help solve the problems of preschoolers who resist going to bed. TRUE 9. The use of toys as bedtime companions hamper children's transition from the dependence of infancy to the independence of later childhood. FALSE 10. Sleep issues may be the result of ineffective parenting practices that exacerbate rather than ease the problem. TRUE 11. A child who experiences a night terror tends to recall the entire episode the next morning. FALSE 12. Night terrors generally peak between 2.5 to 4 years of age and decline thereafter. TRUE 13. Nightmares can occur among children when they eat a heavy meal close to bedtime. TRUE 14. Enuresis tends to run in families. TRUE 15. Fine motor skills that involve the large muscles are the basis for sports, dancing, and other activities during early childhood. FALSE 16. Children who attend schools are more likely to be left handed than children who do not receive a formal education. FALSE 17. A food allergy is an abnormal immune system response to a specific food. TRUE 18. Changes in diet have been predicted to be a factor contributing to the increase in food allergy rates. TRUE 19. Parents should not ignore the common habit of thumb sucking in children under age 2. FALSE 20. The lower a family's socioeconomic status (SES), the greater a child's risk of illness, injury, and death. TRUE Multiple Choice Questions 21. Which of the following is true of children's growth? A. Children's growth is slowest in infancy and toddlerhood. B. Changes within the brain during early childhood are more outwardly apparent and less significant. C. At about age 3, children begin to take on the slender, athletic appearance of childhood. D. During early childhood, cartilage constitutes a majority of the skeletal system. 22. Which of the following statements is true of physical growth patterns in early childhood? A. The slight edge that boys have in height and weight continues until the growth spurt of puberty. B. The density of synapses in the prefrontal cortex peaks at 10 years of age. C. Both boys and girls typically grow 5 to 6 inches a year during early childhood. D. By age 10, the brain reaches 90 percent of its adult weight 23. During early childhood, children grow ___ per year. A. less than one inch B. 2 to 3 inches C. 4 inches D. 6 inches 24. Susanna is a 4-year-old child. Which of the following would most likely be observed in Susanna? A. Susanna's toddler potbelly would continue to grow. B. Susanna would experience height and weight loss as she becomes more slender. C. Susanna's cartilage would turn to bone at a faster rate. D. Susanna would stop experiencing night terrors. 25. The increased capacities of the respiratory and circulatory systems during early childhood A. build physical stamina. B. reduce the pace of myelination. C. improve fine motor skills. D. determine handedness. 26. Which of the following is true of early childhood brain growth and development? A. The brain experiences the slowest growth and development in infancy. B. The density of synapses in the prefrontal cortex peaks at age 14. C. By age 4, the brain has reached its total adult volume. D. From ages 3 to 6, the most rapid growth occurs in the frontal areas of the brain. 27. Which of the following is true of brain development in children? A. Myelination of pathways for hearing is complete at age 1. B. Brain development is complete by infancy and no major changes occur in childhood. C. The patterns of brain development are consistent and universal. D. Wide individual differences exist in the brain volume of children of the same age. 28. From ages 3 to 6, rapid brain growth occurs in areas that primarily regulate A. associative thinking. B. spatial relations. C. planning actions. D. language processing. 29. Myelination of pathways for hearing is complete around the age of _____ years. A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 12 30. Which of the following links the left and right hemispheres of the brain? A. Prefrontal cortex B. Insular cortex C. Corpus callosum D. Superior frontal gyrus 31. Which of the following in the corpus callosum permits more rapid transmission of information and better integration between the hemispheres? A. Progressive myelination of fibers B. Co-ordination of the superior frontal gyrus with the sensory system C. Development of the prefrontal cortex D. Progression of the insular cortex 32. Progressive myelination of fibers in the corpus callosum permits more rapid transmission of information and better integration between the hemispheres, which A. improves sleep patterns. B. increases height. C. improves speech and hearing. D. increases weight. 33. Irving is a typical 6-year-old boy. He would most likely A. sleep through the night without any daytime naps. B. sleep through the night and take multiple daytime naps. C. sleep for an average of 6 hours at night and give up daytime naps. D. sleep every four to six hours. 34. Which of the following provides a potential explanation for the tendency of preschoolers to actively resist going to bed? A. Preschoolers shift from the dependence of infancy to the independence of later childhood. B. Light meals close to bedtime may create hunger. C. Bedtime may bring on a form of separation anxiety. D. Progressive myelination of fibers in the corpus callosum has an impact on sleep E. patterns. 35. Jane's soft toy is kept in her mother's car to help calm her down when she has to go to daycare. The soft toy is her _____ object. A. conversion B. rudimentary C. educational D. transitional 36. An example of a transitional object is A. a child's favorite blanket. B. a couple of crackers eaten between lunch and dinner. C. a ritual of being rocked to sleep. D. a lullaby after dinner. 37. Mollie, age 4, refused to go to sleep without her favorite rag doll. The family was up late because "Rag Doll Ruthie" had to finish the wash cycle and spend a period of time in the dryer. This scenario illustrates the use of A. transitional objects. B. infantile objects. C. rudimentary objects. D. inhibitory objects. 38. Which of the following statements regarding early childhood sleep behaviors is true? A. Walking and talking during sleep is unusual in early childhood. B. Children who experience night terrors are typically unaware of episodes of disturbance the next morning. C. Most sleep disturbances are caused by poor parenting practices. D. Most sleep disturbances persist into adulthood and warrant medical help. 39. Which of the following is true of sleep disturbances? A. Sleepwalking and sleep talking are generally harmful and hence should be prevented during the beginning stages. B. Night terrors generally peak between 8.5 to 10 years of age. C. Sleep disturbances may be caused by accidental activation of the brain's motor control system. D. The frequency of sleep disturbances increases as children age. 40. A child who experiences a(n) _____ appears to awaken abruptly from a deep sleep early in the night in a state of agitation. A. enuresis B. sleep talking C. sleepwalking D. night terrors 41. Which of the following scenarios illustrates a night terror? A. Unable to fall asleep at his normal bedtime, Joey got out of bed and began walking around the house. B. Christine dreamt that there was an earthquake after watching television coverage of an earthquake-affected area. C. Jason was gently patted back to sleep after his parents heard him crying loudly and rushed to his room. D. Kellie woke up crying when she realized that her mother would scold her the next morning for wetting her bed. 42. Which of the following is true of a night terror? A. When a child experiences a night terror, he remembers the entire episode the next morning. B. A child is not really awake when he awakens after experiencing a night terror. C. The best way to tackle night terrors is to wake the child up while he or she is experiencing the terrors. D. When a child experiences a night terror, he is unlikely to be soothed down easily and requires medical help. 43. Bonnie has apparently awakened from a deep sleep. She is staring ahead and breathing quickly. When asked if she has had a bad dream, she does not answer but promptly lies down and falls asleep. The next morning, she has no recollection of the experience. Bonnie experienced A. a nightmare. B. a sleep talking episode. C. a sleepwalking episode. D. a night terror. 44. Jack's parents noticed that when he woke up on Sunday morning, he was looking upset and restless. He told his parents that he had dreamt that he was being chased by the large dog that lives down the street. Jack had experienced a A. nightmare. B. sleepwalking episode. C. night terror. D. sleep talking episode. 45. Gerard went out for dinner and watched a horror movie with his parents at the cinemas. The next morning, he woke up sweating and scared after having dreamt of the ghost in the movie. Gerard experienced a A. nightmare. B. tantrum. C. night terror. D. phobia. 46. Nightmares during early childhood A. are experienced more by boys than girls. B. should be treated by a mental health professional. C. generally indicate the presence of abuse within the family. D. are serious only if they occur frequently. 47. Sylvia is aware of your extensive background in sleep disturbances and disorders. She is not certain how to tell if her son is experiencing sleep terrors or nightmares. What could you tell her to help her determine the difference? A. Night terrors take place in deep sleep, so they do not occur until hours into the sleep cycle. B. If the child can remember what she was dreaming, it is probably a nightmare. C. Eating a heavy meal close to bedtime can bring on night terrors. D. Night terrors tend to affect girls, and nightmares tend to affect boys. 48. Shirley has a daughter who sleepwalks. Shirley should do all of the following except A. childproof the house (e.g., stairs, windows, and doors). B. walk or carry the child back to bed during sleepwalking episodes. C. wake the child during sleepwalking and night terrors. D. help her child get enough sleep on a regular schedule. 49. Enuresis is the medical term for A. bed-wetting. B. sleep terrors. C. sleepwalking. D. nightmares. 50. Which of the following is NOT typically a factor in enuresis? A. Family history B. Diet C. Heredity D. Sex of the child 51. Which of the following is true of enuresis? A. Enuresis rarely manifests itself in children belonging to age group of 3 to 5 years. B. Enuresis refers to voluntary urination by children. C. Enuresis lacks any clear indications of being a hereditary problem. D. Enuresis results from a lack of awareness relating to bladder control. 52. Michael generally urinates on his bed while sleeping without his knowledge. This implies that Michael is experiencing A. homeostasis. B. nightmare. C. enuresis. D. night terrors. 53. A treatment program for enuresis must be A. initiated soon after the first instance of bed-wetting. B. provided to all children to learn the process of bowel control. C. delayed till a child can comprehend and follow instructions. D. regulated by a professional even for minor cases of enuresis. 54. Which of the following is defined as physical skills that involve the large muscles? A. Gross motor skills B. Graded skills C. Fine motor skills D. Lateralized skills 55. Which of the following is a gross motor skill? A. Painting B. Typing C. Skipping D. Reading 56. Which of the following is true of motor development in children between the ages of 3 and 6 years? A. They experience minor motor skill developments in this phase. B. They are able to hop and jump in this phase but skipping and skating are not learnt until eight years of age. C. They begin to show a preference for using either the right or left hand. D. They are equally comfortable going up or down the stairs at the beginning of this stage. 57. Which of the following distinguishes gross motor skills and fine motor skills? A. Gross motor skills involve the large muscles, while fine motor skills are manipulative skills. B. Gross motor skills tend to develop in isolation as opposed to fine motor skills. C. Fine motor skills build on the achievements of infancy and toddlerhood, while gross motor skills build on environmental influences. D. Fine motor skills are developed at about the age of 7 as opposed to gross motor skills, which develop at the age of 10. 58. Adam is very adept with the joystick that guides his favorite computer game. This activity relies on his _____ motor skills. A. gross B. fine C. large D. graded 59. Which of the following is an example of gross motor skills? A. Jerry eating his food with a spoon B. Jerry cutting paper with scissors C. Jerry climbing the staircase D. Jerry drawing his favorite cartoon character 60. Which of the following is an example of a gross motor skill being applied? A. Giselle making a sketch of her doll B. Giselle playing hopscotch with her friends C. Giselle tying her hair D. Giselle making a sandwich for her mother 61. Which of the following is an example of fine motor skills? A. Vivian participating in athletics B. Vivian making running jumps before a sports event C. Vivian hopping down the stairs D. Vivian tying his shoelaces 62. Which of the following would qualify as an example of fine motor skills? A. Dennis winning a drawing competition B. Dennis playing on a trampoline C. Dennis going on an escalator at a mall D. Dennis running at the beach 63. Pedro has gotten proficient in kicking the soccer ball into the goal net. This ability relies on his _____ motor skills. A. gross B. fine C. graded D. subcortical 64. Most 3-year-olds can A. make a running jump of 36 inches or more. B. walk in a straight line and jump a short distance. C. hop four to six steps on one foot. D. start, turn, and stop effectively in games. 65. Alysha can dress herself with help, cut along a line, draw a fairly complete person, and fold paper into a double triangle. Given your knowledge of average fine-motor skill development in early childhood, how old would you think Alysha is? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 7 66. Which of the following statements is true of motor skills in children? A. The fine motor skills developed during early childhood are the basis for sports, dancing, and other activities. B. Gains in fine motor skills allow young children to take more responsibility for their personal care. C. Though the repertoire of motor skills increases during this stage, children are yet to develop the stamina required to master these skills. D. The skills that emerge in early childhood are independent of the achievements of infancy and toddlerhood. 67. Which of the following is true of motor skills that emerge during early childhood? A. Motor skills that emerge during early childhood are not connected to the achievements of infancy and toddlerhood. B. Hopping is generally mastered by children at age 2. C. During early childhood, going upstairs is easier than going down. D. A child's fine motor skills are the primary determinants of his performance in sports. 68. Jacob's left-handedness sent his parents on a research mission to check out the facts. Which of the following regarding handedness is true? A. Handedness is seldom evident before 6 years of age. B. Boys are more likely than girls to be left-handed. C. Handedness is purely determined by genetics. D. Handedness is independent of environmental influences. 69. A clear preference for handedness is usually evident by _____ months of age. A. 12 B. 24 C. 36 D. 48 70. Which of the following is true of handedness? A. Handedness is always clear-cut. B. Handedness is usually evident by about age 3. C. Every human prefers one hand for every task. D. Girls are more likely to be left-handed than boys. 71. The four major causes of death, accounting for more than half of deaths in children younger than age 5, are communicable diseases: pneumonia, diarrhea, malaria, and _____. A. tuberculosis B. polio C. measles D. neonatal sepsis 72. Which of the following is true of obesity? A. The sole factor driving the obesity epidemic is heredity. B. To avoid obesity, saturated fats must be the only form of fats to be consumed. C. To prevent obesity in older preschoolers, serving appropriate portions is imperative. D. Early childhood is not a good time to treat obesity as a child is growing during that stage. 73. Compared with infants, children in the early childhood stage A. require fewer calories in proportion to their weight. B. receive smaller servings of food. C. eat more frequently throughout the day. D. require less physical activity. 74. Which of the following is NOT recommended when trying to encourage healthy eating habits in early childhood? A. Serving finger foods as often as possible B. Being tolerant of food rituals C. Encouraging pleasant conversations at mealtimes D. Insisting that the child cleans his or her plate 75. Diane is trying to find ways to encourage her 4-year-old to develop healthy eating habits. Which of the following would NOT be a good measure for her to take? A. Making mealtimes a family affair with conversation and bonding B. Providing the child with nutritious snacks between meals C. Allowing the child to eat while watching her favorite cartoon show on TV D. Serving finger foods as often as possible 76. Which of the following is true of nutrition and obesity in early childhood? A. Ethnicity and family income have no significant correlations with prevalence of obesity. B. A tendency toward obesity cannot be caused by heredity and is completely attributable to environmental influences. C. As growth slows, preschoolers need fewer calories in proportion to their weight than they did when younger to speed process of growth. D. Obesity can be prevented by allowing children to choose mealtimes. 77. Four-year-old Sam loves high fat foods. Although Sam is not overweight, his parents want him to have a healthy diet. Which of the following statements about dietary fat and preschoolers is relevant is Sam's case? A. Research has shown that moderately low-fat diets lead to malnutrition in children of Sam's age. B. Children over age 2 should obtain about 30% of their total calories from fat. C. Children over age 2 should obtain about 80% of their total calories solely from saturated fat. D. Children should not be given skim milk until they are 6 years old. 78. Which of the following statements about malnutrition in early childhood is true? A. Children are more likely to do poorly on tests if they are malnourished. B. The effect of malnutrition on growth is irreversible. C. The specific effects of malnutrition are easily determined even among children from deprived backgrounds. D. Malnutrition typically impacts physical development rather than cognitive functioning. 79. The specific effects of malnutrition are hard to determine because A. different levels of malnutrition are existent. B. the effect of malnutrition on growth is irreversible. C. undernourished children usually live in extremely deprived circumstances. D. there is no specific index to measure the effects of malnutrition. 80. Which of the following has been provided as a potential explanation for the increase in food allergy rates? A. Irregular mealtimes B. Decreased vitamin D due to less sun exposure C. Quantity of meals D. Foods dressed with garnishes 81. By what age are all the primary teeth in place? A. 3 years B. 7 years C. 5 years D. 6 years 82. Chad has just realized that his first permanent tooth is emerging. If he is an average child, what age would you estimate Chad to be? A. 4 years B. 3 years C. 6 years D. 8 years 83. Kellie and Will are working parents and their three-year-old daughter, Hannah, often throws a tantrum when they leave for work. Kellie and Will try to be hands-on parents, providing Hannah with adequate nutrition, attention, and opportunities to learn. Which of the following measures taken by Kellie and Will may undermine their child's health? A. Providing Hannah small cubes of vegetables to chew on while she watches television B. Providing Hannah a chocolate or candy bar as a bait to stop crying when one of them leaves for work C. Ensuring that Hannah eats skim milk, lean meats, and other diary products though Kellie and Will are vegans D. Allowing Hannah to help in small ways to prepare the meals and making interesting conversation during mealtimes 84. Karen is five years old and sucks her thumb excessively. Karen's mother should A. allow Karen to suck her thumb as her primary teeth are unaffected by this habit. B. disallow Karen to suck her thumb and give her a pacifier instead. C. allow Karen to suck her thumb because this helps her calm Karen down when she's crying. D. disallow Karen to suck her thumb because her permanent teeth may get damaged from this habit. 85. Which of the following statements is true of oral health in early childhood? A. Thumb sucking among children can result in undernutrition. B. Tooth decay is an abnormal immune system response to a specific food. C. Tooth decay in early childhood often stems from overconsumption of sweetened milk. D. Parents should not ignore the common habit of thumb sucking in children under age 4. 86. _____ is introduced into public water supplies to reduce the prevalence of dental caries. A. Lead oxide B. Graphene C. Lithium D. Fluoride 87. In the United States, the leading cause of death among children today is A. child abuse. B. accidents. C. cancer. D. epilepsy. 88. Most deaths from injuries, especially among preschool aged children, in the United States A. occur in private day care centers. B. occur at home. C. occur in schools. D. occur in playgrounds and schools. 89. Children are required by law to ride in specially designed car seats or seatbelt restraints in A. about half of the states. B. all states including the District of Columbia. C. states that have a greater proportion of children in their population. D. major cities. 90. Which of the followings statements is true about accidental deaths in children? A. Unintentional exposure to over-the-counter medicines does not impact young children. B. Children are less likely to be injured in day care than in and around the home. C. Safer storage of firearms, as required by law in several states, has improved child safety. D. Young children typically survive major accidents because of the mandatory use of airbags in the United States. 91. The government program providing medical assistance to low-income families is called A. Medicaid. B. Medicare. C. Medi-card. D. Medimaster 92. Which of the following statements is true of exposure to smoking? A. Parental smoking is a cause of childhood illness and death that cannot be prevented. B. The potential damage caused by exposure to tobacco smoke is least during the early years of life as the child's lungs are not developed completely. C. The damaging effects of smoking have a drastic impact on children due to their slower rate of respiration. D. Children exposed to parental smoke are at increased risk of respiratory infections. Essay Questions 93. Compare and contrast physical development at ages 3 and 6. Answer: Children grow rapidly between ages 3 and 6 but less quickly than in infancy and toddlerhood. At about age 3, they begin to take on the slender, athletic appearance of childhood. As abdominal muscles develop, the toddler potbelly tightens. The trunk, arms, and legs grow longer. The head is still relatively large, but the other parts of the body continue to catch up as proportions steadily become more adultlike. Both boys and girls typically grow 2 to 3 inches a year during early childhood and gain about 4 to 6 pounds annually. By age 3, the brain is approximately 90 percent of adult weight. The density of synapses in the prefrontal cortex peaks at age 4. Myelination of pathways for hearing is also complete around that age. By age 6, the brain has attained about 95 percent of its peak volume. However, wide individual differences exist. Children between ages 3 and 6 make great advances in motor skill developments—both gross motor skills such as running and jumping, which involve the large muscles, and fine motor skills, which are manipulative skills such as buttoning and drawing that involve eye-hand and small-muscle coordination. They also begin to show a preference for using either the right or left hand. 94. What is enuresis? What causes it and what can be done to help a child who has enuresis? Answer: Enuresis is the medical term for repeated urination in clothing or in bed. Preschool children normally recognize the feeling of a full bladder while asleep and awaken to empty it. Children who wet the bed do not yet have this awareness. Enuresis runs in families, suggesting that genetics may play a role. The discovery of the approximate site of a gene linked to enuresis points to heredity as a major factor, possibly in combination with slow motor maturation. Children and their parents need to be reassured that enuresis is common and not serious. Treatment is most effective if delayed until the child is able to understand and follow instruction; it often includes either enuresis alarms that wake the child when he or she begins to urinate or medications. The child is not to blame and should not be punished. Generally parents need not seek professional help unless children themselves are distressed by bed-wetting. Enuresis that persists beyond age 8 to 10 may be related to poor self-concept or other psychological problems. 95. As young children grow, development occurs at both the fine and gross motor levels. Explain the difference between fine motor skills and gross motor skills, and give an example of each. Answer: Children between the ages of 3 to 6 make great advances in motor skill developments—both gross motor skills such as running and jumping, which involve the large muscles, and fine motor skills, which are manipulative skills such as buttoning and drawing that involve eye-hand and small-muscle coordination. The gross motor skills developed during early childhood are the basis for sports, dancing, and other activities that begin during middle childhood and may continue for a lifetime. Gains in fine motor skills, such as tying shoelaces and cutting with scissors, allow young children to take more responsibility for their personal care. 96. Childhood obesity is a growing health problem in the United States. What are some of the factors related to this problem, and what can parents and schools do to control it? Answer: A tendency toward obesity can be hereditary, but the main factors driving the obesity epidemic are environmental. As growth slows, preschoolers need fewer calories in proportion to their weight than they did when younger. A key to preventing obesity may be to make sure older preschoolers are served appropriate portions. Children 1 or 2 years old who are at risk of being overweight or of obesity may be given reduced fat milk instead of whole milk; after age 2 they can drink fat-free milk. Too little physical activity is an important factor in obesity as well. To avoid obesity and prevent cardiac problems, young children should get only about 30 percent of their total calories from fat, and no more than one-third of fat calories should come from saturated fat. Although well-planned vegetarian diets are healthy, most children should eat lean meat and dairy foods that provide protein, iron, and calcium. Milk and other dairy products should be skim or low fat. Prevention of obesity in the early years, when excessive weight gain usually begins, is critical; the long-term success of treatment, especially when it is delayed, is limited. Early childhood is a good time to treat obesity, when a child's diet is still subject to parental influence or control. 97. Describe four potential environmental influences on health in the early childhood period of development. How do low SES and homelessness contribute? Describe some of the disparities in the United States and their effects on child health, safety, and development. Answer: The environmental factors including socioeconomic status, race and ethnicity, homelessness, and exposure to pollutants, play major roles on health in the early childhood period of development. The lower a family's socioeconomic status (SES), the greater a child's risk of illness, injury, and death. Children in families with low SES—1 in 5 U.S. children under age 6 and disproportionately minority children—are more likely than other children to have chronic conditions and activity limitations, to lack health insurance, and to have unmet medical and dental needs. Access to quality health care is a particular problem among black and Latino children, especially those who are poor or near poor. Homelessness results from complex circumstances that force people to choose between food, shelter, and other basic needs. Many homeless children spend their crucial early years in unstable, insecure, and often unsanitary environments. They and their parents may be cut off from a supportive community, family, and institutional resources, and from ready access to medical care and schooling. These children suffer more health problems than children from low SES families who have homes, and they are more likely to die in infancy. Homeless children also tend to suffer severe depression and anxiety, and tend to have neurological and visual deficits, developmental delays, behavior problems, and learning difficulties. Test Bank for Child M-Series: From Birth to Adolescence Gabriela Martorell 9780078035517
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