CH-1-2 Introduction to Child Development – Child M-Series: From Birth to Adolescence : Exam Guide

This Document Contains Chapters 1 to 2 Chapter 01 Introduction to Child Development True / False Questions 1. Psychosocial development refers to patterns of change in mental abilities, such as learning, attention, memory, and creativity. FALSE 2. Maturation refers to the differences among children in characteristics, influences, or developmental outcomes. FALSE 3. Ethnic minorities are those ethnic groups that have national or cultural traditions different from the majority of the population. TRUE 4. The composition of a neighborhood affects the way children develop. TRUE 5. Normative influences are unusual events that have a major impact on individual lives because they disturb the expected sequence of the life cycle. FALSE 6. According to Konrad Lorenz, imprinting is automatic and irreversible. TRUE 7. A sensitive period is a period when a developing person is especially responsive to certain kinds of experiences. TRUE 8. Being 3 months versus 6 months pregnant is a qualitative change. FALSE 9. Qualitative change is viewed as continuous development. FALSE 10. The change from a nonverbal child to one who understands words and can communicate verbally is a qualitative change. TRUE 11. Newborns are governed by the superego. FALSE 12. The ego mediates between the impulses of the id and the demands of the superego. TRUE 13. Erikson's theory states that development stops at adolescence. FALSE 14. Operant conditioning is a type of learning in which a response to a stimulus is elicited after repeated association with a stimulus that normally elicits the response. FALSE 15. Reciprocal determinism is Bandura's term for bidirectional forces that affect development. TRUE 16. Evolved mechanisms are behaviors that developed to solve adaptive problems. TRUE 17. An ethnographic study uses a combination of methods, including informal, unstructured interviewing and participant observation. TRUE 18. Two inversely correlated variables increase or decrease together. FALSE 19. Field experiments are controlled studies conducted in an everyday setting, such as home or school. TRUE 20. The sequential study is a complex strategy designed to overcome the drawbacks of longitudinal and cross-sectional research. TRUE Multiple Choice Questions 21. Marsha is taking a class in human development. This class addresses the study of humans A. from conception to adolescence. B. throughout childhood. C. from adolescence through older adulthood. D. from conception to death. 22. Division of the life span into periods of development is a social construction. This indicates that A. it remains constant across all societies. B. it is a concept that is an invention of a particular culture. C. it is normative. D. it is biologically determined. 23. _____ is defined as the growth of the body and brain, sensory capacities, motor skills, and health. A. Physical development B. Cognitive development C. Psychosocial development D. Ego development 24. Annette, who is a toddler, first started crawling, then standing, and is now taking her first steps. This aspect of Annette's development is best categorized as _____. A. physical development B. cognitive development C. psychosocial development D. ego development. 25. Cognitive development primarily refers to A. the growth of sensory capacities and motor skills. B. the pattern of change in mental abilities. C. the pattern of change in emotions. D. the development of social relationships. 26. _____ is defined as the pattern of change in emotions, personality, and relationships. A. Physical development B. Cognitive development C. Psychosocial development D. Normative development 27. Dr. Ortiz is a child psychologist who is conducting a research on peer interactions among middle school children. He aims to understand the impact of peer interactions on emotional development. Dr. Ortiz is focusing on _____. A. cognitive development B. normative development C. physical development D. psychosocial development 28. Dr. Dunn studies the way that children of different ages organize information in their memory. His research focus is primarily on _____ development. A. physical B. normative C. cognitive D. psychosocial 29. Variations among children in characteristics, influences, or developmental outcomes are referred to as _____. A. individual differences B. reaction range C. co-regulation D. social construction 30. The period of development from conception to birth is referred to as _____. A. the prenatal period B. infancy C. puberty D. the neonatal period 31. Which of the following characterizes infants and toddlers? A. Abilities to learn and remember are absent B. Use of symbols develops by end of 2nd year C. Handedness appears D. Play becomes more imaginative, more elaborate, and usually more social 32. During _____ health at is generally better than at any other time in life span. A. toddlerhood B. early childhood C. middle childhood D. adolescence 33. Which of the following is a characteristic of early childhood? A. Basic body structures and organs begin to form B. Children begin to think logically but concretely C. Handedness appears and fine and gross motor skills improve D. Peers assume greater importance than family 34. Reproductive maturity occurs during _____. A. toddlerhood B. early childhood C. middle childhood D. adolescence 35. During _____ thinking is somewhat egocentric, but understanding of other people's perspectives grows. A. toddlerhood B. early childhood C. the prenatal period D. adolescence 36. Which of these characteristics describe psychosocial development occurring during the adolescent stage of development? A. Shift from dependence to autonomy begins B. Physical growth and other changes become very slow C. Search for identity becomes central D. Handedness appears 37. _____ refers to the unfolding of a universal, natural sequence of physical changes and behavior patterns. A. Heredity B. Social construction C. Maturation D. Imprinting 38. A two-generational kinship unit that shares household and economic resources and consists of one or two parents and their biological, adopted, or step children is called a(n) _____. A. stepfamily B. nuclear family C. extended family D. blended family 39. Donna's family consists of her biological parents and her younger brother, Sam. They also have a pet dog. Their family is most likely to be categorized as a(n) _____. A. extended family B. nuclear family C. stepfamily D. blended family 40. Shari is a 9-year-old girl who lives in California. She lives with her parents, her younger sister, and her grandparents. Her maternal uncle, who has recently emigrated from India to the United States, also lives with them. Shari family is most likely to be categorized as a(n) _____ family. A. conjugal B. nuclear C. extended D. blended 41. A society or group's total way of life, including customs, traditions, beliefs, values, language, and so on, is referred to as its _____. A. exosystem B. ethnicity C. culture D. microsystem 42. A group consisting of people united by ancestry, race, religion, language, or national origin that contributes to a sense of shared identity is known as a(n) _____. A. out-group B. ethnic group C. clique D. extended family 43. Which one of the following is NOT a factor on which socioeconomic status is directly based? A. Ethnicity B. Income C. Education D. Occupation 44. Conditions that increase the likelihood of a negative outcome or result are called _____ factors. A. diversity B. developmental C. cohort D. risk 45. Normative influences A. are events that affect many or most people in a society in similar ways. B. are events that touch only certain individuals. C. are inborn traits or characteristics inherited from a child's biological parents. D. are temporary supports provided to help a child master a task. 46. Nonnormative influences A. are events that affect many or most people in a society in similar ways. B. are events that touch only certain individuals. C. are inborn traits or characteristics inherited from a child's biological parents. D. are temporary supports provided to help a child master a task. 47. Events that occur at about the same age for people around the world, such as starting school, are called _____. A. normative age-graded influences B. socially constructed events C. nonnormative life events D. normative history-graded influences 48. Normative history-graded influences include all of the following except A. worldwide economic depression. B. Hurricane Katrina. C. an AIDS epidemic. D. the death of a spouse. 49. All the individuals, who were elementary school students in New York City during the collapse of the World Trade Center, shared a common experience at a formative time in their lives. This group is referred to as a(n) _____. A. ethnic group B. historical generation C. conjugal group D. kinship network 50. A group of people born at about the same time who experience similar influences are referred to as A. a cohort. B. a kinship network. C. an ethnic group. D. an extended family. 51. _____ is a form of learning in which, during a critical period in early development, a young animal forms an attachment to the first moving object it sees, usually the mother. A. Classical conditioning B. Imprinting C. Operant conditioning D. Scaffolding 52. A _____ is a specific time during development when a given event, or lack of an event, has the greatest impact. A. cohort B. nonnormative period C. critical period D. zone of proximal development 53. The concept of critical periods in humans is controversial because A. human development is primarily influenced by heredity. B. human development is primarily passive. C. human development is subject to both normative and nonnormative influences. D. many aspects of human development have been found to show plasticity. 54. Modifiability of performance is also referred to as _____. A. plasticity B. scaffolding C. equilibration D. imprinting 55. _____ refers to inborn traits or characteristics inherited from a child's biological parents. A. Heredity B. Seriation C. Maturation D. Ethnicity 56. Totality of nonhereditary, or experiential, influences on development is referred to as _____. A. the mesosystem B. the scaffold C. the environment D. the microsystem 57. The _____ perspective focuses on the lasting effects of childhood experiences and unconscious drives and motivations. A. psychoanalytic B. evolutionary C. learning D. cognitive 58. According to the psychoanalytical theory, the _____ operates under the pleasure principle. A. conscience B. id C. superego D. ego 59. Which of the following is true of the id? A. It is absent in newborns. B. It represents reason. C. It includes the conscience. D. It seeks immediate satisfaction of needs. 60. According to Freud, the _____ represents reason and operates under the reality principle. A. id B. ego C. superego D. conscience 61. The ____ includes the conscience and incorporates socially approved "shoulds" and "should nots" into the child's own value system. A. id B. ego C. superego D. libido 62. Which of the following is true of the stages of psychosexual development proposed by Freud? A. It covers eight stages across the life span. B. It states that sensual pleasure shifts from one body zone to another. C. It includes four stages namely, sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, and formal operations. D. It states that each stage involves a "crisis" in personality. 63. Which of the following is true of Erikson's theory of psychosocial development? A. It covers four stages across the life span. B. It states that the critical theme of infancy is initiative versus guilt. C. It ignores the influence of society on the developing personality. D. It states that each stage requires the balancing of a positive trait and a corresponding negative one. 64. Which of the following is a type of associative learning studied by the behaviorists? A. Assimilation B. Imprinting C. Operant conditioning D. Accommodation 65. _____ is a type of learning in which a response to a stimulus is elicited after repeated association with a stimulus that normally elicits the response. A. Classical conditioning B. Imprinting C. Social learning D. Intermittent reinforcement 66. Learning based on association of behavior with its consequences is called _____. A. classical conditioning B. operant conditioning C. modeling D. imprinting 67. A consequence of any behavior that increases the likelihood of that behavior being repeated is called _____. A. punishment B. reinforcement C. adaptation D. imprinting 68. _____ is the process by which a behavior is weakened, decreasing the likelihood of repetition. A. Reinforcement B. Adaptation C. Punishment D. Imprinting 69. Which of the following is a drawback of operant conditioning? A. It overemphasizes individual differences. B. It fails to describe learned associations. C. It excludes voluntary behavior. D. It fails to address cultural and social influences. 70. How did Bandura's theory differ from that of the behaviorists? A. He suggested that the impetus for development was bidirectional. B. He saw the environment as the chief impetus for development. C. He focused on associative learning. D. He focused on psychosexual development. 71. People learn appropriate social behavior by watching other people and learning both about what potential behaviors might be as well as the likely consequences of such behaviors. This process is referred to as _____. A. classical conditioning B. assimilation C. reciprocal determinism D. observational learning 72. According to Piaget, people create increasingly complex cognitive structures called _____, or ways of organizing information about the world. A. schemes B. scaffolds C. associations D. memes 73. Assimilation is Piaget's term for A. the act of observing and imitating models. B. incorporation of new information into an existing cognitive structure. C. changes in a cognitive structure to include new information. D. the tendency to seek a stable balance among cognitive elements. 74. Accommodation is Piaget's term for A. the act of observing and imitating models. B. incorporation of new information into an existing cognitive structure. C. changes in a cognitive structure to include new information. D. the tendency to seek a stable balance among cognitive elements. 75. According to Piaget, _____ motivates the shift from assimilation to accommodation. A. scaffolding B. equilibration C. organization D. reciprocal determinism 76. According to Lev Vygotsky's theory A. cognitive development occurs in four qualitative stages. B. adaptation occurs through assimilation and accommodation. C. cognitive growth is a collaborative process. D. cognitive development is independent of social and cultural processes. 77. The imaginary psychological space between what children can do on their own and what they could achieve with another person's assistance is referred to as _____. A. the zone of proximal development B. a scheme C. reciprocal determinism D. a normative influence 78. While teaching his son to learn cycling, Mark initially held his bike to help him to maintain his balance. Once his son was able to balance himself, Mark gradually let go of the support. This temporary support that Mark provides to his son is known as _____. A. equilibration B. scaffolding C. social learning D. assimilation 79. The American psychologist Urie Bronfenbrenner's bioecological theory A. identifies five levels of environmental influence, ranging from very intimate to very broad. B. states that parental guidance is most effective in helping children cross the zone of proximal development. C. proposed three hypothetical parts of the personality: the id, the ego, and the superego. D. states that the individual learns from the consequences of operating on the environment. 80. _____ is the study of animal species' distinctive adaptive behaviors. A. Ethology B. Bionics C. Biopsychology‎ D. Ecology 81. Which of the following is true about the evolutionary/sociobiological perspective? A. Unlike behavioral traits, psychological traits have failed to evolve over time. B. Evolved mechanisms are behaviors that developed to solve adaptive problems. C. Almost all evolved mechanisms die out once they no longer serve a useful purpose. D. Species have developed through the process of artificial selection. 82. _____ psychology applies Darwinian principles to human behavior. A. Cognitive B. Behavioral C. Evolutionary D. Cultural 83. Self-report measures are said to be reliable when A. the tests measure the abilities they claim to measure. B. the results are reasonably consistent from one time to another. C. the sample size is very large. D. the researcher who has developed the measure is highly qualified. 84. A team of psychologists collect data for a study by observing preschool teachers' classroom interactions through a one-way mirror. This is an example of which research method? A. Laboratory observation B. Case study C. Naturalistic observation D. Clinical study 85. An ethnographic study A. is the study of animal species' distinctive adaptive behaviors. B. is a case study of a culture. C. is a study of a single individual. D. is the study of the evolution of human behavior. 86. Jeremy is conducting a study on the stressors faced by firefighters. He collects data by joining a team of firefighters and observing them while they are at work. He is using a A. case study method. B. laboratory observation method. C. self-report method. D. participant observation method. 87. In a correlational study, A. cause-and-effect relationships can be proven. B. a single case or individual is studied in-depth. C. researchers observe people in their natural environment. D. the statistical relationship between two variables is discovered. 88. The only way to show with certainty that one variable causes another is through _____. A. a case study B. a survey C. a correlational study D. experimentation 89. In an experimental study, the subjects who receive the treatment are referred to as the _____. A. experimental group B. control group C. extraneous group D. independent group 90. In an experimental study, the subjects who do not receive the treatment are referred to as the _____. A. experimental group B. control group C. extraneous group D. independent group 91. Kathy is conducting an experiment to test the impact of mindfulness training on adolescents' memory. She divides her research participants into two groups. One group is provided with the mindfulness training while the other group does not receive this training. She measures their performance on memory and attention tests at the beginning and end of the training. In this experiment, the group that did not receive the mindfulness training is called the _____. A. experimental group B. control group C. independent variable D. dependent variable 92. Which of the following is true of natural experiments? A. It is the most effective method of establishing a cause and effect relationship. B. It is conducted in a laboratory. C. It allows random assignment to treatment groups. D. It is actually a correlational study. 93. A researcher studies identical twins separated at birth and reared in different environments to determine the influence of heredity on their personality traits. Which of the following research methods is he using? A. A laboratory experiment B. An ethnographic study C. A natural experiment D. A correlational study 94. A cross-sectional study A. assesses changes in a sample over time. B. assesses children of different ages on one occasion. C. aims to discover whether a statistical relationship between variables exists. D. studies human behavior in a natural setting without intervention or manipulation. 95. A university professor conducted a study on the impact of bullying on self-image in 5-year-old children. He assessed their self-image twice a year for the next 5 years. Which of the following developmental research designs did he use? A. Cross-sectional B. Longitudinal C. Cross-sequential D. Correlational 96. An experimenter measures the cognitive skills of 5 children in each of the following age groups: 2-5 years, 8-12 years, and 14-16 years. He measures their cognitive skills several times across a span of 10 years. This is an example of which research design? A. Cross-sectional B. Longitudinal C. Sequential D. Correlational Essay Questions 97. Write a note on heredity, environment, and maturation. Answer: Scientists have found ways to measure the contributions of heredity, or nature, and environment, or nurture, to the development of specific traits within a population. For example, even though heredity strongly affects intelligence, environmental factors such as parental stimulation, education, and peer influences also affect it. Contemporary theorists and researchers are increasingly interested in explaining how nature and nurture work together rather than in arguing about which factor is more important. Many typical changes of infancy and early childhood, such as the emergence of the abilities to walk and talk, are tied to maturation of the body and brain—the unfolding of a universal, natural sequence of physical changes and behavior patterns. These maturational processes, which are seen most clearly in the early years, act in concert with the influences of heredity and environment. As children grow into adolescents and adults, individual differences in innate personal characteristics (heredity) and life experience (environment) play an increasing role as they adapt to the internal and external conditions. 98. How does socioeconomic status and neighborhood impact children? Answer: A family's socioeconomic status (SES) is based on family income, and the educational and occupational levels of the adults in the household. SES affects developmental processes, such as mothers' verbal interactions with their children, and developmental outcomes, such as health and cognitive performance. SES affects these processes and outcomes indirectly through the kinds of homes and neighborhoods people live in and the quality of nutrition, medical care, and schooling available to them. Poverty is stressful and can damage children and families' physical, cognitive, and psychosocial well-being. Poor children are more likely than other children to go hungry; to have frequent illnesses; to lack access to health care; to experience accidents, violence, and family conflict; and to show emotional or behavioral problems. Their cognitive potential and school performance suffer as well. The harm poverty does is often indirect through its impact on parents' emotional state and parenting practices and on the home environment they create. Threats to well-being multiply if, as often happens, several risk factors, conditions that increase the likelihood of a negative outcome are present. The composition of a neighborhood affects the way children develop. Living in a neighborhood with large numbers of poor people has been shown to impact physical health, well-being, and school readiness. Positive development can occur despite serious risk factors. 99. Write a note on the emerging consensus on child development. Answer: There are many different viewpoints in the study of child development. However, as the field has matured, broad agreement has emerged on several fundamental points: 1. All domains of development are interrelated. Development in each of the different domains—physical, cognitive, and psychosocial—affects the others in a series of complex interactions. 2. Normal development includes a wide range of individual differences. Each child, from the start, is unlike anyone else in the world. Some of the influences on individual development are inborn; others come from experience. Most often, these influences work together. 3. Influences are bidirectional. Children affect the environment around them as much as the environment shapes them. 4. Historical and cultural contexts strongly influence development. Each child develops within a specific environment bounded by time and place. 5. Early experience is important, but children can be remarkably resilient. A traumatic incident or a severely deprived childhood may have grave emotional consequences, but the effects of painful experience, such as growing up in poverty or the death of a parent, often can be overcome. 6. Development in childhood affects development throughout the life span. As long as people live, they have the potential to change in both positive and negative directions. 100. Briefly describe the information-processing approach. Answer: The information-processing approach seeks to explain cognitive development by analyzing the processes involved in making sense of incoming information and performing tasks effectively. The information-processing approach is not a single theory but a framework that undergirds a wide range of theories and research. The most common model for this theory is that of a computer, which has certain inputs (such as sensory impressions) and certain outputs (such as behaviors). Information-processing theorists view development as continuous. They note age-related increases in the speed, complexity, and efficiency of mental processing and in the amount and variety of material that can be stored in memory. The information-processing approach has taught us a great deal about the mechanics of how the mind works. It has also demonstrated that we can access cognitive processes, even though they are internal. 101. Write a note on the right to informed consent, avoidance of deception, and right to privacy and confidentiality. Answer: Right to Informed Consent: Informed consent exists when participants voluntarily agree to be in a study, are competent to give consent, are aware of the risks as well as the potential benefits, and are not being exploited. The National Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects of Biomedical and Behavioral Research (1978) recommends that children age 7 or over be asked to give their consent to take part in research and that any children's objections should be overruled only if the research promises direct benefit to the child. Avoidance of Deception: Ethical guidelines call for withholding information only when it is essential to the study; and then investigators should avoid methods that could cause pain, anxiety, or harm. Participants should be debriefed afterward to let them know the true nature of the study and why deception was necessary and to make sure they have not suffered as a result. Right to Privacy and Confidentiality: Research participants need to know that their information will be kept private and their responses are confidential. However, there are cases in which researchers are obligated to breach confidentiality—such as when an investigator discovers signs of abuse. Thus, researchers need to inform participants of their legal responsibility to report abuse or neglect or any other illegal activity of which they become aware, and confidentiality must be guarded otherwise. Chapter 02 Conception, Heredity, and Environment True / False Questions 1. An ovum duplicates itself repeatedly by cell division to produce all the cells that make up a baby. FALSE 2. If fertilization does not occur, the ovum and any sperm cells in the woman's body die. TRUE 3. Women's fertility is less affected by age than men's, but it declines significantly by the late twenties. FALSE 4. Sexually transmitted diseases can lead to infertility indirectly through the development of scar tissue. TRUE 5. In the technique of intracytoplasmic sperm injection, a single sperm is injected into the ovum. TRUE 6. Genes are coils of DNA that consist of smaller segments called chromosomes. FALSE 7. The complete sequence of genes in the human body constitutes the human genome. TRUE 8. It is the mother who determines the sex of the child. FALSE 9. Females' development requires the activation of the SRY gene. FALSE 10. In normal development, male embryos start producing the hormone testosterone at about 6 to 8 weeks after conception. TRUE 11. Different versions of a particular gene are called mutations. FALSE 12. Defects transmitted by recessive inheritance tend to be more lethal at an earlier age, in contrast to those transmitted by dominant inheritance. TRUE 13. Incomplete dominance is a pattern of inheritance in which certain characteristics carried on the X chromosome inherited from the mother are transmitted differently to her male and female offspring. FALSE 14. Chromosomal abnormalities typically occur because of errors in cell division. TRUE 15. Children with Down syndrome are more likely to have a single transverse palmar crease. TRUE 16. Heritability refers to the relative influence of heredity and environment in a particular individual. FALSE 17. The tendency to seek out environments compatible with one's genotype is called niche-picking. TRUE 18. Obesity is measured by body mass index (BMI). TRUE 19. Autism is characterized by loss of contact with reality; hallucinations and delusions; loss of coherent, logical thought; and inappropriate emotionality. FALSE 20. Advanced paternal age is a risk factor for schizophrenia. TRUE Multiple Choice Questions 21. The union of sperm and ovum to produce a zygote is known as A. menstruation. B. ovulation. C. attachment. D. fertilization. 22. _____ is a one-celled organism resulting from fertilization. A. Zygote B. Ovum C. Blastula D. Spermatozoon 23. Which of the following statements is true about fertilization? A. Women are born with a large number of immature ova at birth. B. Fertilization typically occurs before the ovum reaches the fallopian tube. C. The fertilization process typically involves only one sperm being released into the vagina. D. Women begin to produce ova only upon attaining sexual maturity. 24. In a sexually mature woman, ovulation occurs about once every _____ days until menopause. A. 7 B. 10 C. 19 D. 28 25. Fertilization typically occurs while the ovum is passing through the A. testes. B. fallopian tube. C. follicle. D. cervix. 26. Sperm are produced by the _____ at a rate of several hundred million a day and are ejaculated in the semen at sexual climax. A. ovary B. cervix C. testes D. uterus 27. One of the most common causes of infertility in men is A. low sperm count. B. artificial insemination. C. high sperm motility. D. malnutrition. 28. Dan and Fiona decided to utilize technology to overcome their infertility problems. They chose a procedure in which a mature ovum was surgically removed, fertilized in a laboratory dish, and then implanted in the Fiona's uterus. This technique is called A. artificial insemination. B. in vitro fertilization. C. gamete intrafallopian transfer. D. surrogacy. 29. The simplest form of assisted reproductive technology (ART) is _____ in which sperm is injected into a woman's vagina, cervix, or uterus. A. ovum transfer B. gamete intrafallopian transfer C. artificial insemination D. in vitro fertilization 30. Fred and Wilma have discovered that their infertility is due to Fred's extremely low sperm count. In an attempt to conceive, Wilma's doctor injects a collection of her husband's sperm directly into her cervix. This procedure is called A. in vitro fertilization. B. gamete intrafallopian transfer. C. artificial insemination. D. ovum transfer. 31. Which of the following is true of the genetic code? A. DNA has a cylindrical structure. B. Chromosomes are found only in the gamete cells. C. The human genome represents the complete sequence of genes in the human body. D. A single gene can be located in numerous potential points on a chromosome. 32. The chemical component that plays a major role in heredity is A. threonine. B. adenosine monophosphate. C. arachidonic acid. D. deoxyribonucleic acid. 33. _____ are the functional units of heredity. A. Zygotes B. Genes C. Follicles D. Gametes 34. How many pairs of chromosomes does a normal human being have? A. 25 B. 23 C. 46 D. 48 35. Which of the following is true of meiosis? A. It results in two cells, each with 46 chromosomes. B. It reduces the number of chromosomes by half. C. It refers to the addition of an extra 21st chromosome. D. It represents the process by which the egg and sperm combine. 36. When sperm and ovum fuse at conception, they produce a zygote with _____ chromosomes. A. 28 B. 50 C. 23 D. 46 37. The process of cell division that produces copies of cells with 46 chromosomes each is called A. diffusion. B. meiosis. C. translocation. D. mitosis. 38. Male embryos begin to show signs of sexual differentiation only after the activation of the A. HOX genes. B. SRY gene. C. autosomes. D. Wnts. 39. The normal complement of sex chromosomes for a woman is _____, and for a man it is A. YO; XO. B. XY; YX. C. XX; XO. D. XX; XY. 40. Sex determination of an embryo depends heavily on the A. 22 pairs of sex chromosomes in humans. B. pair of sex chromosomes received from the mother. C. chromosomes present in the father's sperm cell. D. autosomes received by embryo from both parents. 41. _____ are chromosomes that do not impact sexual expression. A. Allosomes B. Ribosomes C. Lysosomes D. Autosomes 42. How many pairs of autosomes do humans normally have? A. 22 B. 46 C. 44 D. 1 43. During the 1860s, Gregor Mendel conducted experiments that laid the foundation for understanding A. patterns of inheritance. B. intelligence. C. the development of autosomes. D. prenatal development. 44. Mendel's most important finding was that A. genes occur singly, never in pairs. B. genes do not have fixed positions on chromosomes. C. individual traits blend into one another. D. hereditary traits are transmitted independently of each other. 45. Genes that produce alternative expressions of a trait are called A. gametes. B. alleles. C. autosomes. D. karyotypes. 46. Matu received identical alleles for dimples from each of his parents. We would say that Matu is _____ for that trait. A. homozygous B. multizygous C. heterozygous D. monozygous 47. Tongue rolling is a dominant trait. This implies that tongue rolling A. is determined by numerous genes. B. is manifested only when both alleles received from the parents are recessive. C. is transmitted through one dominant and one recessive allele inherited from parents. D. is manifested in the phenotypes of both parents as well as the offspring universally. 48. Jake has six fingers on his left hand. In which of the following cases would his offspring not have polydactyly? A. If the alleles inherited by the offspring from Jake and his partner are heterozygous B. If the alleles inherited by the offspring include one dominant allele and one recessive allele. C. If both the alleles inherited by the offspring are dominant alleles D. It both the alleles inherited by the offspring are recessive alleles 49. Permanent genetic alterations that may produce harmful characteristics are called A. genetic imprints. B. mutations. C. transductions. D. genome splits. 50. A spontaneous mutation called _____ results in dwarfism. A. toxoplasmosis B. achondroplasia. C. bordetella D. achlorhydria 51. Polygenic inheritance is A. a pattern of inheritance in which multiple genes at different sites on chromosomes affect a complex trait. B. a pattern of inheritance in which a child receives identical recessive alleles, resulting in expression of a nondominant trait. C. a pattern of inheritance in which a child receives two different alleles, resulting in partial expression of a trait. D. a pattern of inheritance in which, when a child receives different alleles only the dominant one is expressed. 52. An individual's _____ consists of his/her observable traits; an individual's _____ is his/her underlying genetic pattern. A. dominant inheritance; recessive inheritance B. dominant inheritance; homozygosis C. incomplete dominance; phenotype D. phenotype; genotype 53. Petra would like to replicate herself. However, she needs to realize that although cloning can produce identical _____, it cannot produce identical _____. A. phenotypes; autosomes B. phenotypes; genotypes C. genotypes; phenotypes D. autosomes; sex chromosomes 54. Louise's blue eyes and petite frame are the observable characteristics that comprise her A. alleles. B. genetic imprint. C. phenotype. D. genotype. 55. Brooklyn has curly hair but carries an allele for straight hair. The allele for straight hair is a component of her _____ in this scenario. A. genotypic pattern B. physical features C. observable characteristics D. phenotypic expression 56. When the police asks you to give a description of an assailant and you say that she is tall with black, curly hair, you are describing the assailant's A. alleles. B. genetic pattern. C. phenotype. D. genotype. 57. _____ is a mechanism that turns genes on or off and determines functions of body cells. A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Phagocytosis D. Epigenesis 58. Which of the following is not true about epigenesis? A. It is a mechanism that turns genes on or off. B. It works via chemical molecules attached to a gene that "read" the gene's DNA. C. Epigenetic changes may also contribute to such common ailments as cancer, diabetes, and heart disease. D. Epigenetic changes focus solely on the role of the genetic material one inherits. 59. Krystal was ill as a baby, and before she was a year old she was diagnosed with _____, a genetic defect that causes thick mucus to clog the breathing passages and the digestive system. A. cystic fibrosis B. Down syndrome C. neural tube defect D. Huntington's disease 60. Which birth defect afflicts African-Americans more than it does other ethnic groups? A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Sickle-cell anemia C. Cystic fibrosis D. Thalassemia 61. Recessive defects are expressed only if the child is _____ for that gene. A. homozygous B. unizygous C. monozygous D. heterozygous 62. Incomplete dominance is a pattern of inheritance in which A. multiple genes at different sites on chromosomes affect a complex trait. B. a child receives identical recessive alleles, resulting in expression of a nondominant trait. C. a child receives two different alleles, resulting in partial expression of a trait. D. a child receives different alleles, but only the dominant one is expressed. 63. Baby Shanna has been diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease. However, neither of her parents has shown symptoms of this disease. What can we conclude from this information? A. Shanna is heterozygous for the Tay-Sachs gene. B. Tay-Sachs disease is a function of a mutated gene. C. The Tay-Sachs carrier gene is a recessive gene. D. One of Shanna's parents is a carrier of Tay-Sachs, the other is not. 64. A pattern of inheritance in which certain characteristics carried on the X chromosome inherited from the mother are manifested differently in her male and female offsprings is called A. recessive inheritance. B. dominant inheritance. C. multifactorial inheritance. D. sex-linked inheritance. 65. Gerald suffers from hemophilia, which is a blood-clotting disorder. He understands that the gene responsible for this disorder is carried by females, but usually affects only males. This is an example of A. multifactorial inheritance. B. dominant inheritance. C. sex-linked inheritance. D. independent segregation. 66. Klinefelter syndrome and Turner syndrome are caused by abnormalities of the A. autosomes. B. sex chromosomes. C. teratogens. D. cilia. 67. A chromosomal disorder characterized by moderate-to-severe mental retardation and a downward-sloping skin fold at the inner corners of the eyes is called A. cystic fibrosis. B. Tay-Sachs disease. C. Down syndrome. D. sickle-cell anemia. 68. Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is true? A. The cognitive functioning of children with Down syndrome is normal. B. Children with Down syndrome can be helped with dietary changes. C. Down syndrome is a sex-linked chromosomal disorder. D. The risk of having a child with Down syndrome rises with the age of the mother. 69. Clinical service that advises prospective parents of their probable risk of having children with hereditary defects is known as A. genetic imprinting. B. teratogenesis. C. genetic coding. D. genetic counseling. 70. A statistical estimate of how much heredity influences individual differences in a specific trait at a certain time within a given population is referred to as A. gene mapping. B. heritability. C. Karyotyping. D. genetic coding. 71. Which of the following terms describes the tendency of twins to share the same trait or disorder? A. Disposition B. Temperament C. Concordance D. Canalization 72. In an attempt to study the degree to which genetics influences activity levels in newborns, a researcher compares monozygotic and dizygotic twins for their level of similarity on that trait. This research is attempting to determine the _____ of the trait activity levels. A. teratogenesis B. genotype C. karyotype D. heritability 73. Doug has been asked by his professor to participate in a family study. Who else will most likely be included in the study? A. Doug's brother or sister B. Doug's co-worker C. Doug's closest friends D. Doug's sister in-law 74. Although Roberto's adoptive parents are short in stature, he is growing to be tall like his biological mother. What might we conclude about Roberto's height? A. It is influenced primarily by environment. B. It is influenced primarily by heredity. C. Nutrition did not influence his height. D. It is primarily a result of independent segregation. 75. Which of the following most clearly demonstrates the influence of environment? A. Georgio, who was adopted at birth, resembles his biological father and brother closely. B. Sally, who was adopted at the age of 2 years, has quickly developed a good vocabulary because her adoptive mother actively engages her in conversations. C. Bill and Jim, identical twins who were separated at birth, have many similarities like obesity, blood pressure, and left-handedness. D. Ann and Jennie are fraternal twins who were reared apart and only Ann has high blood pressure. 76. Susan and Betty are monozygotic twins, whereas Ming and Li are dizygotic twins. If a particular trait is determined primarily by hereditary factors, what would be the relative degree of concordance in these two twin pairs? A. Ming and Li are more concordant than are Susan and Betty. B. Susan and Betty are more concordant than are Ming and Li. C. Given similar environments, the two sets of twins are equally concordant. D. It is not possible to determine concordance by studying twins. 77. Depending on environmental conditions, the potential variability in the expression of a hereditary trait is called A. canalization. B. concordance rate. C. reaction range. D. environmental interaction. 78. _____ refers to limitation on variance of expression of certain inherited characteristics. A. Canalization B. Multifactorial transmission C. Transduction D. Mutation 79. _____ refers to all the potential expressions of a hereditary trait. A. Canalization B. Reaction range C. Transduction D. Karyotype 80. A strongly canalized trait is one that A. is easily influenced by environmental conditions. B. is affected only by extreme change in environmental conditions. C. is manifested mostly in males. D. is characterized by a large reaction range. 81. Most children learn to walk at about the same time and in the same sequence. We would say that walking, as a trait, is A. unaffected by reaction range. B. purely phenotypical. C. monozygotic. D. canalized. 82. _____ usually refers to the effects of similar environmental conditions on genetically different individuals. A. Teratogenesis B. Genotype-environment interaction C. Epigenesis D. Phenotype-environment interaction 83. Children select experiences that are consistent with their genetic tendencies. This is due to which of the following types of genotype-environment correlations? A. Active correlation B. Passive correlation C. Evocative correlation D. Reactive correlation 84. The environment often reflects or reinforces genetic differences. In other words, certain genetic and environmental influences tend to reinforce each other. This tendency is called A. environment-phenotype covariance. B. genotype-environment correlation. C. nonshared environmental effect. D. shared environmental effect. 85. In university, Chandra tried a number of different majors until she found one that was right for her. She was originally interested in a career in research and was very successful academically. She realized that she missed social interaction, so she decided to try teaching high school biology. The first time she stood in front of the classroom, she knew that this was where she belonged. Which of the following terms best explains Chandra's development? A. Passive genotype-environment correlation B. Normative genotype-environment correlation C. Reactive genotype-environment correlation D. Active genotype-environment correlation 86. Which of the following types of genotype-environment correlations is only experienced by children raised with their biological parents? A. Active correlations B. Passive correlations C. Evocative correlations D. Reactive correlations 87. The idea that each child in a family grows up in a unique environment is referred to as A. nonshared environmental effect. B. familial environmental effect. C. niche-picking effect. D. parent-child effect. 88. Although brothers Jono and Roman bear a striking physical resemblance to each other, they differ greatly in intellect and personality. One reason for this difference may be A. the normative events they both experienced. B. the familial environment effects they both experienced. C. the nonshared environmental effects they both experienced. D. the effects of canalization they both experienced. 89. Which of the following statements regarding obesity is true? A. Studies indicate that 40-70% of the risk of obesity is genetic. B. Studies are yet to ascertain if there are specific genes that code for chances of obesity. C. Obesity is on the rise in Western countries solely due to a genetic vulnerability to obesity. D. The risk of obesity is free of any environmental risk factors. 90. Intelligence is a trait that is A. influenced by the effects of large numbers of genes working together. B. determined by a relatively small number of recessive genes. C. determined from the karyotype of the father. D. characterized by a lack of plasticity toward extreme environmental features. 91. Sophia was adopted when she was one year of age. If she takes an IQ test at age 16, her intelligence level is likely to be most similar to that of her A. adoptive parents. B. friends and peers. C. biological parents. D. adoptive siblings. 92. Which of the following is true of temperament? A. It is closely related to the age of a person's parents when that person was conceived. B. It lacks a genetic basis. C. It appears to be largely inborn. D. It is inconsistent over the years. 93. A psychological disorder that is marked by a loss of contact with reality, includes such symptoms as hallucinations and delusions, and seems to have a strong genetic component is A. dyslexia. B. depression. C. schizophrenia. D. Down syndrome. 94. Many studies suggest that schizophrenia A. is characterized by a strong hereditary influence. B. is seldom seen in family clusters. C. is solely a result of environmental stress. D. is caused by a single gene. 95. Concordance rates for schizophrenia are highest A. for infants born in early summer. B. between grandparents and grandchildren. C. between monozygotic twin pairs. D. between dizygotic twin pairs. Essay Questions 96. Describe how and when human conception normally occurs. Answer: Fertilization, or conception, is the process by which sperm and ovum—the male and female gametes, or sex cells—combine to create a single cell called a zygote, which then duplicates itself repeatedly by cell division to produce all the cells that make up a baby. In a sexually mature woman, ovulation occurs about once every 28 days until menopause. After being expelled from the ovary, the ovum is swept along through one of the fallopian tubes by tiny hair cells, called cilia, toward the uterus, or womb. Sperm are produced in the testicles (testes), or reproductive glands, of a mature male at a rate of several hundred million a day and are ejaculated in the semen at sexual climax. Deposited in the vagina, they try to swim through the cervix (the opening of the uterus) and into the fallopian tubes, but only a tiny fraction make it that far. The nature of the sperm and the ovum that finally fuse together has dramatic implications for the offspring. Fertilization typically occurs while the ovum is passing through the fallopian tube. If fertilization does not occur, the ovum and any sperm cells in the woman's body die. The sperm are absorbed by the woman's white blood cells, and the ovum passes through the uterus and exits through the vagina. 97. The study of inherited factors that affect development is referred to as heredity. Define the function of each of the following terms, and explain their relationship to the mechanisms of heredity: DNA, chromosomes, and genes. Answer: An integral component of heredity is a chemical called deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). The double-helix structure of DNA resembles a long, spiraling ladder whose steps are made of pairs of chemical units called bases. Chromosomes are coils of DNA that consist of smaller segments called genes and are found in every cell in the human body. Each gene has a specific location on its chromosome and contains thousands of bases. The sequence of bases in a gene tells the cell how to make the proteins that enable it to carry out its specific functions. The complete sequence of genes in the human body constitutes the human genome. 98. What is Down syndrome? Explain how often it occurs. What challenges does a person with Down syndrome face? Answer: The most common genetic disorder in children is Down syndrome. It is a chromosomal disorder characterized by moderate-to-severe mental retardation and by such physical signs as a downward-sloping skin fold at the inner corners of the eyes. It is responsible for about 40 percent of cases of moderate-to-severe mental retardation as defined by performance on an intelligence test. The condition is also called trisomy-21 because it is characterized in more than 90 percent of cases by an extra 21st chromosome. Some of the commonly seen physical characteristics in individuals with Down syndrome are a downward-sloping skin fold at the inner corners of the eyes, receding chin, and protruding tongue. Children with Down syndrome also tend to have slowed growth; poor muscle tone; congenital heart defects; thick hands; ear infections and early hearing loss; and impaired communication, language, memory, and motor skills. 99. Describe how researchers use family studies, adoption studies, and twin studies to investigate the heritability of traits. Answer: Heritability is the statistical estimate of contribution of heredity to individual differences in a specific trait within a given population at a particular time. Concordance rates are measures of heritability that describe the tendency of twins to share the same trait or disorder. In family studies, researchers measure the degree to which biological relatives share certain traits and determine whether or not the closeness of the familial relationship is associated with the degree of similarity. In other words, the more closely two people are related, the more likely they will be similar on a trait if that trait is indeed genetically influenced. Therefore, researchers use concordance rates on traits to infer genetic influences. Adoption studies look at similarities between adopted children and their adoptive families and also between adopted children and their biological families. When adopted children are more like their biological parents and siblings in a particular trait (say, obesity), we see the influence of heredity. When they resemble their adoptive families more, we see the influence of environment. Twin studies compare pairs of monozygotic twins with same-sex dizygotic twins. Monozygotic twins are twice as genetically similar, on average, as dizygotic twins. When monozygotic twins are more alike, or more concordant, on a trait than dizygotic twins, we see the likely effects of heredity. As an extension of this, twins raised in either their biological family or an adoptive family can be studied. 100. Describe the role of heredity and environment in obesity, schizophrenia, and intelligence. Answer: The risk of obesity is 2 to 3 times higher for a child with a family history of obesity. However, this increased risk is not solely genetic. The kind and amount of food eaten in a particular home or in a particular social or ethnic group and the amount of exercise that is encouraged can increase or decrease the likelihood that a child will become overweight. The rise in the prevalence of obesity in Western countries seems to stem from the interaction of a genetic predisposition with overeating, supersized portions, and inadequate exercise. Heredity exerts a strong influence on general intelligence, as measured by intelligence tests, and a moderate effect on specific abilities such as memory, verbal ability, and spatial ability. While specific genes might contribute to intelligence, intelligence is influenced by the effects of large numbers of genes working together. Indirect evidence of the role of heredity in intelligence comes from adoption and twin studies. Adopted children's scores on standardized intelligence tests are consistently closer to the scores of their biological mothers than to those of their adoptive parents and siblings. Schizophrenia is a neurological disorder that affects about 1 percent of the U.S. population each year. It is characterized by loss of contact with reality; hallucinations and delusions; loss of coherent, logical thought; and inappropriate emotionality. Estimates of heritability for this disorder are as high as 80 to 85 percent. However, monozygotic twins are not always concordant for schizophrenia, perhaps due to epigenesis. Researchers also have looked at possible nongenetic influences, such as minor brain damage in fetal life, exposure to influenza or the mother's loss of a close relative in the first trimester of pregnancy, or maternal rubella or respiratory infections in the second and third trimesters. Infants born in urban areas or in late winter or early spring appear to be at increased risk, as are those whose mothers experienced obstetric complications or who were poor or severely deprived as a result of war or famine. Advanced paternal age is also a risk factor for schizophrenia. Test Bank for Child M-Series: From Birth to Adolescence Gabriela Martorell 9780078035517