Chapter 12 Human Resource Management
1) The phrase "appropriate human resources" refers to the individuals within the organization
who make a valuable contribution to management system goal attainment.
Answer: True
Rationale:
This statement is true. "Appropriate human resources" refers to individuals who possess the
necessary skills, knowledge, and abilities to contribute effectively to the achievement of
organizational goals.
2) Recruitment is the process of developing qualities in human resources that will enable
them to be more productive and thus contribute more to organizational goal attainment.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Recruitment is the process of attracting, identifying, and selecting suitable candidates for a
job, not the process of developing qualities in existing human resources.
3) A job description refers to the characteristics of the individual who should be hired for the
job.
Answer: False
Rationale:
A job description describes the duties, responsibilities, and requirements of a job, not the
characteristics of the individual who should be hired.
4) Sources of human resources available to fill a position can be generally categorized in two
ways: sources inside the organization and sources outside the organization.
Answer: True
Rationale:
This statement is true. Sources of human resources can be classified as internal (employees
within the organization) or external (candidates outside the organization).
5) Wikstrom's human resource inventory forms are meant to be used exclusively for filling
managerial positions and cannot be used for filling nonmanagerial positions.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Wikstrom's human resource inventory forms can be used for filling both managerial and nonmanagerial positions. They are designed to assess the skills and qualifications of individuals
for various positions within the organization.
6) Wikstrom's position replacement form focuses on position-centered information rather
than the people-centered information maintained on the management inventory card.
Answer: True
Rationale:
This statement is true. Wikstrom's position replacement form is used to gather information
specifically related to the requirements of a particular position, while the management
inventory card focuses on the skills and qualifications of individuals.
7) The management inventory card, the position replacement form, and the management
manpower replacement chart are three separate recordkeeping devices for a human resource
inventory.
Answer: True
Rationale:
This statement is true. These three forms are used to maintain different types of information
related to human resources within an organization.
8) Private employment agencies collect a fee from either the person hired or the organization
doing the hiring, once the hire has been finalized.
Answer: True
Rationale:
This statement is true. Private employment agencies typically charge a fee for their services,
which is paid either by the candidate who is hired or by the organization that hires them.
9) Equal opportunity legislation protects the right of a citizen to work and obtain a fair wage
based primarily on race and ethnicity.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Equal opportunity legislation protects individuals from discrimination based on various
factors, including race and ethnicity, but it does not guarantee a fair wage based solely on
these factors.
10) In the area of equal employment opportunity, the basic purpose of positive movement is
to eliminate barriers and increase opportunities for the purpose of increasing the utilization of
underutilized and/or disadvantaged individuals.
Answer: True
Rationale:
This statement is true. The purpose of positive movement in equal employment opportunity is
to address systemic barriers and increase opportunities for underrepresented or disadvantaged
individuals.
11) Typing and keyboarding tests are examples of aptitude tests.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Typing and keyboarding tests are examples of skill tests, not aptitude tests. Aptitude tests
measure a person's ability to learn or acquire skills, while skill tests measure specific skills
that a person already possesses.
12) EEOC has the authority to prosecute organizations that use discriminatory testing
practices.
Answer: True
Rationale:
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) has the authority to investigate
and prosecute organizations that use discriminatory testing practices in their hiring or
employment practices.
13) To be considered as effective, test results should not be used as the sole determinant of a
hiring decision.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Using test results as the sole determinant of a hiring decision can be problematic. Effective
hiring decisions should consider a variety of factors, including test results, but should not rely
solely on them.
14) An assessment center is a place in which participants engage in a number of individual
and group exercises constructed to simulate important activities at the organizational levels to
which they aspire.
Answer: False
Rationale:
This statement is incorrect. An assessment center is a method of evaluating candidates using a
series of structured, job-relevant exercises, but it is not a physical place.
15) In a lecture, trainees participate primarily through listening and note-taking.
Answer: True
Rationale:
In a lecture, trainees typically participate by listening to the speaker and taking notes. This is
a common form of passive learning where the emphasis is on absorbing information.
16) Performance appraisal is not applicable to newcomers in the organization as they need
orientation time.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Performance appraisal is applicable to newcomers in an organization. While newcomers may
need orientation and training, their performance should still be evaluated based on their
performance during the orientation period.
17) When employees' performance is appraised using a rating scale, only one employee can
occupy a particular ranking.
Answer: False
Rationale:
In a rating scale, multiple employees can occupy the same ranking. For example, in a scale of
1 to 5, multiple employees can be rated as a 4.
18) Although conceptually separate, performance and objectives should be distinct and
independent topics of discussion during performance appraisals.
Answer: False
Rationale:
Performance and objectives are closely related topics during performance appraisals.
Objectives set the criteria against which performance is measured, so they are typically
discussed together.
19) Performance appraisals should emphasize how well the individual is doing the job, not
the evaluator's impression of the individual's work habits.
Answer: True
Rationale:
Performance appraisals should focus on the individual's actual job performance, including
achievements, strengths, and areas for improvement, rather than the evaluator's subjective
impressions of work habits.
20) One of the weaknesses of performance appraisals is that the emphasis is on completing
paperwork rather than on critiquing individual performance.
Answer: True
Rationale:
One of the weaknesses of performance appraisals is that the process can become overly
focused on completing paperwork and meeting administrative requirements, rather than on
providing meaningful feedback and critiquing individual performance.
21) Which of the following is the first step in providing appropriate human resources for an
organization?
A) selection
B) orientation
C) recruitment
D) training
E) performance appraisal
Answer: C
Rationale:
Recruitment is the first step in providing appropriate human resources for an organization
because it involves attracting and screening prospective candidates to fill a position.
22) ________ is the initial attraction and screening of the supply of prospective human
resources available to fill a position.
A) Onboarding
B) Job analysis
C) Recruitment
D) Prospecting
E) Orientation
Answer: C
Rationale:
Recruitment is the process of attracting and screening prospective candidates for available
positions within an organization.
23) The basic purpose of recruitment is to ________.
A) increase the productivity of employees by influencing their behavior
B) furnish feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive
and useful to the organization in its quest for quality
C) eliminate barriers and increase opportunities for the utilization of underutilized and/or
disadvantaged individuals
D) narrow a large field of prospective employees to a relatively small group of individuals
from which someone eventually will be hired
E) refine work methods, reduce production costs, and increase the level of organizational
diversity
Answer: D
Rationale:
The basic purpose of recruitment is to narrow down a large field of prospective employees to
a relatively small group of individuals from which someone will eventually be hired.
24) The technique commonly used to gain an understanding of a position to be filled so that
the broad range of potential employees can be narrowed intelligently is known as ________.
A) job analysis
B) workforce planning
C) employment status
D) performance appraisal
E) workplace orientation
Answer: A
Rationale:
Job analysis is the technique used to gain an understanding of a position to be filled so that
potential employees can be narrowed down intelligently.
25) The activities that a job entails are collectively referred to as the ________.
A) job specification
B) job description
C) job analysis
D) job requirements
E) performance appraisal
Answer: B
Rationale:
The activities that a job entails are described in the job description.
26) Basically, a job analysis is aimed at determining the job description and ________.
A) the job specification
B) recruitment process profile
C) number of positions to fill
D) training curriculum
E) the difficulty of the aptitude test
Answer: A
Rationale:
A job analysis is aimed at determining both the job description and the job specification.
27) A ________ details the characteristics of the individual who should be hired for a
particular job.
A) job description
B) workforce profile
C) curriculum vitae
D) job specification
E) performance appraisal
Answer: D
Rationale:
A job specification details the characteristics of the individual who should be hired for a
particular job.
28) Which of the following items is likely to be found in a job specification?
A) job title
B) working conditions
C) equipment used
D) job summary
E) physical skills
Answer: E
Rationale:
A job specification is likely to include physical skills required for the job.
29) A(n) ________ consists of information about the characteristics of organization members.
A) job evaluation
B) employee payroll
C) job analysis
D) human resource inventory
E) curriculum vitae
Answer: D
Rationale:
A human resource inventory consists of information about the characteristics of organization
members.
30) Which of the following is an objective of a human resource inventory?
A) advertising a vacant organizational position in a publication whose readers are likely to be
interested in filling the position
B) keeping the management up to date about the possibilities for filling a position from
within
C) eliminating barriers and increasing opportunities for the purpose of increasing the
utilization of underutilized and/or disadvantaged individuals
D) scouting external sources to identify prospective individuals to be employed via external
recruitment
E) increasing the productivity of employees by influencing their behavior
Answer: B
Rationale:
One of the objectives of a human resource inventory is to keep management up to date about
the possibilities for filling a position from within the organization.
31) Which of the following human resource inventory records proposed by Walter S.
Wikstrom contains an organizational history of an individual and an indication of how he or
she might be used in the future?
A) management manpower replacement chart
B) employee payroll graph
C) position replacement form
D) organizational restructuring chart
E) management inventory card
Answer: E
Rationale:
The management inventory card proposed by Walter S. Wikstrom contains an organizational
history of an individual and an indication of how he or she might be used in the future.
32) Which of the following functions does a position replacement form perform?
A) provides information about the organizational history of an individual
B) describes the merits of a current employee in a specific position to be used as a benchmark
for future potential recruits
C) determines who might be eligible to fill a vacant position
D) assesses the potential of an employee in the organization
E) advertises a vacant position in the organization and requests applications from qualified
candidates
Answer: C
Rationale:
A position replacement form is used to determine who might be eligible to fill a vacant
position based on the qualifications and characteristics of potential candidates.
33) The ________ is a human resource inventory record that presents a composite view of the
individuals management considers significant for human resource planning.
A) management inventory card
B) employment authorization document
C) job analysis chart
D) management manpower replacement chart
E) position replacement form
Answer: D
Rationale:
The management manpower replacement chart presents a composite view of individuals
management considers significant for human resource planning.
34) ________ is the process of outlining who will follow whom in various organizational
positions.
A) Organizational restructuring
B) Succession planning
C) Forecasting
D) Recruiting
E) Scheduling
Answer: B
Rationale:
Succession planning is the process of outlining who will follow whom in various
organizational positions to ensure continuity and leadership development.
35) Which of the following entities was created by the Civil Rights Act, passed in 1964 and
amended in 1972, to enforce federal laws prohibiting discrimination on the basis of race,
color, religion, sex, and national origin in recruitment, hiring, firing, layoffs, and all other
employment practices?
A) American Equal Rights Association
B) United States Commission on Civil Rights
C) Federal Labor Relations Authority
D) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
E) National Labor Relations Board
Answer: D
Rationale:
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) was created to enforce federal
laws prohibiting discrimination in employment practices.
36) The ________ seeks to uphold the equal opportunity legislation which protects the right
of a citizen to work and obtain a fair wage based primarily on merit and performance.
A) American Equal Rights Association
B) United States Commission on Civil Rights
C) Federal Labor Relations Authority
D) Social Security Act
E) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Answer: E
Rationale:
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) seeks to uphold equal opportunity
legislation that protects the right of citizens to work and obtain a fair wage based on merit
and performance.
37) The basic purpose of affirmative action is to ________.
A) narrow a large field of prospective employees to a relatively small group of individuals
from which someone eventually will be hired
B) eliminate barriers and increase opportunities for the purpose of increasing the utilization
of underutilized and/or disadvantaged individuals
C) increase the productivity of employees by influencing their behavior
D) reduce production costs and increase the level of organizational diversity
E) furnish feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive
and useful to the organization in its quest for quality
Answer: B
Rationale:
The basic purpose of affirmative action is to eliminate barriers and increase opportunities for
underutilized and/or disadvantaged individuals.
38) Which of the following processes involves choosing an individual to hire from all those
who have been screened from the prospective human resources available to fill a position?
A) selection
B) training
C) recruitment
D) promotion
E) orientation
Answer: A
Rationale:
The selection process involves choosing an individual to hire from all those who have been
screened from the prospective human resources available to fill a position.
39) Two tools often used in the selection process are ________.
A) recruitment and training
B) testing and assessment centers
C) programmed learning and performance appraisal
D) affirmative action program and learning-by-doing
E) public and private employment agencies
Answer: B
Rationale:
Two tools often used in the selection process are testing and assessment centers.
40) ________ is examining human resources for qualities relevant to performing available
jobs.
A) Selection
B) Orientation
C) Testing
D) Induction
E) Training
Answer: C
Rationale:
Testing is examining human resources for qualities relevant to performing available jobs,
such as skills, knowledge, and abilities.
41) Aptitude tests measure ________.
A) the physical ability an individual possesses to perform a certain task
B) an individual's interest in performing various kinds of jobs
C) the potential of an individual to perform a task
D) an individual's personality dimensions in such areas as emotional maturity, subjectivity,
honesty, and objectivity
E) an individual's response to stressful situations in order to assess his/her presence of mind
Answer: C
Rationale:
Aptitude tests measure an individual's potential to perform a task, focusing on inherent
abilities rather than learned skills or knowledge.
42) A forestry services firm tested Gerald on his emotional quotient which included questions
evaluating his honesty and other personal traits. Gerald just took a(n) ________.
A) personality test
B) aptitude test
C) vocational test
D) achievement test
E) technical skill test
Answer: A
Rationale:
A personality test evaluates personal traits, such as honesty and emotional maturity, which are
not typically measured by aptitude tests.
43) Tests that measure the level of skill or knowledge an individual possesses in a certain area
are called ________.
A) aptitude tests
B) vocational tests
C) achievement tests
D) intelligence tests
E) personality tests
Answer: C
Rationale:
Achievement tests measure the level of skill or knowledge an individual possesses in a
specific area, such as academic subjects or job-related skills.
44) Which of the following is an example of an achievement test?
A) psychometric test
B) aptitude test
C) thematic apperception test
D) keyboarding test
E) visual skills test
Answer: D
Rationale:
A keyboarding test is an example of an achievement test because it assesses the specific skill
of keyboarding.
45) ________ attempt to measure an individual's interest in performing various kinds of jobs.
A) Aptitude-interest tests
B) Vocational interest tests
C) Keyboarding tests
D) Typing tests
E) Functional interest tests
Answer: B
Rationale:
Vocational interest tests measure an individual's interest in performing various kinds of jobs
to help guide career choices.
46) ________ attempt to describe an individual's personality dimension in such areas as
emotional maturity, subjectivity, honesty, and objectivity.
A) Aptitude-interest tests
B) Vocational interest tests
C) Intelligence tests
D) Personality tests
E) Functional interest tests
Answer: D
Rationale:
Personality tests attempt to describe an individual's personality dimensions, including traits
such as emotional maturity, subjectivity, honesty, and objectivity.
47) Margie has applied for a job with the Lumineer Company. She was asked "how would
you handle an angry customer?" and "If you caught a coworker lying, what would you do?"
These are examples of questions you would hear in ________.
A) aptitude-interest tests
B) vocational interest tests
C) typing test
D) personality tests
E) communications test
Answer: D
Rationale:
These questions assess Margie's behavior and responses in certain situations, which are
typical of questions asked in personality tests.
48) When tests are used as part of the selection process, care must be taken to ensure that the
test being used is both valid and reliable. A test is valid if ________.
A) it measures what it is designed to measure
B) it is used as the sole determinant to hire an individual
C) it changes constantly so as to keep malpractices at bay
D) it doesn't contain language or cultural biases that discriminate against minorities
E) it subjectively assesses candidates' potential and desire to obtain a position
Answer: A
Rationale:
A test is considered valid if it measures what it is designed to measure, ensuring that it
accurately assesses the desired characteristics or abilities.
49) When tests are used as part of the selection process, care must be taken to ensure that the
test being used is both valid and reliable. A test is reliable if ________.
A) it proactively reduces an employee's anxiety
B) it can be used as the sole determinant of a hiring decision
C) it measures similarly time after time
D) its questions are asked in various languages as it has to cater to a diverse group of
individuals
E) it changes constantly so as to keep malpractices at bay
Answer: C
Rationale:
A test is considered reliable if it consistently measures the same thing over time, ensuring
consistent results.
50) Cal appears for a battery of tests as part of a selection process that aims to fill ten
positions in a certain company. He fails to clear the tests the first time and appears for them
again after three months. This time, however, he manages to pass the tests. Which of the
following characteristics is attributed to these tests?
A) unreliable
B) objective
C) invalid
D) discriminatory
E) unfair
Answer: A
Rationale:
The fact that Cal failed the tests initially but passed them later indicates that the tests may be
unreliable, as they did not yield consistent results for the same individual under similar
conditions.
51) A(n) ________ is a program in which participants engage in a number of individual and
group exercises constructed to simulate important activities at the organizational levels to
which they aspire.
A) job analysis
B) assessment center
C) performance appraisal
D) employment audit
E) workforce plan
Answer: B
Rationale:
An assessment center is a program where participants engage in various exercises to simulate
activities at the organizational levels they aspire to, helping assess their skills and potential
for those roles.
52) ________ is the process of developing qualities in human resources that will enable them
to be more productive and thus contribute more to organizational goal attainment.
A) Recruitment
B) Training
C) Selection
D) Performance appraisal
E) Induction
Answer: B
Rationale:
Training is the process of developing qualities in human resources to enhance their
productivity and contribution to organizational goals.
53) The purpose of training is to ________.
A) increase the productivity of employees by influencing their behavior
B) furnish feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive
and useful to the organization in its quest for quality
C) eliminate barriers for the purpose of increasing the utilization of disadvantaged individuals
D) narrow a large field of prospective employees to a relatively small group of individuals
from which someone eventually will be hired
E) refine work methods, reduce production costs, and increase the level of organizational
diversity
Answer: A
Rationale:
The purpose of training is to increase the productivity of employees by influencing their
behavior positively through skill development and knowledge enhancement.
54) The first step of the training process is ________.
A) designing the training program
B) administering the training program
C) determining the training needs
D) evaluating the training program
E) standardizing the training program
Answer: C
Rationale:
The first step in the training process is to determine the training needs, which involves
identifying the areas where employees require development to enhance their performance.
55) ________ refer(s) to the information or skill areas of an individual or group that require
further development to increase the productivity of that individual or group.
A) Training needs
B) Professional maturity
C) Self actualization needs
D) Vocational interest
E) Growth potential
Answer: A
Rationale:
Training needs refer to the areas in which individuals or groups require further development
to enhance their productivity.
56) A ________ is primarily a one-way communication situation in which an instructor orally
presents information to a group of listeners.
A) group discussion
B) lecture
C) student debate
D) brainstorming session
E) symposium
Answer: B
Rationale:
A lecture is primarily a one-way communication situation where an instructor presents
information to a group of listeners without much interaction.
57) Which of the following is an advantage of lectures as a training method?
A) Lectures are extremely helpful in promoting attitudinal and behavioral changes among
trainees.
B) Lectures provide ample opportunity to check on whether trainees really understand the
training material.
C) Lectures allow instructors to expose trainees to a maximum amount of information within
a given time period.
D) Lectures are ideal training methods for handling the wide diversity of ability, attitude, and
interest that prevails among trainees.
E) Lectures facilitate opportunities for practice, reinforcement, knowledge of results, and
overlearning.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Lectures allow instructors to present a large amount of information to trainees within a
relatively short period, making them efficient for delivering content.
58) Which of the following statements is true of lectures as a training method?
A) Lectures involve an even exchange of information between instructors and trainees by
way of discussions and debates.
B) Lectures are disadvantaged by their inability to expose trainees to a substantial amount of
information within a given time period.
C) The nature of the lecture situation makes it of minimal value in promoting attitudinal or
behavioral change.
D) Instructors can handle the wide diversity of ability, attitude, and interest that may prevail
among the trainees by way of lectures.
E) A lecture format provides opportunities for practice, reinforcement, knowledge of results,
and overlearning.
Answer: C
Rationale:
The nature of the lecture situation, being primarily one-way communication, makes it less
effective in promoting attitudinal or behavioral change compared to interactive methods.
59) ________ is a training technique for instructing without the presence or intervention of a
human instructor.
A) Experiential learning
B) Programmed learning
C) On-the-job training
D) Active learning
E) Lecture
Answer: B
Rationale:
Programmed learning is a training technique that allows individuals to learn without the
direct intervention of a human instructor, often using self-paced materials.
60) Which of the following is an advantage of using a programmed learning approach for
training employees?
A) The cost of programmed learning is practically nonexistent as training is delivered
through computer programs.
B) One-on-one interaction with mentors and trainers fosters a co-learning atmosphere in the
organization.
C) Employees get a firsthand experience of their job demands as they learn skills by
performing them.
D) Employees are able to learn at their own pace, picking up information piece by piece.
E) Programmed learning allows instructors to expose trainees to a maximum amount of
information within a given time period.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Programmed learning allows employees to learn at their own pace, picking up information
piece by piece, which can enhance learning effectiveness.
61) Which of the following is a disadvantage of programmed learning as a training method?
A) Programmed learning methods do not lend themselves easily to computerization.
B) The limited time period of programmed learning modules are disadvantageous to students
who prefer to learn at their own pace.
C) Programmed learning approaches are not conducive for encouraging students' active
participation in the learning process.
D) With programmed learning, there is no one present to answer a confused learner's
questions.
E) Students using programmed learning approaches are often slow as they go about learning
at their own respective pace.
Answer: D
Rationale:
One disadvantage of programmed learning is that there is no human instructor present to
answer questions or provide clarification, which can be challenging for learners who need
additional support or have specific queries.
62) Sean has been working for Bailee Cabinets for 15 years. Every year they have a routine
safety day. This quarter the company has decided to market a new set of cabinets for
premanufactured homes. Sean and his coworkers are required to learn how to use a new
product and how to manufacture it. This is an example of ________.
A) programmed learning
B) lectures
C) on-the-job training
D) passive learning
E) transmitting technique
Answer: C
Rationale:
This scenario describes on-the-job training, where employees learn how to use and
manufacture a new product directly in the workplace.
63) ________ is an on-the-job training technique that involves direct critiquing of how well
an individual is performing a job.
A) Programmed learning
B) Coaching
C) Lecturing
D) Overlearning
E) Position rotation
Answer: B
Rationale:
Coaching involves direct critiquing of an individual's job performance to provide feedback
and guidance for improvement.
64) ________ is an on-the-job training technique that involves moving an individual from job
to job to enable the person to gain an understanding of the organization as a whole.
A) Position rotation
B) Declarative learning
C) Coaching
D) Overlearning
E) Sequence learning
Answer: A
Rationale:
Position rotation involves moving an individual through different jobs to broaden their
understanding of the organization.
65) ________ are training vehicles for assigning a particular task to an individual to furnish
him or her with experience in a designated area.
A) Virtual teams
B) Cross-functional teams
C) Special project committees
D) Geographically dispersed teams
E) New product committees
Answer: C
Rationale:
Special project committees are used as training vehicles to provide individuals with
experience in specific areas through assigned tasks.
66) ________ for developing skills reflect a blend of job-related knowledge and experience.
A) Position rotation
B) Overlearning
C) Virtual teams
D) Special project reviews
E) Classroom techniques
Answer: E
Rationale:
Classroom techniques blend job-related knowledge with experiential learning, providing a
comprehensive approach to skill development.
67) ________ typically involves acting out and then reflecting on some people-oriented
problem that must be solved in the organization.
A) Position rotation
B) Sequence learning
C) Management games
D) Role-playing format
E) Declarative learning
Answer: D
Rationale:
Role-playing involves acting out scenarios to solve people-oriented problems and then
reflecting on the experience.
68) Which of the following characteristics can be attributed to classroom training techniques
in contrast to lectures?
A) lack of opportunity for attitudinal or behavioral change in trainees
B) learning through listening and note-taking
C) maximum amount of information transmission to trainees in limited amount of time
D) inability to handle wide diversity of ability, attitude, and interest among trainees
E) high levels of discussion and interaction among trainees
Answer: E
Rationale:
Classroom training techniques, unlike lectures, often involve high levels of discussion and
interaction among trainees, promoting engagement and active learning.
69) Which of the following is the right question to ask when determining the effectiveness of
the training program?
A) Are deadlines being met more regularly?
B) What skills do employees need to improve their performance?
C) Should the training program follow a lecture approach?
D) How much time and money must be invested in training employees?
E) Should on-the-job training be preferred over classroom training techniques?
Answer: A
Rationale:
Assessing whether deadlines are being met more regularly can indicate the effectiveness of
the training program in improving employee performance and productivity.
70) The process of reviewing individuals' past productive activity to evaluate the contribution
they have made toward attaining management system objectives is known as ________.
A) job analysis
B) workforce profiling
C) performance appraisal
D) employee audit
E) workplace turnover
Answer: C
Rationale:
Performance appraisal involves reviewing an individual's past performance to evaluate their
contribution to organizational goals.
71) The main purpose of performance appraisal is to ________.
A) keep management up to date about the possibilities for filling a position from within
B) refine work methods, reduce production costs, and increase the level of organizational
diversity
C) furnish feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive
and useful to the organization in its quest for quality
D) eliminate barriers and increase opportunities for the purpose of increasing the utilization
of underutilized and/or disadvantaged individuals
E) narrow a large field of prospective employees to a relatively small group of individuals
from which someone eventually will be hired
Answer: C
Rationale:
Performance appraisal is primarily intended to provide feedback to employees about their
performance, helping them understand how they can improve and contribute more effectively
to the organization's goals.
72) ________ is a performance appraisal method in which individuals appraising
performance rank several employee qualities and characteristics on a continuum.
A) Free-form essay
B) Forced ranking
C) Critical-form essay
D) Rating scale
E) Forced distribution
Answer: D
Rationale:
A rating scale is a performance appraisal method where appraisers rank employees based on
various qualities or characteristics, typically using a numerical scale.
73) ________ is a performance appraisal method in which appraisers rank employees
according to factors such as job performance and value to organization, where an employee
can occupy only a particular ranking.
A) Rating scale
B) Employee comparison
C) Likert scale
D) Semantic differential
E) Rasch model
Answer: B
Rationale:
Employee comparison is a performance appraisal method where employees are ranked
against each other, ensuring that each employee occupies a specific rank.
74) Which of the following performance appraisal methods requires appraisers to simply
write down their impressions of employees in paragraph form?
A) forced ranking
B) rating scale
C) free-form essay
D) employee comparison
E) critical-form essay
Answer: C
Rationale:
The free-form essay method involves appraisers writing down their impressions of employees
in paragraph form, without the constraints of a specific rating scale.
75) In which of the following performance appraisal methods do appraisers write down
particularly good or bad events involving employees as these events occur and evaluate each
employee's performance using their respective records of all documented events?
A) rating scale
B) free-form essay
C) forced distribution
D) critical-form essay
E) employee comparison
Answer: D
Rationale:
The critical-form essay method involves recording specific events involving employees and
evaluating their performance based on these documented events.
76) Which of the following is a guideline for handling performance appraisals?
A) The evaluator should attack the negative aspects of the subject's personality.
B) The evaluator should take care to reduce the anxiety of the subject on his performance.
C) It should emphasize how well the individual is doing the job, not the evaluator's
impression of the individual's work habits.
D) The subject should not be forced to undergo evaluation and has the right to deny
evaluation of his productivity.
E) The evaluator should emphasize an individual's work habits.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Emphasizing how well the individual is doing the job helps keep the focus on performance
rather than personal characteristics or habits.
77) Which of the following statements is true about performance appraisals?
A) Performance and organizational objectives are discussed separately during performance
appraisals.
B) Performance appraisals should ideally reflect the evaluator's impression of the employee's
work habits.
C) The goal of performance appraisals is to subjectively analyze an individual's habits, rather
than objectively evaluate the employee's performance.
D) Performance appraisals provide systematic judgments to support salary increases,
promotions, transfers, and sometimes demotions or terminations.
E) Performance appraisal is a continuing activity that focuses solely on established human
resources within the organization.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Performance appraisals provide systematic judgments about an employee's performance,
often used to support various human resource decisions such as salary increases and
promotions.
78) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using performance appraisals?
A) Performance appraisals do not provide judgments systematic enough to support salary
increases, promotions, or transfers.
B) Performance appraisals focus employees on short-term rewards rather than on issues that
are important to the long-run success of the organization.
C) Performance appraisals place undue emphasis on critiquing individual performance rather
than increasing organizational productivity and completing paperwork.
D) Individuals only tend to participate in the evaluation as they view it as a rewarding
prospective.
E) Performance appraisals are not effective at telling subordinates how they are doing and of
suggesting needed changes in behavior, attitudes, skills, or job knowledge.
Answer: B
Rationale:
One disadvantage of performance appraisals is that they can sometimes focus employees on
short-term rewards rather than long-term organizational success.
79) A potential weakness of performance appraisal is that the individuals involved view them
as a ________.
A) forced behavioral-change situation
B) salary-increment opportunity
C) promotion opportunity
D) fair and unbiased evaluation
E) reward-punishment situation
Answer: E
Rationale:
One potential weakness of performance appraisals is that individuals may view them as a
situation where rewards or punishments are handed out based on the evaluation.
80) What should evaluators do to avoid the potential weaknesses of performance appraisals?
A) Point out the subject's negative work habits.
B) Punish or reward the employee through positive and negative feedback.
C) The appraisal feedback should be tactful and objective as possible to minimize negative
reactions.
D) The evaluation paperwork should be done with quickly so as to achieve targets.
E) The evaluator should hold a feedback session to point out the collective negative aspects
of all the individuals under evaluation.
Answer: C
Rationale:
To avoid the potential weaknesses of performance appraisals, evaluators should provide
feedback that is tactful, objective, and focused on improving performance rather than
punishing or rewarding employees.
81) Describe the term "appropriate human resources." How is productivity in an organization
determined?
Answer: The phrase "appropriate human resources" refers to the individuals within the
organization who make a valuable contribution to management system goal attainment. This
contribution results from their productivity in the positions they hold.
Productivity in all organizations is determined by how human resources interact and combine
to use all other management system resources. Factors such as background, age, job-related
experience, and level of formal education all play a role in determining how appropriate the
individual is for the organization.
82) Write a short essay on the process of recruitment.
Answer: Recruitment is the initial attraction and screening of the supply of prospective
human resources available to fill a position. Its purpose is to narrow a large field of
prospective employees to a relatively small group of individuals from which someone
eventually will be hired. To be effective, recruiters must know the job they are trying to fill,
where potential human resources can be located, and how the law influences recruiting
efforts. What's more, with advances in technology, recruiting continues to evolve and change.
83) Describe the need for recruiters to know their source of human resources.
Answer: Recruiters must be able to pinpoint sources of human resources. The supply of
individuals from which to recruit is continually changing, which means that at times, finding
appropriate human resources will be much harder than at other times. Human resources
specialists in organizations continually monitor the labor market so they will know where to
recruit suitable people and what kind of strategies and tactics to use to attract job applicants
in a competitive marketplace. Sources of human resources available to fill a position can be
generally categorized in two ways: sources inside the organization and sources outside the
organization.
84) Give a brief description of the sources of human resources inside an organization.
Answer: The pool of employees within the organization is one source of human resources.
Some individuals who already work for the organization may be well qualified for an open
position. Although existing personnel are sometimes moved laterally within an organization,
most internal movements are promotions. Promotion from within has the advantages of
building employee morale, encouraging employees to work harder in hopes of being
promoted, and enticing employees to stay with the organization because of the possibility of
future promotions.
85) What is the human resource inventory? What are the different human resource inventory
records maintained by an organization?
Answer: A human resource inventory consists of information about the characteristics of
organization members. The focus is on past performance and future potential, and the
objective is to keep management up to date about the possibilities for filling a position from
within. This inventory should indicate which individuals in the organization would be
appropriate for filling a position if it became available. In a classic article, Walter S.
Wikstrom proposed that organizations keep three types of records that can be combined to
maintain a useful human resource inventory.
The first of Wikstrom's three types of records for a human resource inventory is the
management inventory card. It indicates an individual's age, year of employment, present
position and the length of time he/she has held it, performance ratings, strengths and
weaknesses, the positions to which he/she might move, when he/she would be ready to
assume these positions, and additional training he/she would need to fill the positions. In
short, this card contains an organizational history of each employee and an indication of how
he/she might be used in the future.
Wikstrom's second type of human resource inventory record — the position replacement
form — focuses on position-centered information rather than the people-centered information
maintained on the management inventory card. The position replacement form is helpful in
determining what would happen to an employee's present position if he/she were selected to
be moved within the organization or if he/she decided to leave the organization.
Wikstrom's third human resource inventory record is the management manpower replacement
chart. This chart presents a composite view of the individuals management considers
significant for human resource planning. The management manpower replacement chart
provides performance rating and promotion potential of an employee that can be easily
compared with those of other employees when the company is trying to determine which
individual would most appropriately fill a particular position.
86) What are the various sources of human resources available to recruiters outside an
organization?
Answer: If a position cannot be filled by someone currently employed by the organization,
management has available numerous sources of human resources outside the organization.
These sources include the following:
1. Competitors — One often-tapped external source of human resources is competing
organizations. Because of several advantages in luring human resources away from
competitors, this type of piracy has become a common practice. Among the advantages are
the following:
• The individual knows the business.
• The competitor will have paid for the individual's training up to the time of hire.
• The competing organization will probably be weakened somewhat by the loss of the
individual.
• Once hired, the individual will be a valuable source of information about how to best
compete with the other organization.
2. Employment agencies — Employment agencies help people find jobs and help
organizations find job applicants. Such agencies can be either public or private. Public
employment agencies do not charge fees, whereas private ones collect a fee from either the
person hired or the organization doing the hiring, once the hire has been finalized.
3. Readers of certain publications — Perhaps the most widely used external source of human
resources is the readership of certain publications. To tap this source, recruiters simply place
an advertisement in a suitable publication. The advertisement describes the open position in
detail and announces that the organization is accepting applications from qualified
individuals. The type of position to be filled determines the type of publication in which the
advertisement is placed. The objective is to advertise in a publication whose readers are likely
to be interested in filling the position.
4. Educational institutions — Many recruiters go directly to schools to interview students
close to graduation time. Liberal arts schools, business schools, engineering schools, junior
colleges, and community colleges all have somewhat different human resources to offer.
Recruiting efforts should focus on the schools with the highest probability of providing
human resources appropriate for the open position.
87) Briefly describe the role of the selection process in providing appropriate human
resources to an organization.
Answer: Selection is choosing an individual to hire from all those who have been recruited.
Selection, obviously, is dependent on the first step, recruitment. Selection is represented as a
series of stages through which job applicants must pass to be hired. Each stage reduces the
total group of prospective employees until, finally, one individual is hired.
88) What are the different types of tests used by organizations during the selection process?
Answer: Testing is examining human resources for qualities relevant to performing available
jobs. Although many different kinds of tests are available for organizational use, they
generally can be divided into the following four categories:
1. Aptitude tests — Tests of aptitude measure the potential of an individual to perform a task.
Some aptitude tests measure general intelligence, while others measure special abilities, such
as mechanical, clerical, or visual skills.
2. Achievement tests — Tests that measure the level of skill or knowledge an individual
possesses in a certain area are called achievement tests. This skill or knowledge may have
been acquired through various training activities or through experience in the area. Examples
of skill tests are typing and keyboarding tests.
3. Vocational interest tests — Tests of vocational interest attempt to measure an individual's
interest in performing various kinds of jobs. They are administered on the assumption that
certain people perform jobs well because they find the job activities stimulating. The basic
purpose of this type of test is to select for an open position the individual who finds most
aspects of that position interesting.
4. Personality tests — Personality tests attempt to describe an individual's personality
dimensions in such areas as emotional maturity, subjectivity, honesty, and objectivity. These
tests can be used advantageously if the personality characteristics needed to do well in a
particular job are well defined and if individuals possessing those characteristics can be
identified and selected. Managers must be careful, however, not to expose themselves to legal
prosecution by basing employment decisions on personality tests that are invalid and
unreliable.
89) What is the role of training in providing appropriate human resources to an organization?
Answer: After recruitment and selection, the next step in providing appropriate human
resources for the organization is training. Training is the process of developing qualities in
human resources that will enable them to be more productive and thus contribute more to
organizational goal attainment. The purpose of training is to increase the productivity of
employees by influencing their behavior.
The training of individuals is essentially a four-step process:
1. Determining training needs
2. Designing the training program
3. Administering the training program
4. Evaluating the training program
90) What is performance appraisal? What are the different methods used to conduct
performance appraisals?
Answer: Performance appraisal is the process of reviewing individuals' past productive
activity to evaluate the contribution they have made toward attaining management system
objectives. Like training, performance appraisal — which is also called performance review
and performance evaluation — is a continuing activity that focuses on both established
human resources within the organization and newcomers. Its main purpose is to furnish
feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive and useful to
the organization in its quest for quality.
There are several methods of performance appraisals. The most commonly used are:
1. Rating scale — Individuals appraising performance use a form containing several
employee qualities and characteristics to be evaluated (e.g., dependability, initiative,
leadership). Each evaluated factor is rated on a continuum or scale ranging, for example,
from 1 to 7.
2. Employee comparisons — Appraisers rank employees according to such factors as job
performance and value to organization. Only one employee can occupy a particular ranking.
This method is also known as a "forced distribution" or "forced ranking" system.
3. Free-form essay — Appraisers simply write down their impressions of employees in
paragraph form.
4. Critical-form essay — Appraisers write down particularly good or bad events involving
employees as these events occur. Records of all documented events for any one employee are
used to evaluate that person's performance.
Test Bank for Modern Management: Concepts and Skills
Samuel C. Certo, S. Trevis Certo
9780133059922, 9780133254105, 9780135983546
