CH-7-8 Protein – Wardlaw’s Perspectives in Nutrition : Exam Guide

This Document Contains Chapters 7 to 8 Chapter 07 Proteins Multiple Choice Questions 1. The basic building blocks of protein are ________. A. amino acids B. polypeptides C. enzymes D. hormones 2. The presence of ___________ chemically distinguishes protein from carbohydrate and fat. A. carbon B. choline C. nitrogen D. hydrogen 3. Dietary proteins supply ______ kcal per gram. A. 4 B. 7 C. 9 D. 15 4. Which bodily function is not associated with protein? A. blood clotting B. fluid balance C. cell growth and repair D. sparing glucose for energy use 5. Over time, if protein intake does not meet the body's protein needs for building and repair of tissues, ________. A. skeletal muscle, heart muscle, and the liver decrease in size B. excessive body fluid begins to accumulate in the extracellular spaces C. the immune system fails to function properly D. All of these choices are accurate. 6. Which of the following foods provides all of the essential amino acids? A. wheat B. peanut butter C. navy beans D. milk 7. The side chain, or R portion, of an amino acid ________. A. can be synthesized if there is a source of nitrogen B. can be synthesized if caloric intake is adequate C. cannot be synthesized in sufficient quantities to meet body needs D. determines the name of the amino acid 8. Which of the following amino acids is classified as a "conditionally essential" amino acid? A. methionine B. phenylalanine C. tyrosine D. lysine 9. Foods containing all essential amino acids in the proportion needed by the body are designated as ________. A. incomplete foods B. high-quantity foods C. dispensable foods D. complete foods 10. Good sources of high-quality (complete) protein include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A. soybeans B. eggs C. whole wheat D. fish 11. When over 10 amino acids are chemically linked by peptide bonds, the resulting product is known as ________. A. a dipeptide B. a tripeptide C. an oligopeptide D. a polypeptide 12. Cooking an egg destroys its physiological property by ________. A. denaturation B. emulsification C. esterification D. detoxification 13. When 2 or more plant proteins are combined to compensate for deficiencies in essential amino acid content in each protein, the proteins are called ________. A. nonessential proteins B. complementary proteins C. conditional proteins D. corrected proteins 14. DNA-coded instructions for protein synthesis consist of a sequence of ___ nucleotides per unit. A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 10 15. The nucleotide units that represent a specific amino acid in protein synthesis are called ________. A. blocks B. bonds C. peptides D. codons 16. The genetic disorder sickle-cell anemia produces a profound change in ___________ structure. A. hemoglobin B. albumin C. phenylalanine D. lysine 17. The sequential order of the amino acids in the polypeptide chain is called the ________. A. primary structure B. secondary structure C. tertiary structure D. quaternary structure 18. Worldwide, approximately _______ of protein comes from animal sources. A. 10% B. 35% C. 50% D. 75% 19. Protein quality is determined by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A. the food's digestibility B. the food's cost C. the food's amino acid composition D. the food's ability to support body growth 20. Which of the following conditions would result in negative nitrogen balance? A. recovery from injury B. weight training C. pregnancy D. kwashiorkor 21. Nitrogen makes up approximately _____ of the weight of an amino acid. A. 8% B. 16% C. 24% D. 32% 22. The RDA for protein for most healthy adults is ________. A. 0.5 g/kg of body weight B. 0.8 g/kg of body weight C. 1.2 g/kg of body weight D. 2.0 g/kg of body weight 23. When food proteins reach the stomach, HCl ________ the protein. A. esterifies B. emulsifies C. transaminates D. denatures 24. Which of the following enzymes aids in digesting polypeptides into shorter peptides and amino acids? A. lipase B. trypsin C. HCL D. lactase 25. The functions of protein include ________. A. providing structural support to body cells B. producing antibodies to fight infection C. contributing to acid-base balance D. All of these are functions of protein. 26. Edema in the lower extremities may appear when there is a severe lack of dietary protein because ________. A. sodium is retained in the body B. blood protein levels drop and fluid shifts into interstitial spaces C. blood protein levels increase and force fluid into the cells D. the kidneys cannot efficiently excrete excess fluid 27. Amino acids are required for the synthesis of ________. A. enzymes B. neurotransmitters C. some hormones D. All of the choices are accurate. 28. A diet that is deficient in carbohydrate will ultimately force the liver and, to a lesser extent, the kidneys to ________. A. produce glucose from amino acids B. use fat stores to synthesize glucose C. convert glucose to glycogen in the liver D. All of the above will occur. 29. Proteins help regulate blood pH by ________. A. accepting and releasing hydrogen ions B. keeping the blood more acidic C. releasing ketone-forming amino acids into the blood D. pumping potassium out of the cells 30. _________ are compounds that help to maintain acid-base balance within a narrow range. A. Antibodies B. Buffers C. Sterols D. Enzymes 31. The proteins that inactivate foreign bacteria and viruses to help prevent infections are called ________. A. enzymes B. hormones C. collagen D. antibodies 32. The lack of an immune response to foreign compounds entering the body is called ________. A. allergy B. anergy C. anorexia D. allopathy 33. A high-quality protein used as a standard for measuring the quality of other proteins is ________. A. milk B. beef C. egg white D. soybean 34. The biological value of a food protein is a measure of ________. A. how much of the food one eats B. the total amount of nitrogen in the blood C. how closely it meets amino acid needs D. the weight gained by a growing rat after eating the food protein for 10 days 35. A growing child who is consuming adequate protein but only 50% of his or her energy needs will likely be in ________. A. nitrogen equilibrium B. positive nitrogen balance C. negative nitrogen balance 36. What would be the recommended amount of protein for a 121-pound female? A. 21 g/day B. 36 g/day C. 44 g/day D. 55 g/day 121 lbs / 2.2 lbs/kg = 55 kg 55 kg × 0.8 g/kg/day = 44 g/day 37. Judy's dietary intake provides 90 grams of protein. Her total energy intake is 2000 kcal. Approximately what percentage of her energy comes from protein? A. 8% B. 11% C. 18% D. 28% 90 g protein × 4 kcal/g = 360 kcal from protein 360 kcal from protein / 2000 total kcal = 0.18 = 18% of kcal from protein 38. Most Americans consume ________ dietary protein compared to the RDA. A. the correct amount of B. excessive amounts of C. inadequate amounts of D. poor quality 39. A high-protein diet is discouraged for patients with ________. A. infection B. marasmus C. kidney disease D. kwashiorkor 40. A vegan diet may be low in ________. A. vitamin B-12 B. iron C. calcium D. All of these choices are correct. 41. When plant proteins are compared to animal proteins, they ________. A. usually have equal quantities of essential amino acids B. are usually superior in their array of essential amino acids C. are usually deficient in one or more essential amino acids D. are equal in quality so long as they are not overcooked 42. The recommended amount of protein as a percentage of total energy intake is ________. A. 15% to 20% B. 20% to 30% C. 10% to 35% D. 40% to 50% 43. The major symptoms of kwashiorkor in children are ________. A. edema and growth failure B. nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea C. increased appetite and hyperactivity D. overweight and an excess accumulation of fat 44. Kwashiorkor ________. A. is a disease of severely deficient protein intake B. is a childhood allergy to human breast milk C. is caused by excessive consumption of cow's milk D. develops in infants who consume contaminated, high protein infant formulas 45. Signs of protein deficiency may include ________. A. edema B. mild to moderate weight loss C. poor resistance to infection D. All of these choices are accurate. 46. After major surgery, hospital patients may be at risk of PEM due to ________. A. poor prior health B. low dietary intakes C. increased needs for recovery D. All of these choices are correct. 47. An example of two incomplete protein foods eaten together to produce a complete protein meal is ________. A. bread and butter B. red beans and rice C. cereal and milk D. hamburger with a bun 48. A vegan will eat ________. A. only fruits, nuts, honey, and vegetable oils B. dairy products, eggs, and fish C. dairy products and plant foods D. only foods from plant sources 49. A process involved in the synthesis of nonessential amino acids is called ________. A. ketogenesis B. gluconeogenesis C. transamination D. supplementation 50. Which of the following is not a means of determining the protein quality of a food? A. biological value B. chemical score C. protein efficiency ratio D. complementary score 51. Marasmus is characterized by ________. A. edema B. extreme weight loss and fat loss C. excess energy intakes D. allergy to cow's milk 52. An antibody is ________. A. a protein that breaks down polypeptides for digestion B. a substance that adjusts hydrogen ion concentration C. a substance that inactivates foreign proteins in the body D. the lack of an immune response to foreign substances entering the body 53. Anergy is ________. A. the space between body cells B. a substance that adjusts hydrogen ion concentration C. a substance that inactivates foreign proteins in the body D. the lack of an immune response to foreign substances entering the body 54. Excess protein intake can result in ________. A. diabetes B. iron deficiency C. loss of calcium D. excess fiber intake True / False Questions 55. The body needs 18 different amino acids to function properly. FALSE 56. The 9 amino acids that the body cannot make are known as nonessential amino acids. FALSE 57. An individual with the genetic disease PKU has a limited ability to metabolize the essential amino acid phenylalanine. TRUE 58. Nonessential amino acids can be synthesized through a process called transamination. TRUE 59. Each strand of DNA is composed of the nucleotides adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine. TRUE 60. Vegans need to plan their diets carefully to include adequate complementary proteins that provide the needed essential amino acids. TRUE 61. Individuals who are attempting to build up their muscles need 3 times as much protein as those who are not building muscles. FALSE 62. Legumes are an excellent source of vegetable protein. TRUE 63.The Protein Digestibility Corrected Amino Acid Score (PDCAAS) is the score derived by multiplying a food's chemical score by its digestibility. TRUE 64. For the average North American, protein needs can be easily met through our typical diets without the need for supplementation. TRUE 65. During times of recovery from illness or injury, protein needs may range from 0.8 to 2.0 g/kg body weight. TRUE 66. Proteins in cow's milk and egg white should not be given to infants prior to 12 months of age as they may predispose the infant to allergies. TRUE 67. High-protein diets are often associated with increased intake of saturated fat and cholesterol in the diet. TRUE 68. Marasmus in infants commonly occurs in poverty-stricken countries. TRUE 69. An excess intake of protein, especially from protein supplements, can increase the risk of amino acid toxicity. TRUE 70. Peanuts, cow's milk, and shellfish are among foods considered to be highly allergenic. TRUE 71. Once a food allergy has developed, it persists throughout life. FALSE 72. Vegetarian diets are often low in dietary fiber. FALSE 73. Lacto-ovo-vegetarians exclude meat, poultry, fish, and eggs from their diet. FALSE 74. Protein digestion begins in the stomach, where proteins are broken down into shorter polypeptide chains of amino acids. TRUE 75. Protein intakes above 35% of energy intake are associated with dehydration, amino acid imbalance, and increased risk of certain cancers. TRUE 76. Vegetarian diets are most often low in calcium, vitamin D, vitamin B-12, iron, and zinc. TRUE 77. Most animal proteins have a high biological value as their tissue amino acid composition is similar to that of human tissues. TRUE Essay Questions 78. Explain the difference between essential and nonessential amino acids. Answer: Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, and they play a crucial role in various bodily functions. They are categorized into two groups: essential and nonessential amino acids. Essential Amino Acids: Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized by the human body in sufficient quantities and must be obtained through diet. There are nine essential amino acids: 1. Histidine 2. Isoleucine 3. Leucine 4. Lysine 5. Methionine 6. Phenylalanine 7. Threonine 8. Tryptophan 9. Valine These amino acids are vital for various physiological processes, including protein synthesis, tissue repair, and nutrient absorption. Nonessential Amino Acids: Nonessential amino acids can be synthesized by the body from other compounds and do not need to be obtained directly through diet. There are eleven nonessential amino acids: 1. Alanine 2. Arginine 3. Asparagine 4. Aspartic acid 5. Cysteine 6. Glutamic acid 7. Glutamine 8. Glycine 9. Proline 10. Serine 11. Tyrosine Although these amino acids are termed "nonessential," they are still crucial for maintaining proper body function. The designation simply means the body can produce them endogenously. 79. Why do individuals with PKU need the nonessential amino acid tyrosine in their diets? Answer: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder in which the body is unable to metabolize phenylalanine, an essential amino acid, due to a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. This enzyme normally converts phenylalanine into tyrosine, a nonessential amino acid. Because individuals with PKU cannot effectively perform this conversion, phenylalanine accumulates to toxic levels, leading to neurological damage and other health issues. Since tyrosine is normally synthesized from phenylalanine, individuals with PKU need to obtain tyrosine directly from their diet. Without sufficient tyrosine, they would lack this amino acid, which is critical for protein synthesis, neurotransmitter production (including dopamine and norepinephrine), and overall metabolic processes. Therefore, even though tyrosine is classified as a nonessential amino acid, it becomes conditionally essential for people with PKU. 80. Suggest 3 meals that make use of the concept of complementary proteins. Answer: Complementary proteins refer to the combination of two or more plant-based foods that, when eaten together, provide all the essential amino acids in sufficient quantities. This concept is particularly important for individuals following vegetarian or vegan diets to ensure they receive complete protein nutrition. Here are three meals that utilize the concept of complementary proteins: 1. Rice and Beans: This classic combination is a staple in many cultures. Rice is low in lysine but high in methionine, while beans are high in lysine but low in methionine. When eaten together, they provide a complete protein profile. Meal Suggestion: A bowl of seasoned black beans served over brown rice, garnished with fresh salsa, avocado slices, and a sprinkle of cilantro. 2. Hummus and Whole Wheat Pita: Chickpeas (the main ingredient in hummus) and whole wheat pita combine to form a complete protein. Chickpeas are rich in lysine but low in methionine, whereas whole wheat provides sufficient methionine. Meal Suggestion: A plate of hummus served with warm whole wheat pita bread, accompanied by a side of mixed greens salad with cherry tomatoes, cucumbers, and a lemon-tahini dressing. 3. Peanut Butter on Whole Grain Bread: Peanut butter and whole grain bread together make a complete protein. Peanuts are high in lysine, and whole grains provide methionine. Meal Suggestion: A sandwich made with natural peanut butter spread on whole grain bread, paired with a side of sliced apple and a handful of baby carrots. These meals illustrate how different plant-based foods can be combined to ensure that all essential amino acids are consumed, promoting balanced and nutritious diets. 81. What is a limiting amino acid? Answer: A limiting amino acid is the essential amino acid found in the smallest quantity relative to the body's needs in a given food or diet. When a protein source is deficient in one or more essential amino acids, the synthesis of new proteins in the body is limited because proteins cannot be synthesized beyond the level of the least abundant essential amino acid. For example, if a food lacks lysine, then lysine is the limiting amino acid in that food. This concept is particularly important when considering plant-based diets, as many plant proteins may not contain all essential amino acids in adequate proportions. 82. Define the four levels of protein organization. Answer: Proteins have four levels of structural organization: 1. Primary Structure: The primary structure is the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain, linked together by peptide bonds. This linear sequence determines the protein's unique characteristics and ultimately its function. 2. Secondary Structure: The secondary structure refers to the local folding of the polypeptide chain into structures such as alpha-helices and beta-pleated sheets. These structures are stabilized by hydrogen bonds between the backbone atoms of the amino acids. 3. Tertiary Structure: The tertiary structure is the overall three-dimensional shape of a single polypeptide chain. It is formed by the interactions between the side chains (R groups) of the amino acids, including hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, hydrophobic interactions, and ionic bonds. This level of structure determines the protein's specific function. 4. Quaternary Structure: The quaternary structure exists in proteins with multiple polypeptide chains (subunits). It refers to the arrangement and interaction of these subunits to form a functional protein complex. Hemoglobin is an example of a protein with quaternary structure, consisting of four subunits. 83. Explain why denaturation of a protein destroys its biological function. Answer: Denaturation is the process by which a protein loses its native structure due to the disruption of non-covalent interactions and disulfide bonds. This can occur through the application of heat, changes in pH, or exposure to chemicals. Denaturation unfolds the protein, altering its three-dimensional shape. Since the specific shape of a protein is crucial for its function (e.g., enzyme activity, binding to receptors), denaturation renders the protein nonfunctional. The protein can no longer interact appropriately with other molecules or perform its biological role, leading to a loss of its biological activity. 84. Define and explain the importance of "protein turnover." Answer: Protein turnover refers to the continuous process of protein synthesis and degradation in the body. This dynamic process allows the body to replace damaged, misfolded, or unneeded proteins with new, functional ones. Protein turnover is essential for maintaining cellular function and homeostasis. It supports growth, tissue repair, immune function, and the regulation of metabolic processes. Additionally, it allows the body to adapt to changing physiological conditions, such as stress or nutrient availability, ensuring that protein needs are met and that cellular processes operate efficiently. 85. List 3 ways of evaluating food protein quality. Answer: Evaluating the quality of food protein involves assessing its ability to meet the body's amino acid needs. Here are three common methods: 1. Biological Value (BV): Biological value measures the proportion of absorbed protein from a food that is incorporated into the proteins of the organism's body. A higher BV indicates that the protein source provides a good balance of essential amino acids that are efficiently utilized by the body. Eggs, for example, have a high BV. 2. Protein Digestibility Corrected Amino Acid Score (PDCAAS): PDCAAS evaluates the quality of a protein based on both its amino acid composition and its digestibility. It is calculated by comparing the amino acid profile of the food protein to a reference protein (usually egg or milk protein) and adjusting for digestibility. A PDCAAS score of 1.0 indicates that the protein provides all essential amino acids in the correct proportions and is highly digestible. 3. Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER): PER measures the weight gain of an organism (usually a growing rat) per unit of protein consumed over a specific period. This method assesses the protein's ability to support growth and development. Foods that support more weight gain per unit of protein are considered higher quality proteins. 86. Calculate the protein needs of a healthy, 140-lb woman. Answer: To calculate the protein needs of a healthy individual, we typically use the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein. The RDA for protein for an average adult is 0.8 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight per day. First, we need to convert the woman's weight from pounds to kilograms. The conversion factor is 1 kilogram = 2.2 pounds. Step 1: Convert weight from pounds to kilograms Therefore, a healthy 140-lb woman needs approximately 50.91 grams of protein per day to meet her dietary requirements. This calculation ensures that her body receives adequate protein for maintaining muscle mass, supporting metabolic functions, and promoting overall health. 87. If Krista consumes 65 grams of protein as part of a 1900-kcal diet, what percent of her total calories are from protein? Answer: To determine the percentage of total calories from protein in Krista's diet, we need to follow these steps: Step 1: Calculate the total calories from protein. Each gram of protein provides 4 calories. Therefore, approximately 13.68% of Krista's total calories are from protein. 88. List 2 circumstances in which an individual might be in positive nitrogen balance. Answer: Positive nitrogen balance occurs when the intake of nitrogen (from protein) exceeds the amount excreted, indicating that the body is in a state of growth or tissue repair. Two circumstances where this might occur are: 1. Growth and Development: Children and adolescents in growth spurts require more protein to support their rapidly increasing body mass and are often in positive nitrogen balance. 2. Pregnancy: Pregnant women need additional protein to support the growth and development of the fetus, as well as the increased maternal tissues, leading to a positive nitrogen balance. 89. List 2 circumstances in which an individual might be in negative nitrogen balance. Answer: Negative nitrogen balance occurs when nitrogen loss exceeds nitrogen intake, indicating that the body is breaking down more protein than it is synthesizing. Two circumstances where this might occur are: 1. Illness or Trauma: During severe illness, injury, or after surgery, the body breaks down protein to repair tissues and produce immune response molecules, which can lead to negative nitrogen balance. 2. Malnutrition or Starvation: Individuals who are not consuming adequate protein or total calories, such as those suffering from malnutrition or following very restrictive diets, may experience negative nitrogen balance as the body breaks down muscle and other protein-rich tissues to meet its metabolic needs. 90. Explain 3 functions of protein in the body. Answer: 1. Growth and Maintenance: • Proteins are essential for the growth and repair of tissues. They provide the necessary building blocks (amino acids) for cell growth, repair, and maintenance. This function is crucial for muscle development, skin health, and overall body structure. 2. Enzyme and Hormone Production: • Proteins act as enzymes and hormones, which are vital for numerous biochemical reactions and regulatory processes. Enzymes speed up chemical reactions in the body, aiding in digestion, energy production, blood clotting, and muscle contraction. Hormones, such as insulin and growth hormone, regulate various physiological functions, including metabolism, growth, and mood. 3. Immune Function: • Proteins are key components of the immune system. Antibodies, which are proteins, help identify and neutralize foreign invaders like bacteria and viruses. This function is critical for protecting the body against infections and diseases, ensuring a strong and responsive immune defense. 91. Compare and contrast kwashiorkor and marasmus. Answer: Kwashiorkor: • Cause: Kwashiorkor is primarily caused by a severe deficiency in protein intake despite sufficient calorie consumption. • Symptoms: It is characterized by edema (swelling, particularly in the abdomen and legs), an enlarged liver, skin lesions, thinning hair, and a failure to grow or gain weight. • Appearance: Children with kwashiorkor often have a swollen belly, a condition known as "pot belly," and may appear relatively well-nourished because of the swelling, but they are actually suffering from severe protein malnutrition. Marasmus: • Cause: Marasmus results from a severe deficiency in both calorie and protein intake. • Symptoms: Symptoms include extreme wasting of body fat and muscle, resulting in a very thin, emaciated appearance, weakness, stunted growth, and a lack of energy. • Appearance: Children with marasmus appear very thin and frail, with visible bones and little to no fat. They often have a "skin and bones" look due to the extensive loss of muscle and fat tissue. Comparison: • Similarities: Both kwashiorkor and marasmus are forms of severe malnutrition commonly seen in children in developing countries. They both result from inadequate nutrition and lead to serious health problems and increased risk of infections. • Differences: The key difference lies in their causes and symptoms. Kwashiorkor is mainly due to protein deficiency and is marked by edema and a swollen belly, whereas marasmus is due to a deficiency in both calories and protein, leading to severe wasting without the swelling associated with kwashiorkor. 92. List 3 nutrients that are likely to be low in a vegan diet. Answer: A vegan diet, which excludes all animal products, can provide numerous health benefits but may also lack certain nutrients typically found in animal-derived foods. Three nutrients that are likely to be low in a vegan diet include: 1. Vitamin B12: • Vitamin B12 is essential for red blood cell formation, neurological function, and DNA synthesis. It is predominantly found in animal products such as meat, dairy, and eggs. Vegans need to obtain B12 from fortified foods like plant-based milk and cereals or take supplements to prevent deficiency. 2. Iron: • Iron is crucial for the production of hemoglobin, which carries oxygen in the blood. While plant-based sources like lentils, beans, and spinach contain iron, it is in the non-heme form, which is less readily absorbed by the body compared to the heme iron found in animal products. Vegans may need to consume iron-rich foods with vitamin C to enhance absorption or consider iron supplements if needed. 3. Omega-3 Fatty Acids: • Omega-3 fatty acids, particularly EPA and DHA, are vital for heart health, brain function, and inflammation control. They are primarily found in fatty fish and fish oil. Vegans can obtain omega-3s from flaxseeds, chia seeds, walnuts, and algae-based supplements, but may still need to be mindful of their intake to ensure they meet their nutritional needs. 93. List 3 foods that are often allergenic. Answer: Food allergies are common and can cause adverse reactions in susceptible individuals. Three foods that are often allergenic include: 1. Peanuts: • Peanuts are a common allergen that can cause severe reactions, including anaphylaxis, in allergic individuals. Peanut allergies are particularly prevalent among children but can persist into adulthood. Even trace amounts can trigger a reaction in some people. 2. Shellfish: • Shellfish, including shrimp, crab, and lobster, are frequent culprits of allergic reactions. Shellfish allergies can develop at any age and often result in symptoms ranging from mild hives to severe anaphylaxis. People with shellfish allergies must avoid both crustaceans and mollusks to prevent reactions. 3. Milk: • Cow's milk is a common allergen, especially in young children. Milk allergy is an immune response to one or more proteins in milk, such as casein or whey. Symptoms can include hives, gastrointestinal distress, and respiratory issues. While some children outgrow milk allergies, it can persist into adulthood for others. These allergens are responsible for a significant portion of food allergies and require careful management and avoidance to prevent adverse reactions. 94. What suggestions would you give to a mother who would like her 5-year-old child to follow a vegetarian diet? Answer: Transitioning a 5-year-old child to a vegetarian diet can be healthy and rewarding, but it requires careful planning to ensure all nutritional needs are met. Here are some suggestions for a mother who wants her child to follow a vegetarian diet: 1. Ensure a Balanced Diet: • Variety: Include a wide range of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, legumes, nuts, and seeds to ensure a diverse intake of essential nutrients. • Protein Sources: Incorporate plant-based protein sources like beans, lentils, tofu, tempeh, and quinoa. Eggs and dairy products, if included in the diet, can also be excellent protein sources. • Iron and Vitamin C: Combine iron-rich foods (like spinach, lentils, and fortified cereals) with vitamin C-rich foods (such as citrus fruits, tomatoes, and bell peppers) to enhance iron absorption. 2. Monitor Key Nutrients: • Vitamin B12: Since B12 is primarily found in animal products, consider fortified foods like plant-based milk and cereals, or discuss supplements with a pediatrician. • Calcium: Ensure adequate intake of calcium through fortified plant milks, leafy greens, tofu, and almonds. • Omega-3 Fatty Acids: Include sources like flaxseeds, chia seeds, walnuts, and algae-based supplements to provide essential fatty acids for brain development. 3. Make Meals Fun and Appealing: • Colorful Plates: Create colorful and visually appealing meals to make healthy foods more attractive to a child. • Involvement: Involve the child in meal planning and preparation to increase their interest and willingness to try new foods. • Healthy Snacks: Offer nutritious snacks such as fruit slices, vegetable sticks with hummus, and whole-grain crackers to maintain energy levels throughout the day. 4. Regular Monitoring and Support: • Pediatric Check-Ups: Schedule regular visits with a pediatrician to monitor the child’s growth and nutritional status. Discuss any concerns or questions about the vegetarian diet. • Education: Educate the child about the importance of eating a variety of foods to grow strong and healthy. By following these suggestions, a mother can help ensure that her 5-year-old child receives all the necessary nutrients while enjoying the benefits of a vegetarian diet. 95. Why are high-protein diets potentially harmful? Answer: High-protein diets, while popular for weight loss and muscle building, can pose potential health risks when followed for extended periods or without proper balance. Here are several reasons why high-protein diets can be potentially harmful: 1. Kidney Strain: • High-protein diets can put excessive strain on the kidneys, which are responsible for filtering and excreting the byproducts of protein metabolism, such as urea. Over time, this strain can lead to decreased kidney function, especially in individuals with pre-existing kidney conditions or those who are genetically predisposed to kidney issues. 2. Nutrient Imbalance: • Focusing heavily on protein often leads to a reduced intake of other essential nutrients, such as carbohydrates, fiber, vitamins, and minerals. Carbohydrates are a primary energy source for the body, and their lack can result in fatigue, decreased physical performance, and difficulty concentrating. Insufficient fiber intake can lead to digestive issues, including constipation and an increased risk of developing colorectal cancer. 3. Heart Health Risks: • High-protein diets, particularly those rich in animal proteins, can be associated with higher intakes of saturated fats and cholesterol. This can increase the risk of developing cardiovascular diseases, such as heart disease and stroke. Plant-based proteins, which are generally lower in saturated fats, can mitigate some of these risks, but balance is still crucial. 4. Bone Health: • Excessive protein intake can lead to increased calcium excretion through urine, potentially affecting bone health. Over time, this can contribute to bone density loss and increase the risk of osteoporosis, especially if dietary calcium intake is not sufficient to compensate for the loss. 5. Long-term Sustainability: • Many high-protein diets are difficult to maintain in the long term due to their restrictive nature. This can lead to a cycle of weight loss and gain (yo-yo dieting), which has its own set of health risks, including metabolic imbalances and psychological stress. While protein is an essential macronutrient vital for various bodily functions, it is important to consume it in moderation and ensure a well-rounded diet. Balanced nutrition that includes adequate amounts of carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, and minerals is key to maintaining overall health and well-being. 96. What suggestions would you give to athletes taking multiple amino acid supplements? Answer: Athletes often consider amino acid supplements to support performance and recovery. Here are suggestions for athletes taking multiple amino acid supplements: 1. Consult with a Sports Nutritionist: • Seek guidance from a sports nutritionist or registered dietitian who specializes in athletic performance. They can assess individual needs, recommend appropriate supplements, and ensure they complement the athlete's diet and training regimen. 2. Focus on Whole Foods First: • Emphasize a balanced diet rich in whole foods to provide essential nutrients and amino acids naturally. Supplements should supplement, not replace, a nutritious diet. 3. Choose Supplements Wisely: • Select supplements from reputable brands that undergo third-party testing for quality and safety. Be cautious of excessive intake, as megadoses of certain amino acids can be ineffective or even harmful. 4. Monitor Effects and Adjust Accordingly: • Regularly assess the effects of supplements on performance and recovery. Adjust intake based on individual responses and feedback from healthcare professionals. 5. Stay Hydrated: • Adequate hydration is crucial for optimal supplement absorption and overall athletic performance. Ensure sufficient water intake throughout the day. 6. Follow Guidelines and Timing: • Follow recommended dosages and guidelines provided by the supplement manufacturer or healthcare provider. Consider timing supplements around workouts to maximize benefits. 7. Be Aware of Potential Interactions: • Be aware of potential interactions with medications or other supplements. Consult a healthcare provider if taking multiple supplements concurrently. By following these suggestions, athletes can enhance their performance safely and effectively while minimizing potential risks associated with multiple amino acid supplement use. 97. List 3 situations in which a North American college student might be at risk of PEM. Answer: (Protein-Energy Malnutrition) Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM) refers to inadequate intake of both protein and calories, leading to serious health consequences. Here are three situations in which a North American college student might be at risk of PEM: 1. Poor Dietary Habits: • Unbalanced Diet: Students often face time constraints and may rely on convenience foods high in refined carbohydrates and fats while lacking sufficient protein and essential nutrients. • Skipping Meals: Irregular eating patterns, such as skipping meals due to busy schedules or financial constraints, can lead to inadequate calorie and protein intake. • Limited Food Choices: Dietary restrictions or preferences, such as vegetarianism or veganism without adequate planning, may result in insufficient protein intake. 2. Stress and Mental Health Issues: • Academic Pressure: High academic demands, exam periods, and deadlines can lead to increased stress levels and neglect of proper nutrition. • Mental Health: Students experiencing depression, anxiety, or eating disorders may have altered eating behaviors, affecting their ability to maintain a balanced diet. 3. Financial Constraints: • Food Insecurity: Some students may face financial challenges that limit their ability to purchase nutritious food consistently. They may opt for cheaper, calorie-dense foods that lack essential proteins and nutrients. • Limited Access to Healthy Foods: Living in food deserts or areas with limited access to grocery stores offering affordable fresh produce and protein sources can contribute to inadequate nutrition. Identifying these risk factors and promoting access to nutritious foods, education on healthy eating habits, and support for mental well-being can help mitigate the risk of PEM among college students in North America. Multiple Choice Questions 98. The weaker chemical bonds that form between amino acids that stabilize the structure create the ____________ structure. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary 99. What would happen to dietary protein if HCl were not being produced in sufficient quantities? A. Protein digestion would occur at a faster rate. B. Protein digestion could not fully occur because proteins could not be denatured and pepsinogen could not be converted to pepsin. C. Proteins would be digested by gastric lipase in the stomach. D. None of the choices are correct. 100. If you were cut and needed to heal the wound, which type of protein would the body produce? A. Ferritin B. Albumin C. Collagen D. Hemoglobin 101. What is the state of nitrogen balance when a person ingests 13 g of food nitrogen and loses 21 g of nitrogen? A. Equilibrium B. Positive balance C. Negative balance D. Exogenous balance 102. What would be the effect on protein digestion if insufficient amounts of gastrin were being produced? A. Too much HCL would be produced, resulting in rapid protein digestion. B. Too little HCL would be produced, resulting in insufficient protein digestion. C. Too much amylase would be produced, inhibiting the digestion of protein. D. No effect; gastrin does not play a role in the secretion of enzymes or substances related to protein digestion. Chapter 08 Alcohol Multiple Choice Questions 1. The highest concentration of ethanol is found in ________. A. beer B. wine C. distilled spirits D. wine coolers 2. The alcohol content of an 80-proof tequila is ________. A. 80% B. 40% C. 20% D. 100% 3. Wine generally contains ________ alcohol. A. 5% B. 5-14% C. 15-22% D. >22% 4. The process of fermentation involves all of the following EXCEPT ________. A. simple sugars, such as maltose B. yeast C. carbon dioxide D. bacteria 5. A standard drink is defined as ________. A. 16 oz beer B. 12 oz wine cooler C. 5 oz wine D. 3 oz hard liquor 6. A standard drink contains _____ grams of alcohol. A. 5 B. 10 C. 14 D. 25 7. Alcohol is absorbed in the small intestine by ________. A. passive diffusion B. facilitated diffusion C. simple diffusion D. active transport 8. Alcohol absorption occurs in the ________. A. stomach B. small intestine C. esophagus D. stomach and small intestine 9. The ADH pathway of alcohol metabolism converts ethanol into ________. A. citric acid B. NADH C. acetyl-CoA D. pyruvate 10. The main organ responsible for ethanol metabolism is the ________. A. liver B. pancreas C. small intestine D. stomach 11. When consumed in low to moderate amounts, alcohol is primarily metabolized by the ________________ pathway. A. catalase B. MEOS C. alcohol dehydrogenase D. peroxidase 12. When the MEOS pathway is induced, alcohol tolerance _______ because the rate of alcohol metabolism __________. A. increases; decreases B. decreases; increases C. decreases; decreases D. increases; increases 13. The symptoms of acetaldehyde buildup during alcohol metabolism include ________. A. flushing B. rapid heartbeat C. hyperventilation D. All of these symptoms can occur. 14. Women absorb 30-35% more ethanol directly from the stomach than men because women ________. A. have slower rates of gastric emptying B. tend to eat more food when consuming alcoholic beverages C. have lower amounts of alcohol dehydrogenase in the cells lining the stomach D. absorb all substances, including ethanol, more efficiently 15. Binge drinking for a male is defined as having _______ or more drinks on a single occasion. A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 10 16. A blood alcohol level of _____ is defined as legal intoxication in the U.S. and Canada. A. 0.05 B. 0.08 C. 0.10 D. 0.50 17. What percent of North Americans consume alcohol? A. 10% B. 33% C. 65% D. 84% 18. Binge drinking on college campuses is associated with ________. A. academic problems B. auto accidents C. sexual abuse D. All of these responses are correct. 19. The population group with the highest rate of alcohol consumption is ________. A. elderly adults B. teenagers C. college students D. middle-aged adults 20. Moderate drinking is most accurately defined as ________. A. up to 1 drink per day for women and 2 drinks per day for men B. up to 7 drinks per week for women and 14 drinks per week for men C. up to 2 drinks per day for women and 3 drinks per day for men D. less than 1 drink per day for women and men 21. Benefits of moderate alcohol consumption include lower rates of ________. A. Alzheimer's disease B. many types of cancer C. cardiovascular disease D. All of these responses are correct. 22. Detrimental effects of excessive alcohol consumption include higher rates of ________. A. high blood pressure and stroke B. cancers of the mouth and throat C. liver disease and liver failure D. All of these responses are correct. 23. An early sign of alcohol-induced liver damage is ________. A. liver cirrhosis B. ascites C. jaundice D. steatosis 24. Liver cirrhosis is characterized by ________. A. decreased synthesis of proteins made in the liver B. abnormal retention of fluid in the abdomen C. poor nutritional status D. All of these answers are correct. 25. Alcoholism is associated with all of the following EXCEPT ________. A. cirrhosis of the liver B. jaundice C. type I diabetes D. alcoholic hepatitis 26. Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome is the _______ deficiency disease that results from severe alcohol abuse. A. vitamin A B. thiamin C. niacin D. vitamin B-12 27. Alcoholics often have trouble with night blindness. This results from ________. A. impaired absorption of several B-vitamins B. fluid accumulation in the eye C. damage to brain cells D. impaired absorption and transport of vitamin A 28. The recommendation for alcohol consumption during pregnancy is ________. A. no alcohol at all B. limit to one drink per week C. to follow current guidelines for moderate drinking D. to avoid binge drinking 29. The problems of alcohol abuse and alcohol dependency ________. A. are very infrequent in the United States B. affect nearly 1 in 3 Americans over a lifetime C. are untreatable problems D. affect only those with other serious problems, such as poverty, unemployment, or mental health disorders 30. Which of the following is not a common nutritional concern in alcoholics? A. vitamin B-12 deficiency B. protein-energy malnutrition C. vitamin A toxicity D. iron deficiency 31. Medications used to treat alcohol dependence act on ________. A. the brain to reduce alcohol cravings B. the liver to block complete metabolism of alcohol C. the stomach to prevent alcohol absorption D. both the brain to reduce alcohol cravings and the liver to block complete metabolism of alcohol 32. The risk of developing a problem with alcohol is higher in those ________. A. with a biological parent with alcohol problems B. who are women C. who begin drinking heavily in middle-age D. who are of Asian descent True / False Questions 33. When the rate of alcohol consumption exceeds the liver's metabolic capacity, blood alcohol levels increase and symptoms of intoxication develop. TRUE 34. Guidelines for safe drinking recommend that women should have no more than 2-3 drinks per day. FALSE 35. Alcohol requires no digestion. TRUE 36. Excess consumption of some alcoholic beverages can lead to deficiencies of iron and zinc. TRUE 37. Moderate alcohol intake has been associated with increased HDL cholesterol levels. TRUE 38. Excessive alcohol intake can lead to deficiencies of niacin, thiamin, vitamin B-6, vitamin B-12, and folate. TRUE 39. Compared with men, women produce more alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme in the stomach. FALSE 40. Compared to men, women absorb approximately 30-35% more unaltered alcohol from the stomach into the bloodstream. TRUE 41. Extremely high blood alcohol levels can lead to respiratory failure. TRUE 42. Signs of alcohol poisoning include hypoglycemia and severe dehydration. TRUE 43. Binge drinking is associated with vandalism and suicide. TRUE 44. An 80-proof vodka or gin is 80% alcohol. FALSE 45. Because alcohol cannot be stored in the body, it has priority in metabolism over other energy sources. TRUE 46. The small intestine is the primary site for alcohol metabolism. FALSE 47. Moderate alcohol consumption is most accurately defined as no more than 7 or 14 drinks per week for women and men, respectively. FALSE Essay Questions 48. List 3 of the leading causes of death in North America that are associated with excessive consumption of alcohol. Answer: Excessive alcohol consumption is linked to several leading causes of death in North America, including: 1. Liver Disease: • Chronic alcohol consumption can lead to liver diseases such as cirrhosis, alcoholic hepatitis, and liver cancer. These conditions can be fatal if not treated early and managed effectively. 2. Motor Vehicle Accidents: • Alcohol impairs coordination, reaction time, and judgment, increasing the risk of motor vehicle accidents. Drunk driving accidents are a significant cause of injury and death across North America. 3. Alcohol Poisoning: • Consuming large amounts of alcohol in a short period can lead to alcohol poisoning, which can be fatal. It disrupts the body's vital functions, including breathing, heart rate, and body temperature regulation. 49. Define what is meant by light drinker, moderate drinker, and heavy drinker for an average man and for an average woman. Answer: Definitions of light, moderate, and heavy drinking can vary slightly depending on sources, but generally: • Light Drinker: • Man: Consuming up to 2 standard drinks per day. • Woman: Consuming up to 1 standard drink per day. • Moderate Drinker: • Man: Consuming up to 4 standard drinks per day, with a weekly limit of 14 drinks. • Woman: Consuming up to 3 standard drinks per day, with a weekly limit of 7 drinks. • Heavy Drinker: • Man: Consuming more than 4 standard drinks per day, or exceeding 14 drinks per week. • Woman: Consuming more than 3 standard drinks per day, or exceeding 7 drinks per week. These definitions are based on typical guidelines from health organizations and may vary based on individual health conditions and other factors. 50. List 3 reasons why women are less tolerant of alcohol than men. Answer: Women generally experience greater sensitivity to alcohol due to physiological and biological factors. Here are three reasons why women are less tolerant of alcohol compared to men: 1. Body Composition: • Higher Fat to Muscle Ratio: Women tend to have a higher proportion of body fat compared to muscle mass than men. Alcohol is water-soluble and distributes less in fat tissues, leading to higher blood alcohol concentrations in women after consuming the same amount of alcohol as men of similar weight. 2. Enzyme Activity: • Lower Levels of Alcohol Dehydrogenase: Alcohol dehydrogenase is an enzyme responsible for metabolizing alcohol in the liver. Women generally have lower levels of this enzyme compared to men, which results in slower alcohol metabolism and higher blood alcohol concentrations. 3. Hormonal Differences: • Menstrual Cycle and Hormonal Fluctuations: Hormonal changes during the menstrual cycle can affect alcohol metabolism and tolerance in women. For instance, alcohol may be metabolized more slowly during certain phases of the menstrual cycle, leading to increased sensitivity. Understanding these factors is crucial for promoting responsible drinking behaviors and reducing the risks associated with alcohol consumption among women. 51. Describe 3 methods used to treat alcoholism. Answer: Alcoholism, or alcohol use disorder (AUD), is a serious condition that requires comprehensive treatment. Here are three methods commonly used to treat alcoholism: 1. Behavioral Therapies: • Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT): Focuses on identifying and changing unhealthy behaviors and thought patterns related to alcohol use. It helps individuals develop coping strategies and skills to manage triggers and prevent relapse. • Motivational Interviewing (MI): A client-centered counseling approach that enhances motivation to change behavior. It helps individuals explore their ambivalence towards alcohol use and strengthen their commitment to sobriety. • Contingency Management: Provides tangible rewards or incentives for achieving sobriety and meeting treatment goals, such as clean drug tests or attendance at counseling sessions. 2. Medications: • Acamprosate: Helps reduce alcohol cravings and withdrawal symptoms by restoring balance to neurotransmitters in the brain affected by chronic alcohol abuse. • Disulfiram: Causes unpleasant reactions (e.g., nausea, vomiting) when alcohol is consumed, discouraging drinking. • Naltrexone: Blocks the pleasurable effects of alcohol and reduces cravings, helping to maintain sobriety. 3. Support Groups and Peer Support: • Alcoholics Anonymous (AA): Offers a 12-step program that promotes abstinence and provides peer support through group meetings. • SMART Recovery: Focuses on self-empowerment and uses cognitive-behavioral techniques to help individuals manage addictive behaviors. • Group Therapy: Provides a supportive environment where individuals can share experiences, receive feedback, and learn from others facing similar challenges. These methods can be used individually or in combination to address the complex nature of alcoholism and support long-term recovery. 52. What are 4 symptoms that might indicate that someone has a problem with alcohol? Answer: Several symptoms can indicate that someone has a problem with alcohol, potentially indicating alcohol use disorder (AUD): 1. Craving: Strong urges or cravings to drink alcohol regularly or compulsively. 2. Loss of Control: Difficulty limiting alcohol intake or unsuccessful attempts to cut down or stop drinking. 3. Physical Dependence: Experiencing withdrawal symptoms such as nausea, sweating, tremors, or anxiety when alcohol use is discontinued or reduced. 4. Tolerance: Needing to drink increasing amounts of alcohol to achieve the desired effect, indicating a reduced response to the same amount of alcohol over time. These symptoms can vary in severity and may indicate the need for professional assessment and intervention to address alcohol-related issues. 53. How does alcohol abuse impair nutritional status? Answer: Alcohol abuse can significantly impair nutritional status through several mechanisms: 1. Malabsorption and Digestive Issues: • Alcohol damages the lining of the stomach and intestines, leading to inflammation and impairing nutrient absorption. This can result in deficiencies of essential vitamins and minerals, such as vitamin B12, folate, and zinc. 2. Caloric Imbalance: • Alcohol is high in calories but provides minimal nutritional value. Excessive alcohol consumption can lead to increased calorie intake without adequate intake of essential nutrients, potentially contributing to weight gain or malnutrition. 3. Liver Damage: • Chronic alcohol abuse can cause liver damage, impairing its ability to metabolize nutrients and regulate blood sugar levels. This can lead to disruptions in energy metabolism and nutrient storage. 4. Impact on Metabolism: • Alcohol alters metabolic pathways and can interfere with the body's ability to utilize nutrients effectively. This may contribute to metabolic disorders and further exacerbate nutritional deficiencies. Addressing nutritional deficiencies through dietary improvements, supplementation under medical supervision, and abstaining from alcohol are essential steps in restoring and maintaining overall health in individuals recovering from alcohol abuse. 54. Describe the health consequences to the fetus of drinking alcohol during pregnancy. Answer: Drinking alcohol during pregnancy can have severe and lifelong consequences for the fetus, leading to a range of developmental and health problems known as Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders (FASDs): 1. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS): • Characterized by facial abnormalities (e.g., smooth philtrum, thin upper lip), growth deficiencies (low birth weight, small head circumference), and central nervous system impairments (intellectual disabilities, learning difficulties). 2. Neurobehavioral Disorders: • Children exposed to alcohol in utero may experience behavioral and cognitive impairments, including hyperactivity, poor impulse control, attention deficits, and difficulties with memory and problem-solving. 3. Physical and Organ Defects: • Alcohol exposure during pregnancy can lead to defects in various organs and systems, such as heart defects, kidney abnormalities, vision or hearing impairments, and skeletal malformations. 4. Lifetime Impacts: • FASDs are lifelong conditions that can impact a child's physical health, mental health, educational attainment, and social functioning. Individuals affected by FASDs may require specialized medical care, educational support, and social services throughout their lives. Preventing prenatal alcohol exposure through education, support, and avoiding alcohol during pregnancy is crucial for protecting the health and development of the fetus. Early diagnosis and intervention can help mitigate some of the effects of FASDs and improve outcomes for affected individuals. 55. Describe 3 of the factors that increase the risk of developing alcohol dependency or alcohol abuse. Answer: Several factors can increase the risk of developing alcohol dependency or alcohol abuse: 1. Genetics and Family History: • Genetic Predisposition: Genetic factors play a significant role in the susceptibility to alcohol dependence. Individuals with a family history of alcoholism are at higher risk due to inherited genetic traits that affect alcohol metabolism and brain chemistry. • Family Environment: Growing up in a family environment where alcohol use is normalized or where family members have alcohol problems can increase the likelihood of developing alcohol abuse behaviors. 2. Psychological and Social Factors: • Stress and Trauma: High levels of stress, trauma, or unresolved emotional issues can lead individuals to use alcohol as a coping mechanism, increasing the risk of dependency. • Peer Influence: Peer pressure and social norms that encourage heavy drinking or binge drinking behaviors can influence individuals to engage in excessive alcohol consumption. 3. Mental Health Disorders: • Co-occurring Disorders: Conditions such as depression, anxiety disorders, bipolar disorder, or personality disorders can co-occur with alcohol abuse. Alcohol may be used as a form of self-medication to alleviate symptoms, which can exacerbate alcohol dependency. 56. List 3 signs of alcohol abuse. Answer: Signs of alcohol abuse can vary but may include: 1. Frequent Intoxication: • Regularly drinking to intoxication or being unable to limit alcohol consumption once started. 2. Neglecting Responsibilities: • Neglecting work, school, or family responsibilities due to alcohol use or its aftereffects. 3. Legal and Social Problems: • Getting into legal trouble, such as DUI (driving under the influence) arrests, or experiencing relationship difficulties due to alcohol-related behaviors. 57. How does the body metabolize low to moderate amounts of alcohol? Answer: When alcohol is consumed in low to moderate amounts (typically defined as one drink per day for women and up to two drinks per day for men), the body metabolizes it through several steps: 1. Absorption: Alcohol is rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream from the stomach and small intestine. 2. Liver Metabolism: • Alcohol Dehydrogenase (ADH): In the liver, ADH enzyme breaks down alcohol into acetaldehyde, a toxic substance. • Acetaldehyde Dehydrogenase (ALDH): Acetaldehyde is further metabolized into acetate by ALDH enzyme, which is eventually converted into carbon dioxide and water, or used as a source of energy. 3. Elimination: • The liver processes alcohol at a rate of about one standard drink per hour. Excess alcohol that the liver cannot metabolize circulates through the bloodstream until it is metabolized or excreted through urine, sweat, and breath. Moderate alcohol consumption is generally considered safe for many adults and can have potential cardiovascular benefits. However, exceeding moderate limits or consuming alcohol in a manner that leads to intoxication can increase health risks and contribute to alcohol-related problems over time. Multiple Choice Questions 58. Which of the following meals would slow the rate of absorption of alcohol the most? A. Pancakes with syrup B. Bacon cheeseburger and french fries C. Spaghetti D. Baked chicken breast and baked potato 59. Which of the following individuals would show signs of alcohol intoxication the fastest? A. 25-year-old male with a normal BMI who has not eaten today B. 35-year-old female with a normal BMI who has eaten a high fat meal 1/2 hour before starting to drink C. 22-year-old female with a high BMI who has eaten a high carbohydrate meal just before ordering her first drink D. 28-year-old male with a high BMI who has had a protein shake before ordering his first drink 60. How would moderate alcohol consumption benefit a 70-year-old widow who has no previous history of heart disease? A. Alcohol could stimulate her appetite to get more needed nutrients and calories. B. Alcohol could improve her production of estrogen. C. Alcohol could decrease her chances of developing type II diabetes. D. Alcohol could help her absorb more nutrients. 61. What would happen to the liver of an individual who was diagnosed with steatosis if he or she abstained from alcohol? A. He or she would progress to alcoholic hepatitis. B. He or she would progress to cirrhosis. C. He or she would progress to liver cancer. D. They would reverse his or her condition. 62. A chronic alcoholic presents with muscle twitching and cramping. He is also complaining of spasms in his muscles that he cannot seem to control. What nutrient is he likely deficient in? A. Iron B. Folate C. Magnesium D. Niacin 63. If a nursing mother consumes 1 to 2 drinks of alcohol, when is it safe to breastfeed? A. 2 hours after last drink B. 30 minutes after last drink C. 1 hour after last drink D. She should not breastfeed at all if she chooses to drink. Test Bank for Wardlaw's Perspectives in Nutrition Carol Byrd-Bredbenner, Gaile Moe, Jacqueline Berning, Danita Kelley 9780078021411, 9781259933844, 9780073522722