This Document Contains Chapters 9 to 12 CHAPTER 9: SMALL GROUP COMMUNICATION Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about small groups is true? A) All groups have some type of organization among them. B) Not all groups have a common purpose shared by members. C) A small group consists of two or more people. D) Small group members do not necessarily see themselves as a group. Answer: A 2) Which of the following is the best example of a small group? A) commuters waiting for a train at a train station B) neighbors waiting for children to get off a school bus C) friends who run into each other at a bar D) a university committee charged with building community on campus Answer: D 3) Which of the following statements concerning teams is true? A) Teams do not necessarily have specific purposes. B) Team members have clearly defined roles. C) Teams are always larger than small groups. D) Team members can have different goals. Answer: B 4) Which of the following is not typical of a team? A) Teams are constructed for a specific purpose. B) Team members’ roles are interchangeable. C) Team members all have the same goal. D) Teams are generally content focused. Answer: B 5) The stages of small group interaction are similar to the stages of A) relationship development. B) the perceptual process. C) the listening process. D) a conversation. Answer: D 6) The small group format where the members are “experts,” where the discussion is informal, and where the audience may freely interject comments or questions is called a A) round table. B) panel. C) symposium. D) symposium-forum. Answer: B 7) The members of XYZ Corporation arrange themselves in a circular or semicircular pattern and share relevant information or attempt to solve problems without any set pattern of identifying who speaks when. These members are using the small group format known as the A) roundtable. B) panel. C) symposium. D) symposium-forum. Answer: A 8) At a convention of the National Communication Association, one session consists of three speakers who each deliver a relatively prepared presentation, much like a public speech. After the speeches are presented, the audience asks questions of the speakers. This convention session most clearly follows the format known as the A) roundtable. B) panel. C) symposium. D) symposium-forum. Answer: D 9) The forum part of a symposium-forum small group is the A) asking and answering of audience questions. B) presentation of relatively prepared speeches. C) use of experts as members of the group. D) interaction of group members without any set pattern as to who speaks when. Answer: A 10) It didn’t take Matthew long to realize that everyone takes longer than the prescribed one hour for lunch at his new company. Now Matthew’s lunch is over an hour like everyone else. In this instance, “a longer lunch” is an example of a group A) norm. B) goal. C) ideal. D) structure. Answer: A 11) The diversity committee at State U. is a long-standing, high-context culture committee with a stable membership. During the first meeting of the year, Sam, a relatively new member of the group, asks, “What are the plans for fall orientation?” Given the high-context culture of the group, which of the following will most likely be a response Sam will receive? A) We will have a special meeting at the end of the month to brainstorm ideas. We will appoint a sub- committee to draw up a schedule and deadlines for tasks, and proceed from that schedule. B) We’ll probably do the same thing we did last year. C) We will need to consult with the students who will be involved to get their input before we proceed. Then we can work on making a schedule and setting deadlines. D) That’s the next thing on our agenda. Let’s get busy deciding on a schedule, activities, and deadlines. Answer: B 12) Which of the following is true concerning brainstorming? A) It allows for the generation of a limited number of ideas. B) It calls for the evaluation of each idea as it is presented. C) It encourages creativity. D) It occurs in three phases. Answer: C 13) To discover how a target audience might react to a new ad campaign, marketing executives A) brainstorm among themselves. B) conduct focus groups. C) brainstorm with marketing executives from other firms. D) start the campaign and then poll people on its effectiveness. Answer: B 14) Vasilios finds it difficult to stand up for himself and his beliefs at work. Vasilios’s employer may suggest that Vasilios attend one of these groups to help him over this problem: A) an encounter group B) a consciousness-raising group C) an assertiveness training group D) an intervention group Answer: C 15) When a group engages in a brainstorming period, members should not A) be informed of the issue to be discussed before the brainstorming session. B) contribute as many ideas as they can during the brainstorming session. C) freewheel. D) criticize ideas as they come up. Answer: D 16) If the primary purpose of a small group is to acquire new information or skills through the sharing of knowledge, the group would most clearly be a(n) A) idea-generation group. B) problem-solving group. C) small group culture. D) educational or learning group. Answer: D 17) According to your text, which is the BEST way to define a problem? A) as an open-ended question B) as a statement C) as a yes/no question D) as a compound statement Answer: A 18) Dewey’s problem-solving process starts with the following steps: A) definition and analysis of the problem and generation of possible solutions B) definition of the problem and generation of possible solutions C) definition and analysis of the problem and establishment of criteria for evaluating solutions D) definition of the problem and identification and evaluation of possible solutions Answer: C 19) In this decision-making method, group members voice their feelings and opinions, but the final decision is made by the boss or leader. A) authority B) consensus C) majority rule D) autocratic. Answer: A 20) When problem-solving at work, what is the method that uses limited group discussion and confidential voting to obtain a group decision? A) quality circles B) the nominal group technique C) the Delphi method D) Dewey’s problem solving sequence Answer: B True/False Questions 1) People riding in the same car of a commuter train constitute a small group. Answer: Falase 2) The establishment of formal rules is an essential aspect of the definition of a small group. Answer: False 3) Work groups may cause greater small group apprehension than working with a group of friends. Answer: True 4) In the roundtable format, a series of prepared presentations are formally presented. Answer: False 5) Group norms are rules or standards identifying which behaviors are appropriate and inappropriate. Answer: True 6) Members of work groups in high-context cultures spend a lot of time getting to know one another before engaging in small group interaction. Answer: True 7) Evaluation of ideas during the brainstorming period itself is encouraged. Answer: False 8) When establishing criteria for evaluating solutions, consider only realistic, attainable criteria. Answer: True 9) Personal growth groups are aimed at helping companies conduct market research. Answer: False 10) The encounter group or “sensitivity group” tries to foster members’ abilities to deal effectively with other people. Answer: True Completion Questions 1) A small group is a relatively small number of individuals who share ____________ and have ____________. Answer: a common purpose; some degree of organization 2) The ____________ is a particular type of small group whose members have clearly defined roles and is constructed for a specific task. Answer: team 3) One of the rules of a brainstorming session is that there is no ____________ of ideas. Answer: evaluation 4) The diversity committee at State U. has decided to have a symposium-forum regarding hate speech on campus. As such, the presentation will consist of ____________ followed by ____________. Answer: formal presentation OR prepared speeches; a question and answer session 5) The six steps of the problem-solving process are: 1. ____________, 2. ____________, 3. ____________, 4. ____________, 5. ____________, 6. ____________. Answer: define and analyze the problem; establish criteria for evaluating solutions; identify possible solutions; evaluate solutions; select the best solution(s); test selected solution(s) 6) It took the history faculty at State U. two hours to make a decision concerning who they would hire for a new position. The decision was not final until all the faculty members agreed they could live with this hiring decision. The history faculty at State U. used the ____________ method of decision-making. Answer: consensus 7) The communication department faculty met as a group to make the decision whether or not to add the new course in intercultural communication. When the department agreed to add the class, they went ahead and submitted their decision to the vice president. The vice president then vetoed adding the class to the college catalog. The method of decision-making used by the vice president is decision by ____________. Answer: authority Matching Sequence Match the example to the small group communication term that best describes it.
1) a team composed of XYZ Company employees who are investigating new ways to handle shipping and handling A) brainstorming
2) people recruited from a shopping mall to view a new advertising campaign for a candy bar and offer their opinions concerning the effectiveness of the advertisement B) symposium
3) members of the research and development division of a company meet in order to generate as many new product ideas as possible, no matter how wild the ideas may be C) quality circle
4) John and his friends meet every week at Starbucks just to chat and relax D) focus group
5) a group of environmental researchers making formal presentations followed by question-and- answer sessions concerning global warming E) relationship or social
Answers: 1. C; 2. D; 3. A; 4. E; 5. B CHAPTER 10: MEMBERS AND LEADERS IN SMALL GROUP COMMUNICATION Multiple Choice Questions 1) The information seeker, opinion giver, and procedural technician are best defined as ____________ roles. A) group task B) group building C) individual D) maintenance Answer: A 2) During a departmental meeting, Donna questions Henry’s suggestion concerning how to decrease turnover by saying, “That’s an innovative approach to the problem, Henry, but I’m not sure how it would work for this specific work group.” By making this comment, Donna is performing which member role? A) follower B) dominator C) evaluator-critic D) compromiser Answer: C 3) During a departmental meeting, Zora listens to everyone’s ideas and when it seems like everyone is on the same page, she adds, “This all sounds great to me. I’ll go along with it.” By making this remark, Zora has performed what group role? A) compromiser B) recorder C) information giver D) follower Answer: D 4) The aggressor, blocker, self-confessor, and dominator are best defined as ____________ roles. A) group task B) group building C) maintenance D) individual Answer: D 5) The encourager, compromiser, and follower are best defined as ____________ roles. A) group task B) group building C) individual D) task delegating Answer: B 6) Which of the following is true concerning high- and low-power-distance cultures and group membership? A) In high-power-distance cultures, power is concentrated in the hands of a few. B) In high-power distance cultures, power is evenly distributed. C) In low-power-distance cultures, people are taught to have great respect for authority. D) In low-power-distance cultures, there is a high level of trust in authority. Answer: A 7) During weekly sales meetings, Annie makes a point to congratulate other members of the group for their accomplishments of the week and make positive comments about others’ ideas to increase sales. One of the roles Annie plays at these meetings is A) encourager. B) opinion giver. C) compromiser. D) recognition seeker. Answer: A 8) John-David arrived fifteen minutes late for study group. The others in the group were busy studying and asking questions when John-David arrived. John-David then proceeded to hold court for ten minutes, interrupting everyone by complaining about how bad the parking is on campus. John-Davis’s actions best classify him as a(n) A) follower B) recognition seeker C) blocker D) opinion giver Answer: B 9) Larry never has anything good to say about any idea generated during group meetings. Because of Larry’s negativity, the group has not made much progress toward its goal. In this group, Larry represents the A) blocker. B) recognition seeker. C) self-confessor. D) evaluator/critic Answer: A 10) In a department meeting, John has shared some research on some new software that the company should purchase. Bill agrees with John, and goes on to share his experience with the software and offer more insight into why the software John suggests would be the best option. In this scenario, Bill’s behavior would best be classified as an A) opinion giver B) procedural technician C) encourager D) elaborator Answer: D 11) Honor keeps trying to change the subject of a listserv she subscribes to from the discussion of classic TV shows (the subject the list was formed to discuss) to discussion of the latest trends in reality TV. She is more interested in these new shows than in shows like “Andy Griffith” and “Dr. Kildare.” Honor’s communication indicates little understanding of which guideline for member participation in groups? A) beware of groupthink B) be group oriented C) ensure understanding D) be open-minded Answer: B 12) The theory that some people exert less effort when working in groups than when working alone is called A) group-orientation B) groupthink C) social loafing. D) procedural technician. Answer: C 13) Which of the following is a guideline for effective small group communication? A) Be self-oriented. B) Center conflict on people. C) Be uncritically open-minded. D) Ensure understanding. Answer: D 14) Which of the following statements concerning groupthink is true? A) Groupthink can have a positive or negative effect on a group depending on the context in which it occurs. B) Groupthink often shuts out realistic and logical analysis of a problem. C) Groupthink can lead to realistic analysis of a problem. D) Groupthink can bring the best out of group members. Answer: B 15) Members of the R&D department at GHI Drugs believe they have unanimous agreement concerning the benefits of Vidoxidin, a new drug to lower blood pressure, even though independent tests indicate it can have dangerous side effects. The members of R&D believe their own tests and opinion cannot be wrong. The R&D department at GHI Drugs has a problem concerning A) groupthink. B) centering conflict on people. C) ensuring understanding. D) being open-minded. Answer: A 16) Which approach to leadership posits that a person’s characteristics can be used to distinguish leaders from nonleaders? A) functional B) transformational C) situational D) traits. Answer: D 17) The approach to leadership exemplified by Gandhi, Martin Luther King, Jr., and John F. Kennedy is best described as a ____________ approach. A) trait B) functional C) transformational D) situational Answer: C 18) This leadership style of the situational approach is characterized by little direction and little support: A) telling B) selling C) participating D) delegating Answer: D 19) Bellah is in charge of leading a new team of firefighters who recently joined the force. In this situation, Bellah is well-advised to use which leadership style of the situational approach? A) telling B) selling C) delegating D) participating Answer: A 20) Pat is in charge of leading a group of seasoned volunteers at a local charity. In this situation, Pat is well-advised to use which leadership style? A) telling B) selling C) delegating D) participating Answer: D 21) Elvira’s general style of leadership is to just let her employees do what they want, although her door is always open if they have questions or want some information she can provide. Elvira’s style is best described as A) laissez-faire. B) democratic. C) authoritarian. D) telling Answer: A 22) Tulie’s general style of leadership is to tell everyone in his work group exactly what to do and how to do it. Tulie’s general style is best described as A) democratic. B) authoritarian. C) participating D) laissez-faire. Answer: B 23) Which of the following is considered a function of leadership in small group situations? A) discourage disagreement B) work towards unanimous agreement C) discourage interaction from group members who sem unwilling to agree with the leader D) monitor the interaction of the group members. Answer: D 24) Which of the following statements about mentoring is true? A) Mentoring can only take place between an older person and a younger person. B) The mentor guides new people “through the ropes” and teaches techniques for success. C) Mentoring is far more beneficial to the mentor than the mentee. D) Mentoring is a one-on-one activity and not applicable to small groups. Answer: B True/False Questions 1) In high-power-distance cultures, you are taught to have great respect for authority. Answer: True 2) The procedural technician is a group task role. Answer: True 3) During group meetings, Chris asks the recorder to read back the last statement that was made. Chris is performing the role of information seeker. Answer: True 4) Groups do NOT necessarily require some members to perform group maintenance roles in order to be successful. Answer: False 5) Group members’ willingness to assume individual roles is crucial to the effectiveness of a group. Answer: False 6) During a group meeting, Pat questions the feasibility and logic of the solution that the group plans to propose. Pat is performing the role of blocker. Answer: False 7) If group members seek to ensure understanding in group communication, they should work to make their statements clear as well as asking for clarification of ideas from other members. Answer: True 8) Conflict over issues in small groups can lead to better decisions or outcomes. Answer: True 9) Groupthink is NOT beneficial to a group. Answer: True 10) The concept of social loafing posits that people would exert more effort while working in groups rather than when working alone. Answer: False 11) In cultures with individualistic orientations, the group is likely to single out a member for praise or blame. Answer: True Completion Questions 1) Tom usually arrives early for group meetings, makes coffee, arranges the seating, and makes sure the flip chart has paper and the markers have ink. Tom is performing the role of ____________. Answer: procedural technician 2) Amy takes the role of ____________ when she consistently reminds other faculty members that she’s been an instructor in the department for over twenty-five years; therefore, even though she is not in a tenure track position, she has seen everything and knows what is best for the department. Answer: dominator 3) According to one of the guidelines of member participation in groups, being group oriented while still maintaining one’s ____________ is important to the group’s effectiveness. Answer: individuality 4) To ensure good decisions are made within a group, it is important to listen ____________ but critically to comments of all members. Answer: openly 5) The research and development team at Malloy International has been working on a revolutionary speech-grading software for six months. Team members have come to view the team as incapable of error and on a moral mission. This team exhibits symptoms of ____________. Answer: groupthink 6) The ____________ approach to leadership states that effective leadership requires leaders to shift emphasis between task accomplishment and member satisfaction. Answer: situational 7) ____________ leaders are interested in letting group members participate in developing the goals of the group. Answer: Democratic 8) Functions of leadership include maintaining effective ____________ and ensuring member satisfaction. Answer: interaction 9) A ____________ relationship occurs when an experienced individual helps to train a less experienced individual. Answer: mentoring Matching Sequence Match the behavior with the group role
1) tries to focus attention on oneself A) information seeker
2) offers support of others’ ideas B) evaluator-critic
3) pulls rank on other group members C) procedural technician
4) attacks the group or opposes the suggestions of other members D) aggressor
5) questions the logic or practicality of suggestions E) recognition seeker
6) distributes group materials F) dominator
7) asks for facts; seeks clarification G) encourager
8) seeks to find middle ground between own ideas and ideas of others H) compromiser
Answers: 1. E; 2. G; 3. F; 4. D; 5. B; 6. C; 7. A; 8. H CHAPTER 11: PUBLIC SPEAKING PREPARATION (STEPS 1–6) Multiple Choice Questions 1) Public speaking is defined as a(n) A) form of communication in which a speaker addresses a relatively small group of people. B) act of interpersonal communication. C) act of intrapersonal communication. D) form of communication in which a speaker addresses a relatively large audience. Answer: D 2) Which of the following statements is true concerning communication apprehension? A) Gaining experience helps to reduce communication apprehension. B) Public speaking is the rarest of communication apprehensions. C) The less you prepare, the less apprehension you will experience. D) It is more important to focus on yourself than on your listeners. Answer: A 3) All of the following are suggestions in our text for managing public speaking anxiety EXCEPT: A) Prepare and practice thoroughly. B) Avoid chemical tension relievers. C) See public speaking as a performance. D) Think positively. Answer: C 4) The first step in preparing an effective public presentation is A) select a topic, purposes, and thesis. B) analyze your audience. C) develop your specific purpose. D) write your introduction. Answer: A 5) Which of the following is true concerning appropriateness of topic selection? A) Avoid topics on which you and your audience may disagree. B) Topics related to religion, politics, and education are usually appropriate for classroom speeches. C) If you are speaking to a culturally diverse audience, check to see what topics may be taboo for certain members. D) Select a topic you know little about, so you can learn something new along with your audience. Answer: C 6) Andrea has decided to speak on antiques for her 6 to 8 minute informative classroom speech. In helping Andrea make her topic manageable, what would be the BEST advice to give her? A) The topic is narrow enough so there is no need to limit it. B) Try to cover the topic broadly and mention as much as you can in the time you have. C) It might be best to start dividing and subdividing your topic until you have something more specific than “antiques.” D) Any of these statements would be equally good advice for Andrea depending on her purpose. Answer: C 7) Greg plans to give a speech recounting the major struggles the southern city in which he lives experienced during the civil rights movement. The general purpose for Greg’s speech would be to A) inform his audience about the civil rights movement. B) persuade his audience that the civil rights movements was important. C) persuade. D) inform. Answer: D 8) Marius plans to give a speech to convince his audience to vote in the upcoming campus elections. What is the general purpose of Marius’s speech? A) to inform B) to inform his audience of the upcoming elections C) to persuade D) to persuade his audience to vote in the upcoming elections Answer: C 9) Manny plans to give a speech on how to cast a fly-fishing rod. What is the specific purpose of Manny’s speech? A) to teach her audience how to cast a rod B) to inform C) to persuade her audience to fly-fish D) to persuade Answer: A 10) Analyzing the sociology of your audience includes considering their A) personality traits. B) seating arrangement. C) appearance. D) educational levels. Answer: D 11) If you have determined that the audience may not be willing to listen to your ideas, you are well advised to A) include as many strong issues as you can. B) secure their attention early. C) treat them with indifference. D) remind them that they have no choice. Answer: B 12) In considering how knowledgeable your audience is about your topic, you should A) not confuse lack of knowledge with lack of intelligence. B) assume that they are intelligent and make your speech more technical. C) downplay your expertise. D) repeat what they already know. Answer: A 13) Chantal notices that her audience is starting to fidget and a few have started putting away their materials. Chantal needs to make one more crucial point before she ends her presentation. Chantal’s best course of action to adapt to her audience is to A) stop as soon as possible and forget about her last point. B) acknowledge the audience’s feedback and explain she has one more important point to make that will be worth their time. C) continue on as if she didn’t notice the audience’s fidgeting. D) chastise the audience for their inattention. Answer: B 14) In researching a topic for a speech, the best place to begin your search is generally with A) examining what you already know. B) Googling the topic. C) finding a very specific research article on the topic. D) buying a book that might prove useful. Answer: A 15) Which of the following is NOT mentioned as steps to be followed for interviewing someone in researching a speech topic? A) Select the person you wish to interview. B) Secure an appointment. C) Ask closed-ended questions. D) Ask for permission to tape or print the interview. Answer: C 16) When citing references in an oral presentation you should A) err on the side of citing too much information about a source than too little. B) preface citations by saying “I have a quote here.” C) not mention the actual author but be sure to mention the publication date. D) not mention citations in the actual speech but rather only in a detailed reference list. Answer: A 17) The thesis is A) the main idea that you want to convey to your audience. B) a statement concluding the speech. C) formulated in the middle of the speech. D) a statement that supports a major point. Answer: A 18) Morgan is going to give a presentation on how to prepare a tax return. Which of the following would constitute a suitable thesis statement for Morgan’s presentation? A) to inform the audience about how to prepare a tax return B) Preparing a tax return is a fairly simple process, if you know what documents you need. C) I want to convince my audience that they can prepare their own tax returns. D) an informative speech on the IRS Answer: B 19) Once the thesis is formulated, questions about the thesis help to generate A) your supporting material. B) the title of your speech. C) your main points. D) the cultural factors of your speech. Answer: C 20) Which of the following activities will help you develop the main points for your speech? A) Separate points that have a common focus. B) Select points that are most relevant to your audience. C) Use five or more main points. D) Phrase each point in a different style. Answer: B 21) How does a story about the changes in technology her grandmother has experienced in the last fifty years fit into Ellen’s speech on new technology? A) It is the thesis statement. B) It is the purpose statement. C) It should be the first main point. D) It is supporting material. Answer: D 22) The BEST organizational pattern for a presentation on the geographic weather patterns of the United States would be A) spatial. B) temporal. C) topical. D) problem-solution. Answer: A 23) When speaking about the various majors available at her university, Mary divided her presentation by colleges: Engineering, Arts and Sciences, and Education. Mary’s organization pattern is A) temporal. B) topical. C) problem–solution. D) transactional. Answer: B 24) The correct order for the steps in the motivated sequence are: A) attention, satisfaction, need, visualization, action B) attention, visualization, satisfaction, need, action C) attention, need, satisfaction, visualization, action D) visualization, attention, need, satisfaction, action Answer: C 25) In which step of the motivated sequence do speakers state exactly what audience members should do? A) visualization B) satisfaction C) attention D) action Answer: D True/False Questions 1) Campaign speeches are NOT examples of public speaking. Answer: False 2) To reduce communication apprehension in public speaking, you should think positively and dismiss thoughts of failure. Answer: True 3) Public speaking apprehension is the LEAST common form of communication apprehension. Answer: False 4) Effective speakers must follow the steps of public speaking in order as they are presented in the text. Answer: False 5) Plan to cover a broad topic in detail rather than a limited topic in generalities. Answer: False 6) The thesis of the speech should be stated as a complete, declarative sentence. Answer: True 7) Two general purposes of speeches are to inform and to persuade. Answer: True 8) Providing proof in the form of logical and motivational support is essential to persuasive speaking. Answer: True 9) Phillip organized his speech about movies into the following main points: the silent era, the reign of the big studios, and the rise of the independent films. Phillip has chosen a temporal or time organizational pattern. Answer: True 10) In the action step of the motivated sequence, you tell the audience what they should do to alleviate the problem you have identified earlier in the presentation. Answer: True Completion Questions 1) ____________ is a form of communication in which a speaker addresses a relatively large audience with a relatively continuous discourse, usually in a face-to-face situation. Answer: Public speaking 2) People experience ____________ in all types of communication situations, but it is most common in public speaking situations. Answer: communication apprehension 3) Plan to cover a ____________ topic in depth, rather than a ____________ topic superficially. Answer: limited; broad 4) Suggestions for reducing public speaking anxiety include gaining ____________, thinking ____________, stressing similarity between speaker and audience, and avoiding chemicals as tension relievers. Answer: experience; positively 5) Speeches serve two general purposes: to ____________ and to ____________. Answer: inform; persuade 6) To analyze the psychology of your audience, consider the following questions: 1. ____________, 2. ____________, 3. ____________. Answer: How willing is your audience? How knowledgeable is your audience? How favorable is your audience? 7) The thesis is phrased as a complete declarative sentence; the purpose is phrased as a(n) ____________ phrase. Answer: infinitive 8) The thesis focuses on the message; the purpose focuses on the ____________. Answer: audience 9) Begin your research by examining what you already ____________. about your topic. Answer: know 10) Integrate your sources of information into your speech by using an ____________. Answer: oral citation Matching Sequence Match function with the motivated sequence step.
1) making the audience anxious to hear what you have to say A) need
2) presenting a solution to the problem you have identified B) attention
3) telling the audience specifically what they should do to alleviate the problem C) action
4) vividly illustrating the consequences of adopting or not adopting your solution D) satisfaction
5) stating the problem as it exists or will exist E)visualization
Answers: 1. B; 2. D; 3. C; 4. E; 5. A CHAPTER 12: PUBLIC SPEAKING PREPARATION AND DELIVERY (STEPS 7–10) Multiple Choice Questions 1) If clarity is your goal, which of the following is appropriate when speaking? A) Don’t waste words. B) Use idioms as much as possible. C) Avoid high abstraction and use only low abstraction. D) Avoid specific terms and numbers. Answer: A 2) These guidelines―use active verbs; use figures of speech; and use imagery―are among the stylistic suggestions for achieving A) vividness. B) clarity. C) appropriateness. D) forcefulness. Answer: A 3) A question aimed at making a statement or producing some type of desired effect is referred to as a A) hyperbole B) rhetorical question. C) metaphor. D) simile. Answer: B 4) Which of the following guidelines does the book recommend in regard to the level of abstraction of language used in a speech? A) Use high-level abstraction to put pictures in your audience’s head. B) Consistently use low-level abstraction to make your main points clear. C) Vary the levels of abstraction. D) Use high-level abstraction more than low-level abstraction. Answer: C 5) Active verbs, imagery, and figures of speech are helpful for achieving A) clarity. B) appropriateness. C) vividness. D) personal style. Answer: C 6) Benny is giving a speech on bird watching. One of his points is about the equipment birdwatchers need. Which of the following would be the best way for Benny to state this point using an active verb? A) To enjoy the bird watching experience, choose the right equipment. B) Bird watching is fun with the right equipment. C) The right equipment is vitally important to enjoyable birdwatching. D) You will be a better birdwatcher if you have the right equipment. Answer: A 7) During her speech on vacationing on the Greek island of Hydra, Katalina asks her audience to imagine a place where the sound of the sea and the wind are not interrupted by honking horns and screeching tires, a place where the only traffic sounds are the soft whirr of bicycle tires on the pavement. Katalina is using ____________ to give her audience a sense of the place. A) active verbs B) idioms C) imagery D) personal style Answer: C 8) ”Sally is a stupendous student of sociology!” is an example of A) alliteration. B) hyperbole. C) metaphor. D) a rhetorical question. Answer: A 9) To begin a speech on the use of condoms, Chris told a risqué joke that shocked the audience. Chris’s use of language is best described as A) too vivid. B) too clear. C) too personal. D) inappropriate. Answer: D 10) Which of the following would be the best statement to use in a speech on volunteerism to create immediacy with an audience? A) Those who volunteer receive as much as they give. B) I shall be speaking on the joys of volunteerism. C) I think we’ve all had those experiences where in giving we received so much in return. D) Volunteering offers something for everyone. Answer: C 11) In the introduction of his speech, Harold says, “I really don’t know much about this subject, and I don’t know how interested you might be in it but . . .” Harold’s use of language suggests A) powerlessness through the use of disqualifiers. B) an appropriate level of formality. C) an attempt to create immediacy with the audience. D) improper sentence construction. Answer: A 12) In constructing sentences for an oral presentation, it is best to favor A) long over short sentences. B) indirect over direct sentences. C) positive over negative sentences. D) passive over active sentences. Answer: C 13) In a speech, the conclusion serves as the A) summary and orientation. B) summary and closing. C) closing and feedback. D) closing and orientation. Answer: B 14) An acceptable way to close a presentation is to A) bring in new information for the audience to ponder. B) say, “That’s it!” C) pose a challenge to the audience. D) ask a rhetorical question. Answer: C 15) Effective ways to gain attention for a speech include A) asking a question. B) apologizing for your lack of experience to set the audience at ease. C) immediately offering your thesis statement. D) making prefacing remarks before you actually begin. Answer: A 16) In a speech, the introduction should A) avoid referring to specific audience members. B) orient the audience to a topic. C) motivate your audience to do something. D) reinforce what you have already said. Answer: B 17) After Roberto arrived at the podium, the first words of his speech were an apology for lack of preparation. Roberto’s apology A) is an example of a good attention-getter. B) is something Roberto should have omitted. C) should have been stated as a rhetorical question. D) is exemplary of orienting an audience to a topic. Answer: B 18) Transitions in public speaking A) are only needed if your points are very different from one another. B) help the audience see connections among your points. C) are useful as final statements. D) rarely add clarity to well-constructed presentations. Answer: B 19) The outline you use when you give your presentation should A) be the same outline you used to prepare your speech. B) contain no extraneous notes to yourself about delivery. C) be brief, preferably just key words. D) be a script of every word you wish to say. Answer: C 20) Which of the following is one of the suggestions presented in your book for rehearsing a speech? A) Rehearse the speech in parts rather than from beginning to end. B) Rehearse in front of a mirror to better understand how you will look to your audience. C) Interrupt rehearsals to make notes or changes. D) Rehearse the speech two times. Answer: B 21) Matthew did not anticipate winning the student service award, so he did not prepare a speech. When his name was called, he had to quickly think of a few words to say that would be appropriate for the occasion. Matthew’s delivery method is best described as A) manuscript. B) impromptu. C) extemporaneous. D) memorized. Answer: B 22) As vice president of sales and marketing for HJK Company, Nin is required to give quarterly presentations to the board of directors. For these presentations, Nin prepares thoroughly and speaks from a brief outline. Nin’s delivery method is best described as A) manuscript. B) impromptu. C) extemporaneous. D) memorized. Answer: C 23) During his speech on foreign policy, Manny keeps dropping the “g’s” from gerunds: “I’m hoping’ the finding’s I’m presenting’ are convincing’.” Which of the following articulation problems is Manny demonstrating? A) omission B) substitution C) addition D) accent Answer: A 24) Generally, speakers who maintain eye contact appear A) less trustworthy than those who don’t. B) less concerned than those who don’t. C) more trustworthy than those who don’t. D) more distant than those who don’t. Answer: C 25) In regard to delivery notes, your text suggests using A) only a delivery outline. B) a minimum of 6 index cards. C) a handwritten manuscript of the speech. D) your preparation outline. Answer: A True/False Questions 1) Alliteration is the use of extreme exaggeration. Answer: False 2) Speakers should limit their use of idioms to avoid confusing non-native speakers. Answer: True 3) “Camping is an excellent activity for people of all ages” is an example of active verb choice. Answer: False 4) Using slang is one way to create immediacy with your audience. Answer: False 5) The best way to begin a speech is to say something like, “My topic today is schizophrenia.” Answer: False 6) The conclusion is an excellent place to introduce new information that you want your audience to think about. Answer: False 7) By using transitions, you can help your audience see how one point relates to another. Answer: True 8) Your preparation outline and your delivery outline should be essentially the same. Answer: False 9) In politically sensitive cases or when media impose severe time restrictions on the speech, it may be wise to consider using the manuscript method of delivery. Answer: True 10) To be effective, pauses should be filled rather than unfilled. Answer: False Completion Questions 1) ____________ language generally contains more familiar terms than ____________ language. Answer: Spoken; written 2) ____________ are expressions that are unique to a specific language and whose meaning cannot be deduced from the individual words used. Answer: Idioms 3) ____________ enables a speaker to make an audience feel the temperature or texture suggested in a speech. Answer: Tactile imagery 4) Conclusions serve two major functions in public speaking: 1. ____________ and 2.____________. Answer: to summarize; to close 5) You should try to accomplish two goals in your introduction: 1. ____________ and 2.____________. Answer: gain attention; orient the audience 6) ____________ are statements used to summarize what you have already discussed in your speech before you move on to a new point. Answer: Internal summaries 7) The method of delivery that involves thorough preparation but no commitment to exact wording is the ____________ method. Answer: extemporaneous 8) Pronouncing the word “orator” as “or-RATE-or” instead of “OR-ruh-ter” is an example of the pronunciation problem of ____________. Answer: accent 9) Suggestions for expressing evaluations of others’ presentations include say something positive, limit criticism, and ____________. Answer: be specific OR be constructive OR focus on behavior OR be culturally sensitive 10) The most important single aspect of bodily communication is ____________. Answer: eye contact Matching Sequence Match the example with the figure of speech it represents.
1) She’s an otter when she’s in the pool. A) alliteration
2) Trying to manage school, work, and a family is like juggling and riding a bike at the same time. B) hyperbole
3) Even if you have a million errands to run in one day, using these simple organization techniques will prove useful. C) metaphor
4) One of the images I’ll never forget from my trip to Yosemite was how the trees bowed their heads in respect as a sudden wind swept into the valley. D) simile
5) Do you want to have a worry-free vacation? E) personification
6) Finely finished fabric makes all the difference when redecorating a room. F) rhetorical question
Answers: 1. C; 2. D; 3. B; 4. E; 5. F; 6. A Test Bank for Essentials of Human Communication Joseph A. DeVito 9780205940882, 9780134890388, 9780134877426, 9780134202457
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