This Document Contains Chapters 3 to 4 Chapter 3 Matter and Energy True/False Questions 1. Matter is defined as anything that is visible to the human eye. Answer: False 2. An amorphous solid has long range, repeating order. Answer: False 3. Gases are the only form of matter that is compressible. Answer: True 4. Liquids have definite volume and indefinite shape. Answer: True 5. Solids have indefinite shape and volume. Answer: False 6. In a solid substance, the atoms or molecules oscillate and vibrate about a fixed point. Answer: True 7. Liquid and gas molecules can be compressed while in a solid, the molecules are incompressible. Answer: False 8. A compound is a substance that cannot be broken down into a simpler substance. Answer: False 9. Water is a mixture. Answer: False 10. Saltwater is a homogeneous mixture. Answer: True 11. Skim milk is a heterogeneous mixture. Answer: False 12. Air is a pure substance. Answer: False 13. Sugar is a pure substance. Answer: True 14. Chemical properties of a substance are those that can be observed without changing the composition of a substance. Answer: False 15. Flammability of gasoline is a chemical property. Answer: True 16. The odor of gasoline is a chemical property. Answer: False 17. In a chemical reaction, the substances present after the chemical change are called reactants. Answer: False 18. The melting of ice is a physical change. Answer: True 19. Mixtures of miscible liquids that differ in their boiling points may be separated by distillation. Answer: True 20. The corrosion of iron is a physical change. Answer: False 21. An example of a chemical change is burning a wood log to give a pile of ashes. Answer: True 22. In physical changes, the atoms or molecules that compose the matter do not change their identity, even though the matter may change its appearance. Answer: True 23. When you dissolve solid sugar into water, this new solution will taste sweet. The sugar went through a chemical change. Answer: False 24. A chemical change occurs when matter does not change its composition. Answer: False 25. Matter can be destroyed in a combustion reaction (such as burning fuel). Answer: False 26. Like mass, energy can neither be created nor destroyed. Answer: True 27. The energy of position is called kinetic energy. Answer: False 28. A moving bowling ball has kinetic energy. Answer: True 29. Electrical energy is associated with the flow of electrical charge. Answer: True 30. A melting scoop of ice cream is an example of an exothermic process. Answer: False 31. When a chemical "cold pack" is activated, the chemical reactants absorb heat from the surroundings. Answer: True 32. The process of boiling water is an endothermic process. Answer: True 33. A chemical change that will lower the potential energy of the chemical results in an endothermic reaction. Answer: False 34. An energy diagram that shows the products having higher energy than the reactants illustrates an endothermic reaction. Answer: True 35. Temperature is simply a measure of the motion of atoms and molecules. Answer: True 36. Temperature is defined as the transfer of thermal energy caused by a temperature difference. Answer: False 37. The coldest temperature possible is 0 K. Answer: True 38. Temperatures reported in the Kelvin scale cannot be negative. Answer: True 39. Absolute zero is equivalent to a temperature of -273 K. Answer: False 40. A kelvin degree is the same size as a Celsius degree. Answer: True 41. The temperature of 0°F is colder than the temperature of 0°C. Answer: True 42. The amount of heat energy needed to increase the temperature of an object will vary depending on the heat capacity of the object. Answer: True 43. The heat capcity of a substance is the quantity of thermal heat required to change the temperature of a given amount of the substance by 100°C. Answer: False 44. The large heat capacity of water produces large fluctuations in temperature near bodies of water during the summer months. Answer: False 45. Which of the following statements about matter is FALSE? A) Matter occupies space and has mass. B) Matter exists in either a solid, liquid or gas state. C) Matter is ultimately composed of atoms. D) Matter is smooth and continuous. E) none of the above Answer: D Multiple Choice Questions 46. Which of the following is NOT an example of matter? A) a pencil eraser B) a balloon full of helium C) a dust particle D) heat from a burning candle E) none of the above Answer: D 47. A solid form of matter in which there is long range repeating order is called ________. A) amorphous B) rigid C) crystalline D) fixed E) none of the above Answer: C 48. Which state of matter has atomic spacing that is close together and indefinite shape? A) liquid B) solid C) gas D) plasma E) none of the above Answer: A 49. Which state of matter has indefinite shape and is compressible? A) liquid B) solid C) gas D) plasma E) none of the above Answer: C 50. Which state of matter has atomic spacing that is close together and definite shape? A) liquid B) solid C) gas D) plasma E) none of the above Answer: B 51. Which among the following statements is FALSE? A) A solid has a definite shape and a definite volume. B) A liquid has a definite volume; but it has no definite shape. C) A gas has neither definite volume nor definite shape. D) Both solids and liquids are incompressible while gases are compressible. E) none of the above Answer: E 52. Which state of matter has atomic spacing that is far apart and definite shape? A) liquid B) solid C) gas D) plasma E) none of the above Answer: E 53. A pure substance is: A) composed of two or more different types of atoms or molecules combined in variable proportions. B) composed of only one type of atom or molecule. C) composed of two or more regions with different compositions. D) composed of two or more different types of atoms or molecules that has constant composition. E) none of the above Answer: B 54. Which of the following items is a pure substance? A) air B) seawater C) brass D) ice E) none of the above Answer: D 55. Which of the following items is a mixture? A) water B) helium C) brass D) sugar E) none of the above Answer: C 56. Which of the following is a heterogenous mixture? A) milk B) sugar water C) raisin bran D) air E) none of the above Answer: C 57. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture? A) trail mix B) stainless steel C) water D) molten iron E) none of the above Answer: B 58. Which of the following statements about compounds is TRUE? A) A substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances. B) A pure substance that has variable composition throughout. C) A substance composed of two or more elements in fixed, definite proportions. D) A substance that is not as common as pure elements. E) none of the above Answer: C 59. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Matter may be a pure substance or it may be a mixture. B) A pure substance may either be an element or a compound. C) A mixture may be either homogeneous or heterogeneous. D) Mixtures may be composed of two or more elements, two or more compounds, or a combination of both. E) All of the above statements are true. Answer: E 60. How would you classify salt water? A) pure substance-compound B) mixture-heterogeneous C) pure substance-element D) mixture-homogeneous E) none of the above Answer: D 61. How would you classify raisin bran? A) pure substance-compound B) mixture-heterogeneous C) pure substance-element D) mixture-homogeneous E) none of the above Answer: B 62. How would you classify sugar? A) pure substance-compound B) mixture-heterogeneous C) pure substance-element D) mixture-homogeneous E) none of the above Answer: A 63. A solution is an example of a (an) A) pure substance. B) element. C) compound. D) homogeneous mixture. E) heterogeneous mixture. Answer: D 64. Physical properties are: A) those that a substance displays only through changing its composition. B) those that cause atoms and molecules to change. C) those that a substance displays without changing its composition. D) identical for all solid matter. E) none of the above Answer: C 65. All of the following can be considered physical properties EXCEPT A) taste. B) color. C) flammability. D) density. E) boiling point. Answer: C 66. Which of the following items is a physical property? A) the corrosive action of acid rain on granite B) the odor of spearmint gum C) the combustion of gasoline D) the tarnishing of a copper statue E) none of the above Answer: B 67. Which of the following items is a chemical property? A) the paint color on a new red Corvette B) the odor of spearmint gum C) the melting and boiling point of water D) the tarnishing of a copper statue E) none of the above Answer: D 68. Which of the following statements about physical and chemical changes is FALSE? A) In a chemical change, matter changes its composition. B) In a physical change, matter does not change its composition. C) Phase changes are always physical changes. D) Chemical reactions are chemical changes. E) All of the above statements are true. Answer: E 69. If you hold a solid piece of pure gallium metal in your hand, your body heat will melt the gallium into its liquid form. This illustrates which of the following? A) distillation B) physical change C) chemical change D) chemical property E) none of the above Answer: B 70. Which statement below best describes the process of the paint on a vehicle fading over time? A) Chemical change because the paint molecules are changing composition. B) Physical change because the paint molecules are still paint molecules. C) Chemical change because the paint molecules are changing phases. D) Physical change because the paint molecules have risen to the surface of the clear coat finish. E) none of the above Answer: A 71. When methane is burned with oxygen the products are carbon dioxide and water. If you produce 36 grams of water and 44 grams of carbon dioxide from 16 grams of methane, how many grams of oxygen were needed for the reaction? A) 32 B) 80 C) 96 D) 64 E) none of the above Answer: D 72. When methane is burned with oxygen, the products are carbon dioxide and water. If you produce 18 grams of water from 8 grams of methane and 32 grams of oxygen, how many grams of carbon dioxide were produced in the reaction? A) 40 B) 22 C) 58 D) 18 E) none of the above Answer: B 73. When methane is burned with oxygen, the products are carbon dioxide and water. If you produce 9 grams of water and 11 grams of carbon dioxide from 16 grams of oxygen, how many grams of methane were needed for the reaction? A) 4 B) 20 C) 31 D) 40 E) none of the above Answer: A 74. Which of the following statements about energy is FALSE? A) An object possessing energy can do work on another object. B) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. C) Energy is the single main component of the universe. D) Energy is the capacity to do work. E) All of the above statements are true. Answer: C 75. Which type of energy is associated with motion? A) chemical B) electrical C) potential D) kinetic E) none of the above Answer: D 76. Which type of energy is associated with position? A) chemical B) electrical C) potential D) kinetic E) none of the above Answer: C 77. What type of energy is associated with the burning of gasoline? A) kinetic B) potential C) electrical D) chemical E) none of the above Answer: D 78. Which of the following items is NOT a common unit of energy? A) joule B) torr C) calorie D) kilowatt-hour E) none of the above Answer: B 79. How many calories are there in a 255 Calorie snack bar? A) 2.55 × 105 B) 1.07 × 103 C) 60.9 D) 1 × 103 E) none of the above Answer: A 80. How many joules are there in a 255 calorie snack bar? A) 2.55 × 105 B) 1.07 × 106 C) 1.07 × 103 D) 6.09 × 104 E) none of the above Answer: C 81. How many kilojoules are there in 95.0 Calories? A) 2.27 × 107 B) 3.97 × 10-4 C) 397 D) 22.7 E) none of the above Answer: C 82. If a particular process is endothermic, the reverse process must be a (an) A) chemical change. B) isothermal process. C) exothermic process. D) endothermic process. E) none of the above Answer: C 83. An energy diagram that shows the reactants having greater energy than the products illustrates an A) endothermic reaction. B) exothermic reaction. C) isothermic reaction. D) impossible reaction. E) none of the above Answer: B 84. If a solid piece of shiny sodium metal is exposed to chlorine gas, a large amount of heat is released and the white solid sodium chloride (table salt) forms. Based on this information, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) This process represents a physical change. B) Mass is lost during this process. C) Sodium chloride is an element. D) This process was exothermic. E) none of the above Answer: D 85. In order, what is the freezing point, room temperature and boiling point of water according to the Fahrenheit scale? A) 32-75-212 B) 0-75-100 C) 0-25-100 D) 0-298-373 E) none of the above Answer: A 86. In order, what is the freezing point, room temperature and boiling point of water according to the Celsius scale? A) 32-75-212 B) 0-75-100 C) 0-25-100 D) 0-298-373 E) none of the above Answer: C 87. The boiling point of water is (1) 212 °F (2) 0°C (3) 373 K A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) all of 1, 2, and 3 E) none of 1, 2, and 3 Answer: C 88. What is the value of 27°C on the Kelvin temperature scale? A) 273 B) 246 C) 300 D) 81 E) none of the above Answer: C 89. What is the value of 27°C on the Fahrenheit temperature scale? A) -6.8 B) 106 C) 300 D) 81 E) none of the above Answer: D 90. What is the value of 98 °F in units of °C? A) 72 B) 37 C) 371 D) 22 E) none of the above Answer: B 91. What is the value of 335 K on the Celsius temperature scale? A) 62 B) 167 C) 608 D) 66.4 E) none of the above Answer: A 92. Melting point can be defined as the temperature when a solid becomes a liquid. The melting point of the chemical acetone is -95°C. Which state of matter would you expect to exist for acetone at a temperature of -94°C? A) solid B) liquid C) gas D) plasma Answer: B 93. In calculating the relationship between the amount of heat added to a substance and the corresponding temperature change, the specific heat capacity is usually represented by which symbol? A) C B) q C) ΔT D) m E) none of the above Answer: A 94. A 15.0 gram lead ball at 25.0°C was heated with 40.5 joules of heat. Given the specific heat of lead is 0.128 J/g⋅°C, what is the final temperature of the lead? A) 21.1°C B) 46.1°C C) 77.8°C D) 0.844°C E) none of the above Answer: B 95. What is the specific heat (J/g⋅°C) of a metal object whose temperature increases by 3.0°C when 17.5 g of metal was heated with 38.5 J? A) 4.18 B) 0.15 C) 0.73 D) 1.4 E) none of the above Answer: C 96. How much heat (kJ) is needed to raise the temperature of 100.0 grams of water from 25.0°C to 50.0°C? A) 10450 B) 0.598 C) 1.05 D) 10.5 E) none of the above Answer: D 97. From the following list of substances and heat capacities, choose the one that will have the lowest temperature after absorbing 100.0 kJ of heat. Assume identical masses of each substance start at the same initial temperature. A) lead-0.128 J/g⋅°C B) copper-0.385 J/g⋅°C C) ethanol-2.42 J/g⋅°C D) water-4.18 J/g⋅°C E) not enough information Answer: D 98. Consider the following specific heats of metals. If the same amount of heat is added to 50.0 g samples of each of the metals, which are all at the same temperature, which metal will reach the highest temperature? A) aluminum B) copper C) gold D) iron E) silver Answer: C 99. When 49.5 J of heat was transferred to 7.3 g iron at 22°C, the temperature of iron increases to 37°C. What is the specific heat of iron in J/g⋅°C? A) 4.5 B) 0.45 C) 2.2 D) 24 E) none of the above Answer: B 100. Suppose it took 108 joules of energy to raise a bar of gold from 25.0°C to 29.7°C. Given that the specific heat capacity of gold is 0.128 J/g⋅°C, what is the mass (in grams) of the bar of gold? A) 6.5 × 101 g B) 1.8 × 102 g C) 1.28 × 102 g D) 1.08 × 102 g E) none of the above Answer: B Algorithmic Questions 101. How many Calories are in 575.0 calories? A) 575,000 B) 0.5750 C) 137.6 D) 2,404 E) none of the above Answer: B 102. How many joules are in 55.2 calories? A) 13,200 B) 55,200 C) 13.2 D) 231 E) none of the above Answer: D 103. What is the value of -25°C on the Kelvin scale? A) 248 B) -32 C) -13 D) -298 E) none of the above Answer: A 104. What is the value of 27°C on the Fahrenheit scale? A) 73 B) 52 C) 81 D) 91 Answer: A 105. What is the value of 783 K in units of °C? A) 417 B) 1441 C) 510. D) 1056 E) none of the above Answer: C 106. Given the table of specific heat values below, what is the identity of a 10.0 g metal sample that increases by 14.0°C when 62.9 J of energy is absorbed? A) Fe B) Al C) Au D) Ag E) none of the above Answer: A 107. Given the table of specific heat values below, what is the identity of a 26.2 g metal sample that increases by 8.5°C when 100.0 J of energy is absorbed? A) Fe B) Al C) Au D) Ag E) none of the above Answer: A 108. How much heat (kJ) is absorbed by 948.0 g of water in order for the temperature to increase from 25.00°C to 32.50°C? A) 7.5 B) 31.4 C) 30.2 D) 29.7 E) none of the above Answer: D 109. What is the final temperature of 25.0 grams of water at 22.0°C after it absorbs 454 J of heat? A) 17.7 B) 4.29 C) 26.3 D) 15.8 E) none of the above Answer: C 110. How many grams of water when supplied with 348 J of heat will gain a temperature of 5.2°C? A) 15 B) 17 C) 19 D) 16 E) none of the above Answer: D Chapter 4 Atoms and Elements True/False Questions 1. The smell of the ocean is caused by atoms. Answer: True 2. The atom is the fundamental building block of everything we hear, feel, see, and experience. Answer: True 3. An atom is the smallest identifiable unit of a compound. Answer: False 4. John Dalton was the first person recorded as thinking that matter was ultimately composed of atoms. Answer: False 5. John Dalton formalized an atomic theory that gained acceptance in the early 19th century. Answer: True 6. You can continually divide matter into smaller and smaller pieces without ever coming to an end. Answer: False 7. The plum pudding model proposed that negatively charged electrons were held in a sphere of positive charge. Answer: True 8. J.J. Thomson discovered the existence of protons. Answer: False 9. Ernest Rutherford proved the existence of electrons. Answer: False 10. The gold foil experiment proved that large regions of the atoms consisted of empty space. Answer: True 11. The nucleus of an atom is a very small, dense region that contains over 99.9% of the atomic mass. Answer: True 12. Protons and electrons each have a mass of 1 amu. Answer: False 13. A positive charge attracts negative charges and repels other positive charges. Answer: True 14. The mass of a proton is exactly the same as the mass of a neutron. Answer: False 15. The charges on electrons and neutrons cancel each other to give neutral atoms. Answer: False 16. Protons and neutrons have similar masses and similar electrical charges. Answer: False 17. An atom containing 8 protons, 9 neutrons, and 8 electrons would be considered charge-neutral. Answer: True 18. If two atoms each contain different numbers of protons, the atoms must be from different elements. Answer: True 19. All elemental symbols are comprised of a two-letter abbreviation. Answer: False 20. The elemental symbol for manganese is Mg. Answer: False 21. All carbon atoms have exactly 6 protons. Answer: True 22. The atomic number of nitrogen is 14.01. Answer: False 23. Mendeleev is best remembered for his pioneering work on determining atomic structure. Answer: False 24. Mendeleev's early periodic table predicted the existence of elements that had yet to be discovered. Answer: True 25. In the modern periodic table, elements are listed in order of increasing atomic number rather than increasing relative mass. Answer: True 26. Metals are located on the left side of the periodic table. Answer: True 27. The elements within a group on the periodic table tend to have similar properties. Answer: True 28. Group 2A elements are called alkali metals. Answer: False 29. Aluminum is one of the most commonly used metalloids. Answer: False 30. An element is discovered that is a solid, has one valence electron, and readily forms a 1+ ion. This element would be correctly classified as a nonmetal. Answer: False 31. Main-group elements tend to form ions that have the same number of total electrons as the nearest halogen. Answer: False 32. A cation forms when an atom gains an electron. Answer: False 33. Halogens form anions with a 1- charge. Answer: True 34. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have a different numbers of neutrons. Answer: True 35. The atomic mass of individual atoms of an element may vary. Answer: True 36. The relative amount of each different isotope in a naturally occurring sample of an element is always the same. Answer: True 37. All elements have three or more naturally occurring isotopes. Answer: False 38. The atomic mass of a single carbon atom is equal to exactly 12.011 amu. Answer: False Multiple Choice Questions 39. Which of the following statements about atoms is FALSE? A) Atoms compose all matter. B) Atoms are responsible for the sensation of smell. C) Atoms are the basic building block of nature. D) An atom is the smallest identifiable unit of an element. E) All of the above statements are true. Answer: E 40. Which statement below accurately describes the contributions of Democritus? A) ancient Greek philosopher who proposed that matter was not continuous B) created the modern periodic table C) proposed the modern Atomic Theory D) discovered the existence of electrons E) none of the above Answer: A 41. Which statement below accurately describes the contributions of Dalton? A) ancient Greek philosopher who proposed that matter was continuous B) created the modern periodic table C) proposed the modern Atomic Theory D) discovered the existence of electrons E) none of the above Answer: C 42. Which of the following is NOT part of Dalton's Atomic Theory? A) Each element is composed of tiny indestructible particles called atoms. B) All atoms of a given element have the same mass and other properties that distinguish them from the atoms of other elements. C) Atoms combine in simple, whole-number ratios to form compounds. D) Most of the atom's mass and all of its positive charge is contained in a small core called the nucleus. E) All of the above are part of the atomic theory. Answer: D 43. Which statement below accurately describes the contributions of Thomson? A) ancient Greek philosopher who proposed that matter was continuous B) created the modern periodic table C) proposed the modern Atomic Theory D) discovered the existence of electrons E) none of the above Answer: D 44. Which of the statements about the discovery of electrons is FALSE? A) Because atoms are neutral, the existence of a negatively charged particle implied there must be a positively charged component of an atom. B) Thomson proposed that electrons were small particles held within a positively charged sphere. C) Rutherford proved the plum-pudding model correct. D) The negatively charged electron is located outside the nucleus. E) All of the above statements are true. Answer: C 45. Which statement below is NOT consistent with the nuclear theory of the atom as proposed by Rutherford? A) Most of the atom's mass and all of its positive charge is contained in a small core called the nucleus. B) Electrical charge is a fundamental property of protons and electrons in which like charges repel and opposite charges attract. C) Most of the volume of the atom is empty space occupied by tiny, negatively charged electrons. D) There are as many electrons outside the nucleus as there are protons inside the nucleus in a neutral atom. E) All of the above statements are consistent. Answer: B 46. Which statement reflects the results of Rutherford's gold foil experiments? A) Almost all of the alpha particles were deflected back in the direction from which they came. B) Almost all of the alpha particles sputtered gold atoms off of the surface of the foil. C) Almost all of the alpha particles were deflected while passing through the foil. D) Almost all of the alpha particles passed directly through the foil. E) none of the above Answer: D 47. An atom containing 7 protons, 8 neutrons, and 7 electrons A) is charge-neutral. B) is an ion. C) is an oxygen atom. D) cannot exist. E) none of the above Answer: A 48. The atomic mass unit is defined as: A) the mass of the hydrogen atom containing only one proton. B) the mass of electrons found in a carbon atom containing six protons and neutrons. C) 1/12 the mass of a carbon atom containing six protons and six neutrons. D) 1/14 the mass of a nitrogen atom containing 7 protons and 7 neutrons. E) none of the above Answer: C 49. Which of the following statements about the nature of electrical charge is FALSE? A) Electrical charge is a fundamental property of protons and electrons. B) Positive and negative electrical charges attract each other. C) Positive-positive or negative-negative charges repel each other. D) Positive and negative charges cancel each other so that a proton and electron, when paired, are charge neutral. E) All of the above statements are true. Answer: E 50. Which of the following subatomic particles has a mass of 1.67 × 10-27 kg? A) electrons only B) protons only C) neutrons only D) protons and neutrons E) none of the above Answer: D 51. Which of the following elements has an atomic number of 4? A) H B) C C) He D) Be E) none of the above Answer: D 52. Which of the following elements has only 12 protons? A) C B) Zn C) Mg D) O E) none of the above Answer: C 53. What is the atomic symbol for silver? A) S B) Ag C) Au D) Si E) none of the above Answer: B 54. What is the atomic symbol for tin? A) Sn B) Ti C) Tn D) Si E) none of the above Answer: A 55. What is the correct chemical symbol for mercury? A) Hm B) Hy C) Me D) My E) none of the above Answer: E 56. Which of the following is NOT a correct name, symbol combination? A) beryllium, Be B) magnesium, Mg C) iron, I D) manganese, Mn E) silicon, Si Answer: C 57. Which of the following is NOT a correct name, symbol combination? A) beryllium, Be B) phosphorus, P C) iron, Fe D) manganese, Mg E) silicon, Si Answer: D 58. Which of the following is NOT a correct name, symbol combination? A) calcium, Ca B) gold, Au C) manganese, Mn D) chromium, Cr E) potassium, P Answer: E 59. The names of the elements whose symbols are Si, P, Mn, and S are respectively, A) silicon, potassium, magnesium, and sulfur. B) silver, phosphorus, magnesium, and sulfur. C) silicon, phosphorus, manganese, and sulfur. D) silicon, phosphorus, magnesium, and sulfur. E) silicon, potassium, magnesium, and sodium. Answer: C 60. Metals are located where on the periodic table? A) left side B) right side C) middle D) zig-zag diagonal line E) none of the above Answer: A 61. Nonmetals are located where on the periodic table? A) left side B) right side C) middle D) zig-zag diagonal line E) none of the above Answer: B 62. Metalloids are located where on the periodic table? A) left side B) right side C) middle D) zig-zag diagonal line E) none of the above Answer: D 63. Group 1A elements are also called: A) noble gases. B) halogens. C) alkaline earth metals. D) alkali metals. E) none of the above Answer: D 64. Group 7A elements are also called: A) noble gases. B) halogens. C) alkaline earth metals. D) alkali metals. E) none of the above Answer: B 65. Group 8A elements are also called: A) noble gases. B) halogens. C) alkaline earth metals. D) alkali metals. E) none of the above Answer: A 66. Group 2A elements are also called: A) noble gases. B) halogens. C) alkaline earth metals. D) alkali metals. E) none of the above Answer: C 67. Mg is a member of which family? A) noble gases B) halogens C) alkaline earth metals D) alkali metals E) none of the above Answer: C 68. Xe is a member of which family? A) noble gases B) halogens C) alkaline earth metals D) alkali metals E) none of the above Answer: A 69. Examine the elements listed below and identify the one element that is from a different periodic table group than the others. A) Si B) Sn C) Ti D) Ge E) All of these are from the same group. Answer: C 70. Cr is a member of which family? A) noble gases B) halogens C) alkaline earth metals D) alkali metals E) none of the above Answer: E 71. All of the following statements about different elements are true EXCEPT: A) Barium is an alkaline earth metal. B) Manganese is a transition metal. C) Sulfur is considered a metalloid. D) Krypton is one of the noble gases. E) Iodine is a halogen. Answer: C 72. Identify the element that is a nonmetal, a gas, and has an elemental symbol that starts with the letter "A." A) Ac B) Ar C) Au D) Al E) none of the above Answer: B 73. Ions are formed when atoms A) gain or lose protons. B) gain or lose electrons. C) gain or lose neutrons. D) Each of these results in ion formation. E) None of these results in ion formation. Answer: B 74. When an atom loses an electron, the resulting particle is called A) a proton. B) an anion. C) a cation. D) an isotope. E) none of the above Answer: C 75. When an atom gains an electron, the resulting particle is called A) a proton. B) an anion. C) a cation. D) an isotope. E) none of the above Answer: B 76. Which of the following statements about ions is INCORRECT? A) Cations are positive ions and anions are negative ions. B) Cations are formed when an atom loses electrons. C) Anions are formed when an atom gains electrons. D) Cations always have the same number of protons as electrons. E) All statements are correct. Answer: D 77. What is the correct formula for a potassium ion with 18 electrons? A) P+ B) K+ C) K- D) P- E) none of the above Answer: B 78. How many electrons are in Br-? A) 4 B) 7 C) 34 D) 36 E) none of the above Answer: D 79. How many protons and electrons are present in O2-? A) 8 protons and 8 electrons B) 10 protons and 8 electrons C) 8 protons and 10 electrons D) 16 protons and 8 electrons E) none of the above Answer: C 80. What is the charge on the barium ion? A) 1- B) 2- C) 1+ D) 2+ E) none of the above Answer: D 81. What is the charge on the ion formed by selenium? A) 1- B) 2- C) 1+ D) 2+ E) none of the above Answer: B 82. There is very little of the element astatine (symbol = At) on earth. If astatine formed an ion, it would most likely have the charge of: A) 1+ B) 1- C) 2+ D) 2- E) none of the above Answer: B 83. What is the charge on the ion formed by aluminum? A) 5- B) 3- C) 13+ D) 3+ E) none of the above Answer: D 84. What is the charge on the cesium ion? A) 1- B) 2- C) 1+ D) 2+ E) none of the above Answer: C 85. How many electrons would be in a -2 charged anion of sulfur? A) 2 B) 16 C) 18 D) 36 E) none of the above Answer: C 86. Isotopes are: A) atoms of the same element that have different number of neutrons. B) atoms of the same element that have different number of protons. C) atoms of the same element that have different number of electrons. D) atoms of the same element that have the same number of neutrons. E) none of the above Answer: A 87. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom A) is called the atomic number. B) is given the symbol "Z." C) identifies the atom as a particular element. D) is the same for all isotopes of an element. E) all of the above Answer: E 88. The nucleus of an atom consists mainly of A) neutrons and electrons. B) protons and electrons. C) protons and neutrons. D) protons, neutrons, and electrons. E) none of the above Answer: C 89. How many neutrons are present in Ne-22? A) 12 B) 10 C) 22 D) 32 E) none of the above Answer: A 90. How many neutrons are present in C-14? A) 14 B) 12 C) 6 D) 8 E) none of the above Answer: D 91. What is the mass number of the hydrogen isotope that contains 2 neutrons? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none of the above Answer: C 92. How many protons and neutrons are in Cl-37? A) 20 protons, 17 neutrons B) 17 protons, 37 neutrons C) 17 protons, 20 neutrons D) 37 protons, 17 neutrons E) none of the above Answer: C 93. An isotope represented as S-34 A) is an isotope of sodium. B) contains exactly 18 neutrons. C) has 34 protons. D) must have exactly 18 electrons. E) none of the above Answer: B 94. An atom of a carbon-14 isotope would contain A) 6 protons, 8 neutrons,and 6 electrons. B) 8 protons, 6 neutrons,and 8 electrons. C) 6 protons, 8 neutrons,and 8 electrons. D) 14 protons, 6 neutrons,and 6 electrons. E) 20 protons, 6 neutrons,and 20 electrons. Answer: A 95. An atom that has the same number of neutrons as is: Answer: D 96. A specific isotope of an element is known to have 15 protons and 16 neutrons. Which symbol would properly represent this isotope? Answer: B 97. A fictional element has two naturally occurring isotopes with the natural abundances shown here: Which statement is TRUE for this element? A) The atomic mass would be less than 18. B) The atomic mass would be closer to 18 than to 20. C) The atomic mass would be exactly 19. D) The atomic mass would be closer to 20 than to 18. E) The atomic mass would be greater than 20. Answer: D 98. A fictional element has two isotopes, each making up 50% of the population. Isotope 1 has a mass of 80.0 amu, Isotope 2 has a mass of 85.0 amu. Calculate the atomic mass of the fictional element. A) 82.5 amu B) 42.5 amu C) 40 amu D) 165 amu E) none of the above Answer: A 99. A fictional element has two isotopes and an atomic mass of 87.08 amu. If the first isotope is 86 amu and the second isotope has a mass of 90 amu. Which isotope has the greatest natural abundance? A) 86 amu B) 90 amu C) There are equal amounts. D) Not enough information provided. E) none of the above Answer: A 100. A fictional element named Nivadium is found to have three naturally occurring isotopes with the natural abundances shown here: The calculated atomic mass of Nivadium is A) 7.61 amu B) 22.83 amu C) 23.18 amu D) 69.55 amu E) none of the above Answer: B 101. Chlorine has two stable isotopes, Cl-35 and Cl-37. If their exact masses are 34.9689 amu and 36.9695 amu, respectively, what is the natural abundance of Cl-35? (The atomic mass of chlorine is 35.45 amu) A) 75.95% B) 24.05% C) 50.00% D) 35.00% E) 37.00% Answer: A Algorithmic Questions 102. What is the charge on an ion that has an atomic number of 24 and contains 22e-? A) 2+ B) 2- C) 1+ D) 1- E) none of the above Answer: A 103. What is the charge on a lithium atom that contains 2 e-? A) 2+ B) 3+ C) 1- D) 1+ E) none of the above Answer: C 104. How many neutrons are found in Ne-21? A) 11 B) 21 C) 10 D) 0 E) none of the above Answer: A 105. How many protons are found in C-14? A) 8 B) 14 C) 6 D) 0 E) none of the above Answer: C 106. Given that the molecular mass of bromine is 79.90 grams, which of the following isotopes would you expect to have the greatest natural abundance? A) Br-79 B) Br-80 C) Br-81 D) Br-82 E) none of the above Answer: B Test Bank for Introductory Chemistry Nivaldo J. Tro 9780321741028, 9780321687937, 9781256112938, 9781256161066, 9780134302386, 9780321910073
Download
Close
Close
